Sitemap 1

• What is a balanced diet? A. Eating all the nutrients in the same amount ...
• Protein is needed in the diet for... A. growth only B. repair and ...
• Why do we need carbohydrate in the diet? A. for energy B. for ...
• Why are fats important in the diet? A. to help us grow B. ...
• Which one of these is true about minerals? A. we need them in large ...
• Why is calcium important in the diet? A. for healthy muscles B. for ...
• Which of these foods are good sources of vitamins and minerals? A. fruit and ...
• What individual characteristics are most important in determining how much nutrients a person needs in ...
• Which nutrient provides the most amount of energy per gram? A. Carbohydrate B. Fats C. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a factor that determines how much energy we need. ...
• Jerry wants to build up his muscles, which food group intake he should increase ?  ...
• What causes scurvy? A. Vitamin A deficiency B. Vitamin C deficiency C. ...
• What is kwashiorkor caused by? A. Severe malnutrition B. Overnutrition C. Junk ...
• What causes rickets? A. Vitamin A Deficiency B. Vitamin C deficiency C. ...
• What is the purpose of Iron? A. Transport oxygen to the cells, blood cell ...
• The chewing and grinding of food into smaller pieces is an example of... A. Mechanical ...
• The process of which food enters the alimentary canal through the mouth is called ...
• Tube that carries swallowed food to the stomach A. esophagus B. liver C. pancreas D. ...
• Where does ingestion begin? A. duodenum B. stomach C. mouth D. ...
• The correct order of parts labelled 2, ...
• What food would you recommend to someone who has scurvy? A. carbohydrates B. dairy C. ...
• What begins the process of mechanical breakdown? A. the mouth B. the esophagus C. the ...
• What pushes food from the mouth to the stomach? A. Stomach B. Gall bladder C. ...
• What churns food and breaks it down further using strong acids? A. Stomach B. Salivary ...
• What stores bile? A. Colon B. Gall Bladder C. Small Intestine
• What produces the bile used to break down fats? A. Liver B. Large Intestine C. ...
• After the stomach where does the digested food go next? A. Into the esophagus ...
• These are fingerlike projections in the small intestine that nutrients pass through.  A. villi B. ...
• Number 3 is pointing to the... ...
• Number 2 is pointing to the... ...
• Nutrients from digested food are absorbed in which digestive organ? A. Small Intestine B. Stomach ...
• Which of the following is NOT part of the digestive tract?  (Hint:  Identify the secondary ...
• A short tube at the end of the large intestine that stores solid waste is ...
• The opening at the end of the digestive system where solid waste comes out is ...
• What is an important part of the digestive system? A. Heart B. Lungs C. Stomach ...
• The part of the digestive system which is highlighted represents: A. Oesophagus B. Small intestine ...
• What is the difference between the small and large intestine? A. The small intestine ...
• WHAT ARE THE 6 NUTRIENTS? A. Carbs, Meats, Fibers, Water, Protein, and Dairy B. Fruits, ...
• The body uses this to dissolve and transport materials. A. Fats B. Water C. Minerals ...
• Which of the following nutrients is important for body, cell, and muscle growth and repair? ...
• Which nutrient supplies the most energy per gram?  A. carbohydrates B. fats C. protein D. ...
• Which of the following nutrients provides energy to the body? A. carbohydrates B. vitamins C. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a nutrient? A. water B. fat C. fiber D. ...
• Calcium, Sodium, and Iron are examples of ________? A. Minerals B. Vitamins C. Fruits D. ...
• Which of the following is true about most fast foods?  A. they are low in ...
• What is the main reason for eating a wide variety of foods?  A. to learn ...
• Which one of the following is a good protein source?  A. Banana B. Beans  C. ...
• Which one is Protective Foods A. Vitamins and Minerals B. Proteins C. ...
• Proteins are found in... A. dried beans, peas, and nuts B. milk and eggs C. ...
• Fish, nuts, oils and avocado are health sources of.... A. Fiber B. Protein C. Minerals ...
• When you don't drink enough water you can become: A. silly B. hyper C. intoxicated  ...
• Stored energy e.g. oils, butter, margarine A. Fats B. Carbohydrates C. Minerals D. Vitamins ...
• What type of stretches should we complete before taking part in physical activity? A. ...
• Components of wellness A. Physical, Environment, Emotional, Personal and Intellectual B. Environment, Emotional, ...
• Try to reduce your ............................ of fat. A. sufficient B. sound C. brisk D. intake ...
• The ability to move your joints through a full range of motion. A. Reaction Time ...
• If an exercise is to easy to complete , you should .... ? A. ...
• Which part of the body does the plank mainly work on ? A. Lower ...
• You must ........................... eating a lot of sugar. It is very harmful for your health. ...
• What does HIIT stand for ? A. High Intensity Interval Training B. High ...
• Nowadays, many health problems are caused by our .............................. lifestyles. A. active B. sedentary C. ...
• What is short-lasting, high intensity activity that doesn't use oxygen? A. Aerobic B. Swimming C. ...
• Advantages of fitness EXCEPT : A. Relaxation and release stress B. Increase risk ...
• The ability to use your entire body for long periods of time without stopping is ...
• The body's proportion of fat, muscle, and bone is: A. Muscular Strength B. Aerobic Fitness ...
• What is (are) the byproduct(s) of aerobic respiration? A. Glucose and oxygen B. ...
• Eating only one type of food is a good choice if it is a healthy ...
• What is rhythmic, nonstop moderate to vigorous activity that requires large amounts of oxygen? A. ...
• The push-up test measures_________? A. Flexibility B. Cardiovascular Endurance C. Body Composition D. Muscular Endurance ...
• Using your muscles many times without tiring. A. Power B. Muscular Strength C. Muscular Endurance ...
• How do you calculate your heart rate?  A. 220-age  B. Counting for 10 sec and ...
• What is TABATA Training Protocol as coined by Dr Izumi Tabata? A. 20 seconds ...
• Components of Fitness : A. Speed B. Emotional C. Environment D. ...
• You can't function properly when you are ............................. of sleep. A. deprived B. taken C. ...
• That old man does not have a ....................... mind anymore. He always forgets things and ...
• What does it mean for something to be anaerobic? A. It requires CO2 B. It ...
• Chocolate and other sweets are okay as long as you have them sometimes and the ...
• HIIT workout focus on A. Cardio only B. Muscle Building only C. ...
• Your goal should be to have a _______________ plate. Fill in the missing word.  A. ...
• What type of exercise is this? ...
• The heart of a healthy person beats A. 60 B. 70 C. ...
• What is a part of the circulatory system? A. Heart, brain, muscle, skeleton ...
• What is the Purpose of the Circulatory System? A. Sense, Think, Commuincate B. ...
• What is the circulatory system? A. The system that circulates blood through the body ...
• Which vein brings blood from the upper part of the body? A. inferior vena ...
• Which two chambers of the heart pump blood to the body? A. left auricle ...
• Name of the artery that carries deoxygenated blood A. inferior vena cava B. ...
• What does the circulatory system rely on? A. Nervous system B. Brain ...
• Which yoga asana helps to make the heart healthier and improves blood circulation A. ...
• All veins carry deoxygenated blood A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Pulse rate measures ... A. How many times the heart beats per minute. ...
• Do all animals have circulatory system? A. yes B. no
• Whose walls are thinner? A. Veins B. Arteries
• Your nutrition affects your overall health. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The food you eat must be broken down into a different form before your body ...
• Chocolate and other sweets are okay as long as you have them sometimes and the ...
• Practicing good nutrition means that you can eat one type of food every day as ...
• How many food groups are there ? A. 5 B. 6 C. 8 D. 7 ...
• You get the energy you need for your daily activities from the food you eat. ...
• What food group do eggs belong to? A. Fats and sugar B. Fruit and Vegetables ...
• To be healthy, you have to cut all the fat from your diet. A. TRUE ...
• A small amount of fat in your diet is good for your body. A. TRUE ...
• The Nutrition Facts label shows you how much of each food you should eat. A. ...
• What food group does chicken belong to? A. Carbohydrates B. Fruit and vegetables C. Dairy ...
• The number of calories in food is a measure of how much energy that food ...
• We need to drink _____ water so as to keep fit. A. less ...
• Eating only one type of food is a good choice if it is a healthy ...
• You need to drink only two glasses of water every day. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Which one of the food categories below is NOT part of My Plate?  A. Grains ...
• It helps us to digest our food. It's in vegetables and fruit. A. fats ...
• Your goal should be to have a _______________ plate. Fill in the missing word.  A. ...
• What food group does bread belong to? A. Proteins B. Carbohydrates C. Fats and sugar ...
• Consumption of fast food can increase high level of _________. A. health B. ...
• Which is NOT an energetic exercise? A. Playing football B. Dancing C. Watching TV D. ...
• Complete these collocations: try ..... out all sugar A. refusing B. eating ...
• Daily exercise and weight control strongly influence your chances of staying _______. A. health ...
• Which one is NOT a vegetable? A. carrots B. lettuce C. ice cream D. tomato ...
• Complete these collocations: drink in ... A. moderation B. butter C. puddings ...
• What kind of exercises we should do to be healthy? A. Laying on the ...
• Chicken and eggs contain... A. vitamins and minerals B. fats C. carbohydrates D. proteins ...
• Complete these collocations: look carefully at your... A. muesli B. lifeless C. ...
• Carbohydrates give us... A. calcium B. energy C. vitamins D. strenght
• Fruits and vegetables are full of... A. carbohydrates B. vitamins and minerals C. fats D. ...
• Sleep, rest and relaxation can slow down the ________. A. aging process B. ...
• A healthy lifestyle can be described as: A. Eating fruit and vegetables B. ...
• You should exercise regularly and eat less salt to _____________ your health. A. boost ...
• A healthy lifestyle can be described as A. Exercise to the point of exhaustion ...
• What is the part of the body ...
• Which of these options is not good for our health? A. Go to physical ...
• How much sleep do experts recommend for the average person each night? A. 6 ...
• Type of circulation that refers to the blood flowing through the entire body? A. ...
• What function does the heart do? A. Protects organs and produces red blood cells. B. ...
• Name part M.     ...
• Which is NOT a function of the circulatory system? A. deliver O2 and nutrients to ...
• Type of circulation that refers to blood flow from the heart to the lungs and ...
• Name part N.     ...
• The heart has ___ chambers. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 ...
• What makes up the greatest part of blood? A. Red Blood Cells B. Platelets C. ...
• The type of blood vessel that normally carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the ...
• This is a picture of: ...
• Name part A.     ...
• The main vein(s) that brings blood to ...
• Which 2 chambers of the heard contain oxygen-rich blood? A. Left Atrium and Left Ventricle ...
• What do Red-Blood cells do? A. Carry oxygen from the lungs to the body cells ...
• Name part B.     ...
• True or False: The 4 major parts of the Circulatory System are the Heart, Lungs, ...
• Which 2 chambers of the heard contain non-oxygen-rich blood? A. Left Atrium and Left Ventricle ...
• The Circulatory System works with the ___________ system to provide our body with oxygen. ...
• What is the main organ in the circulatory system? A. vein B. lung C. heart ...
• Which is the correct definition of the Circulatory system? A. The system fights disease so ...
• Name part I.     ...
• What is the largest artery in the body? A. Aorta B. Vertebral Artery C. Ventrical ...
• The type of blood vessel where exchange of gases, nutrients, and wastes occurs? A. ...
• The type of blood vessel that normally carries de-oxygenated blood back to the heart from ...
• Can we avoid non communicable disease ? A. Yes ! B. No ! ...
• Laughing is good to our heart? A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Who easily can get heart attack? A. Senior citizen B. Teenager C. ...
• How to hit a softball? A. The grip B. The stance and grip ...
• Body posture during swing a bat very important because it can help us A. ...
• Which person easily got chronic disease? A. Senior citizen B. Adult C. ...
• Where should you put your bat at stance? A. Put on the ground ...
• Which one is chronic disease? A. Rashes B. Cancer C. Fever ...
• What should you do when you feel exhausted? A. Stop immediately any physical activity ...
• Body energy during throwing divided into ? A. 1 ; High energy only ...
• Common disease related to heart? A. kidney failure B. blood pressure C. ...
• During ready to hit , you cannot ........ A. Open wide your knee as ...
• Which one is true ? A. People easily love to get chronic disease ...
• First step to do in badminton is .......... A. Serve B. Smash ...
• Can we cure chronic disease A. Yes B. No
• Heart supply blood to all organ? A. True. B. FALSE
• Sport with racquet and shuttlecock called A. Table tennis B. Netball C. ...
• Sport with racquet and shuttlecock called A. Table tennis B. Badminton C. ...
• How many people can play badminton in a court at the same time? A. ...
• Which one is chronic disease A. Fever B. Measles C. Diabetes ...
• Throwing usually use......... as equipment. A. Ball B. Socks C. Hoola hoop ...
• How far your heart can launch your blood if heart was outside of your body? ...
• How many beats of our heart per day ? A. 11500 times only per ...
• Non communicable disease known as A. Kids disease B. Common disease C. ...
• If you are right handed , which hand put on top during grip ? ...
• You have so many blood vessels in your body.Just imagine how far all your blood ...
• Which part of your body facing plate? A. Face, toes, shoulder and waist ...
• Hand grip during playing badminton very important because? A. To make sure people feel ...
• What suitable attire should you wear during playing ? A. Shoes with socks, shirt ...
• What is the function of our heart? A. to carry oxygen B. to ...
• Why body posture very important during throwing? A. To make us stable B. ...
• What is stance ? A. A place where people want to hit B. ...
• Which one is false ? A. We can avoid chronic disease B. Chronic ...
• There were 3 technique of throwing. What are they? A. skin level, mouth level ...
• First movement to play badminton is ... A. Serving B. Smashing C. ...
• You are in situation ready to hit, what should you do ? A. Raise ...
• Throwing classified as .... A. Action taken by our body to throw away things ...
• There were two type of receiving shuttle in badminton. A. Serve B. Back ...
• Contagious disease mean... A. Chronic disease B. Curable disease C. disease ...
• Which one is chronic disease A. Fever B. Measles C. Diabetes ...
• Suitable attire for student to play? A. Shirt pants B. Shirt pants shoes ...
• Hand grip in badminton also called? A. Smashing B. Holding C. Serving ...
• We have to grip properly during playing badminton because? A. To make us comfortable ...
• Who is the badminton lagend in Malaysia? A. Nicol Ann David B. Lee ...
• Size of our heart is same size like our...... A. head B. eye ...
• Holding a racquet called ? A. Fist B. Grip C. Catch ...
• venue for badminton called? A. Court B. Field C. Stadium ...
• Chronic disease is contagious to other? A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Using carbohydrate without the presence of oxygen would produce which of the following metabolites ...
• If a person has a deficiency in vitamin C, they may have... A. Scurvy ...
• What would be included in the 'energy in' side of the energy balance equation? ...
• Which method of cooking meat is best avoided as part of healthy food preparation? ...
• Which of these is NOT a role/function of dietary fat A. Hormone Production ...
• Which molecule is found in a triglyceride? A. Lipase B. Glycerol C. ...
• Which level of blood sugar would be considered Hypoglycemia? A. 2.1 mmol/L B. ...
• Which of the following food examples is NOT a complete protein source A. Chicken ...
• Organic compounds that control several body functions. e.g. A, C, K A. Carbohydrates B. Metabolism ...
• Where is fat oxidised in the body? A. Lungs B. Heart C. ...
• Which of the following does NOT impact Muscle Protein Synthesis A. Contraction B. ...
• What is the definition of the ‘Glycaemic Index (GI)’? A. The daily energy requirement ...
• Which of the following would be considered a Low GI Carbohydrate A. White Rice ...
• Which nutrient must be consumed to replenish glycogen stores after exercise? A. Carbohydrate ...
• Which protein is contractile? A. Myofibrillar B. Mitochondrial C. Ketones D. ...
• Which molecule is found in a triglyceride? A. Lipase B. Glycerol C. ...
• The process of breaking down food into a form the body can use. A. Diet ...
• Which Amino Acid is seen as most superior for Muscle Protein Synthesis A. Leucine ...
• Which is NOT a type of Carbohydrate A. Monosaccharide B. Polymorsaccharide C. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a place where fat can be stored A. ...
• How many Amino Acids exist A. 20 B. 11 C. 9 ...
• Which of these is NOT a direct function of protein A. Enzyme Function ...
• What is muscle protein breakdown? A. Break down of damaged amino acids in skeletal ...
• How much energy (kcal) does 10 grams of fat provide? A. 40 B. ...
• Which of the following food examples is a source of saturated fat A. Coconut ...
• What is the stored form of carbohydrate in the human body A. Glucagon ...
• What is the main role of carbohydrate in the human body A. Muscle Protein ...
• How many g/kg protein must we try to consume when trying to maintain muscle mass ...
• Which hormone is released when blood sugar is low? A. Insulin B. Fructose ...
• Which definition best describes Lipolysis A. Fatty Acids being oxidised in the mitochondria ...
• Fish, nuts, oils and avocado are health sources of.... A. Fiber B. Protein C. Minerals ...
• Identify the three macronutrients A. Carbohydrate, Protein, Fibre B. Carbs, Fat, Protein ...
• Foods that are high in Saturated Fat will A. lead to a risk of ...
• WHAT ARE THE 7 NUTRIENTS? A. Carbohydrates, Fats, Meats, Fibre, Water, Protein, and Dairy ...
• Which of the following nutrients is important for body, cell, and muscle growth and repair? ...
• Which component of a healthy, balance diet is responsible for providing energy before an event? ...
• Which component of a healthy, balance diet is responsible for aiding digestion?  A. Fibre ...
• Which vitamin is vital for bone strength & can be found in dairy products (e.g milk ...
• Which of the following is not a function of minerals?  A. Strengthens bones B. Prevents ...
• When you don't drink enough water you can become: A. silly B. hyper C. intoxicated  ...
• Which of the following is an example of a simple carbohydrate? A. Pasta B. Banana ...
• Which one of the following states why an endurance athlete would use carbohydrate loading? ...
• Most people should take Vitamin D supplements because they don't get enough... A. Sun ...
• When energy intake decreases and energy expenditure increases, body weight ______________. A. remains the same ...
• Which of the following nutrients provides energy to the body? A. carbohydrates B. vitamins C. ...
• Calcium, Sodium, and Iron are examples of ________? A. Minerals B. Vitamins C. Fruits D. ...
• Mineral that helps to avoid anaemia A. Cholesterol B. Zinc C. Iron D. Calcuim ...
• Which of the following is an element essential for good health. e.g. Calcium, Iron, Potassium ...
• Which component of a balanced diet is mainly responsible for resisting infection & disease?  A. ...
• Identify the two micronutrients A. Vitamins and Fibre B. Minerals and Vitamin A, ...
• What does the body use carbohydrates for? A. Carbohydrates enable the tranport of essential ...
• The body uses this to dissolve and transport materials. A. Fats B. Water C. Minerals ...
• Select an internal body part A. Eyes B. Skin C. Kidney ...
• A healthy human heart beats _ times in a minute A. 64 B. ...
• Doctors who specialize in treatment of heart diseases are called... A. Oncologists B. ...
• What is the meaning Of oxygenated? A. Lacking oxygen B. Rich in oxygen ...
• The upper left and right chambers are called A. Ventricles B. Autria ...
• How long is the kidney? A. 4-5 inches B. 5-6 inches C. ...
• What is the shape of the stomach A. Round B. Oval C. ...
• Blood circulation occurs through... A. Veins B. Blood vessels C. Arteries ...
• Name the organ     ...
• Liver helps in digestion of..     A.     Fats    
• What is protected by the skull? A. Lungs B. Brain C. Heart ...
• In an immune response, what is the main function of the circulatory system? A. ...
• Which of the following prevents pathogens from ever entering the body? A. skin ...
• Which of the following works to prevent viruses from reproducing in healthy body cells? ...
• White blood cells that help rid the body of parasites by injecting them with toxic ...
• Antibodies can make it easier for phagocytes to destroy pathogens by causing the pathogens to ...
• The white blood cells that engulf pathogens that are inside of the body are ...
• Which cell destroys body cells that have already been invaded by a pathogen? A. ...
• The type of immunity that is produced in response to a specific pathogen infecting your ...
• Which of these best describes the function of complement proteins? A. causing pathogens to ...
• What should you eat for breakfast? A. Nutella on toast B. Chocolate and ...
• How many times should you eat protein a day? A. 7 B. 2 ...
• After how many minutes should you exercise after food? A. 17 mins B. ...
• What disease would you get when you smoke? A. Pancreatitous B. Stomach Cancer ...
• What comes first? A. Stomach B. Oesophagus
• What cookies should you eat? A. Chocolate Chip B. Raisin C. Caramel ...
• Eating an apple is right. Is that person right or wrong? A. right ...
• What is the healthiest thing to do on the weekend? A. Go to you ...
• Which one of the following is not an animal source of fats? A. Lard B. ...
• Stored energy e.g. oils, butter, margarine A. Fats B. Carbohydrates C. Minerals D. Vitamins ...
• Excessive intake of fats would lead to the following except: A. Cardiovascular Disease B. Stroke ...
• How many pair of hydrogen atoms can a monounsaturated fat molecule combine? A. 1 B. ...
• Which of the following nutrients is important for body, cell, and muscle growth and repair? ...
• The body uses this to dissolve and transport materials. A. Fats B. Water C. Minerals ...
• Organic compounds that help our body to work properly. e.g. A, C, B, K, D ...
• What types of fats are more healthy for us to consume and why? A. ...
• What food group do eggs belong to? A. Fats and sugar B. Fruit and Vegetables ...
• What food group does bread belong to? A. Proteins B. Carbohydrates C. Fats and sugar ...
• Which one of the following is a saturated fatty acid? A. Palmitic Acid B. Oleic ...
• What is the role of fat in the body? A. Certain fats can help ...
• Elements essential for good health. e.g. Calcium, Iron, Potassium  A. Protein B. Fat C. Minerals ...
• Which of these foods is an unsaturated fat? A. Olive Oil B. Coconut Oil C. ...
• Which food group is this? A. ...
• This type of fat is not recommend to have in your diet at all? A. ...
• What is the main reason for eating a wide variety of foods?  A. to learn ...
• Which fat is solid at room temps? A. Saturated B. Unsaturated
• Which contains 9 grams of energy per calorie? A. Carbs B. Protein C. Fat D. ...
• Which of the following is true about most fast foods?  A. they are low in ...
• Balanced diets contain the proper amounts of __________ A. almonds B. nutrients ...
• Fruit and vegetables are a good source of ? A. Vitamins B. Minerals ...
• The food we eat contains A. nutrients B. colours C. numbers ...
• What health problem can happen when you eat too little food? A. Overweight ...
• Why is it not a good idea to fill up your plate with only 1 ...
• What does protein do for our body? A. Helps us grow taller B. ...
• Chapatti, rice and bread are rich with A. dairy B. protein C. ...
• Which is NOT a nutrient in the food: A. protein B. carbohydrate ...
• Jerry wants to build up his muscles, which food group intake he should increase ?  ...
• Why is this food not balanced ...
• What is balanced diet? A. Eating the right amount of food to stay healthy ...
• Why is the calcium important in our diet? A. To improve our sleeping habit ...
• This food belongs to which food group?
• Which food contains carbohydrates? A. Fish B. Pasta C. Egg D. Carrot
• Which statement is correct? A. Balanced diet makes you feel good. B. Unhealthy ...
• Carrots are good for us because they are A. high in carbohydrates B. ...
• What is the main nutrient that this ...
• What is the last part of the large intestine called? A. pancreas B. esophagus C. ...
• What does a life cycle show? A. Shows an animal or plants life from ...
• Which system carries needed materials to the body cells and carries wastes away from the ...
• Where does the stomach empty into? A. Small intestine B. Large intestine C. Pancreas D. ...
• What function does the heart do? A. Protects organs and produces red blood cells. B. ...
• Where does the stomach empty into? A. Small intestine B. Large intestine C. Pancreas D. ...
• Carry blood away from heart; mostly oxygen-rich A. Arteries B. Veins C. Capillaries ...
• A caterpillar will eat and store food for the next stage of its life. What ...
• Which system includes the heart and blood vessels? A. respiratory B. circulatory C. nervous  D. ...
• The heart has ___ chambers. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 ...
• _______ can scatter the seeds of different plants. A. wind B. water ...
• What are the stages called that show ...
• What does the stomach do to your food? A. Pulls the vitamins and minerals out. ...
• What is the Last stage of a Plant's Life Cycle? A. Seed B. Adult Plant ...
• Which organ belongs to the digestive system? A. heart B. stomach C. femur D. brain ...
• The heart pumps blood to get ________ to our cells. A. carbon dioxide B. warlocks ...
• What does metamorphosis mean? A. To change or transform B. A fully grown ...
• A bottom chamber of our heart is called a A. ventricle B. cavern C. ...
• Where is waste stored before it is ready to leave the body? A. rectum B. ...
• Which organ holds the waste left over from food? A. stomach B. large intestines C. ...
• Which system takes food into the body, breaks down food, and absorbs the digested materials? ...
• Which part uses saliva to help break down your food? A. teeth B. mouth C. ...
• Which system includes the mouth, esophagus, and the small and large intestines? A. nervous B. ...
• Which does not make up the circulatory system? A. heart B. blood C. lungs D. ...
• what mineral does Vitamin D support A. iron B. calcium C. sodium ...
• What are the 3 D symptoms for Niacin deficiency? A. dermatitis, headache, vomiting ...
• Which of these Vitamins is an anti oxidant? A. B1 B. B12 ...
• Where are people with Beri beri likely to live A. Poor countries B. ...
• Which Vitamin helps you maintain a healthy connective tissue? A. B1 B. B2 ...
• What happens if you have too much Niacin? A. Stomach pains B. muscles ...
• What is caused by too little Vitamin C? A. Pellegra B. Beri Beri ...
• What is Folic acid need for? A. To prevent brain damage in newborn babies ...
• what is the deficiency disease from too little Vitamin B1 A. Scurvy B. ...
• Why do we need Vitamin B2? A. Helps body release energy from food? ...
• What are the symptoms if you have Beri beri? A. Muscles wasting away ...
• which of the following is a function of B12 A. makes red blood cells ...
• Coronavirus infections are likely to be more serious for: A. Teens B. Active ...
• Where do people suspect the Coronavirus came from? A. Insects B. A tourist ...
• What does the WHO stand for? A. World Health Organization B. World Happiness ...
• What is a coronavirus? A. coronaviruses are a large family of viruses that are ...
• Practicing social distancing means you should... A. Stop talking to friends and ...
• Where have cases been reported? A. China B. Italy C. Japan ...
• How does the virus spread? A. touching an infected person B. touching a ...
• What are some symptoms of the Coronavirus? A. runny nose, sore throat, dizziness, cough, ...
• The coronavirus possibly came from A. a bat B. a snake C. ...
• In which city in China did the Coronavirus start? A. Wuhan B. Shangai ...
• Where did the coronavirus originate? A. Tokyo, Japan B. Venice, Italy C. ...
• How did the Coronavirus start? Due to... A. a fish. B. a bird. ...
• a disease that can be transmitted to humans from animals is....? A. hypnotic ...
• When did the Coronavirus start? A. Sep-19 B. Oct-19 C. Nov-19 ...
• What is the famous words of Corona A. Stay Out home B. Go ...
• What does it mean when a city is quarantined during a virus outbreak? A. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a Coronavirus symptom? A. Fever B. Breathing ...
• A covering over the nose and mouth to prevent infection. A. fever B. ...
• Coronavirus has mostly affected which age group? A. elderly 50-80 yrs old B. ...
• If you are in quarantine, you must... A. see a doctor. B. stay ...
• How to avoid the virus? A. Play outside the house B. Stay at ...
• A good way of stopping Coronavirus is... A. eating fruit. B. drinking hot ...
• The coronavirus is in the shape of a A. fish B. orange ...
• To contract the Coronavirus, you first have to come into contact with it through.. ...
• How to prevent the virus from spreading? A. use face mask B. eat ...
• What should I do if I am showing signs of the coronavirus? A. Stay ...
• What is the scientific name for the Coronavirus? A. Pneumonia B. Influenza ...
• Are viruses living or non-living? A. living B. non-living C. a little ...
• How does the virus pass from person to person? A. Through the air ...
• The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle ...
• What type of muscle tissue does not have striations? A. smooth B. cardiac ...
• Name the filler gel-like substance found in cartilage tissue? A. Lacunae B. Elastic ...
• Going from the top of the long bone, the structures of would be in the ...
• You use 17 muscles to _______ and 43 to frown. A. to frown. ...
• What type of muscle tissue is shown?
• The hip is an example of what joint? A. saddle B. ball and ...
• The wrist and ankle bones are considered what type of joint? A. ball and ...
• Which part of the skeletal system protects the spinal cord? A. pelvis B. ...
• The area between the neck and head is an example of what joint? A. ...
• The main function of the musculoskeletal system is to....... A. Provide movement and support for ...
• The bond between the actin and myosin head is broken when… A. an ATP molecule ...
• What state is the sarcomere in #1
• In the diagram below, which letter points to a ligament?
• The knee is considered what type of joint? A. ball and socket B. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a disease of the musculoskeletal system? A. Muscular ...
• Which of the following statements about H zones and I bands is TRUE? A. the ...
• Muscles that you have NO conscious control over, such as the muscles that line the ...
• What is the name of the thin filaments in the muscle cell? A. Actin B. ...
• Which of these words is the best descriptor for elastic cartilage? A. Springy ...
• Does cartilage also contain lacunae, same as bone? A. Yes B. No ...
• Skeletal muscles always work _____. A. in groups B. in pairs C. singly D. none ...
• What type of muscle tissue is shown?
• Which muscle is this?    
• How do pairs of skeletal muscles work together? A. while one contracts, the other returns ...
• Which body system is responsible for our movement, energy, and for moving food from one ...
• 'C' is ________ bones    
• Which type of cartilage is between our vertebrae? A. Hyaline Cartilage B. Fibrocartilage ...
• The functional unit of the muscle cell is the:  A. Sarcomere B. Osteon C. Myofilament ...
• Progressive muscle weakness is a symptom of... A. Tendonitis B. Scoliosis C. ...
• Moves closer to the midline of the body A. abduction B. adduction ...
• This cartilage is located at the ends of our bones A. Intervertebral disc ...
• What is the name of the flat bone that makes up the shoulder blade? A. ...
• What is a crossbridge? A. Where myosin binds to actin B. Where the calcium crosses ...
• appendicular skeleton hangs of the axial framework A. TRUE B. false
• The bone marrow inside your bones makes _______________________ cells. A. blood B. cancer C. large ...
• When a muscle attaches to a bone, the end that does not move is the: ...
• Toes and fingers are called_______________________. A. bones B. carpals C. tendons D. phalanges ...
• which are the three types of joints? A. Fibrous or immovable, Cartilaginous or slightly ...
• Tendons and ligaments are what type of tissue. A. Muscle B. Nerve C. Connective D. ...
• Does cartilage contain blood vessels? A. No B. Yes C. Only in ...
• Approximately how many muscles are in our body A. 600 B. 200 ...
• How thick are collagen fibres? A. Very thin B. Very thick C. ...
• The shoulder is an example of what joint? A. saddle B. ball and ...
• What type of tissue is cartilage? A. Connective B. Muscular C. Epithelial ...
• Chrondroblasts are A. Minor breaks in the cartilage B. Reactions that occur in ...
• Bands of Actin and Myosin make up a  A. sarcomere B. perimysium C. neuromuscular junction ...
• Contractions are generated by A. shortening of thick filaments B. shortening of thin filaments C. ...
• Which of the following is an example of a fixed joint? A. knee ...
• What is the name of the Thick filaments? A. Actin B. Myosin C. Myoglobin D. ...
• A mature cartilage cell is called a chondrocyte; True or false? A. TRUE ...
• Approximately how many bones does the adult human body have? A. 200 B. ...
• One of the main jobs of cartilage is to A. make blood B. make marrow ...
• Which of the following is correct about an agonist? A. It is the muscle ...
• Which part of the skeletal system protects the heart and lungs? A. cranium/skull ...
• Moves away from the midline of the body A. adduction B. abduction ...
• The organelle that contains actin and myosin. A. Tendon B. myofilament C. myofibril D. Fiber ...
• What substance lubricates & cushions movement in our major joints? (knee, elbow, etc) A. ...
• Increases the angle of a joint A. pronation B. supination C. extension ...
• There is only one example of cardiac muscle in the body. It is the ________. ...
• ___slides inward during muscle contraction. A. actin B. myosin
• Decreases the angle of a joint A. pronation B. supination C. extension ...
• A bundle of fascicles best describes a A. muscle fiber B. muscle tissue C. myofibril ...
• Where would you find the periosteum? A. In the medullary cavity B. Inside ...
• This tough band of connective tissue connects muscles to bones. A. ligament B. ...
• What is it called where two or more bones connect A. Joint B. ...
• When a muscle contracts, it _______ A. gets longer B. gets shorter C. gets thinner ...
• This type of voluntary muscle is responsible for the movement of the skeleton. A. ...
• What bones are located in the forearm? A. tibia and fibula B. carpals and metacarpals ...
• What is the disorder of the skeletal system that results in having very brittle, soft ...
• What is the name of the contractile unit in a muscle cell? A. fascicle B. ...
• The muscles that line the digestive system are _____________ muscles. A. cardiac B. ...
• Flexible tissue that covers the ends of your bones at joints is called A. Synovial ...
• In a contracting muscle the Z lines come closer together. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• The innermost part of the bone, where blood cells are made is called the  A. ...
• Cell that build bone A. osteoclasts B. osteocytes C. Osteoblasts D. lining cells ...
• This is a tissue that connects the ends of bones together to form a joint...joins ...
• Function of Osteoclast A. As bone-forming cells B. A mature bone cells ...
• What type of muscle tissue is shown?
• standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the … Contraction of both ...
• Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is maximum during: a) Diastole of the right ...
• Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has: a) ...
• How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart? … a) Both ...
• Blood transfusion is possible between groups .. .. a) Donor A and recipient O ...
• Which one of the following is correct? … a) Blood = Plasma + RBC ...
• Pace maker is situated in heart .. .. a) in the wall of right ...
• Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sound; produced during each cardiac cycle. The second sound ...
• If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following ...
• Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for ...
• Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive ...
• Which of the following would be considered heterozygous? A. Do, Re, Mi, Fa ...
• What is a chromosome? A. A long strand of DNA B. A tiny ...
• How many chromosomes do humans have? A. 3 B. 10 C. 28 ...
• What is the definition of Homozygous? A. When one allele is dominant and one ...
• Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ ...
• What is the purpose of Mitosis? A. Growth of an organism and Repair of ...
• In dogs, the allele for black fur (B) is dominant over the allele for white ...
• Sex-linked genes are mostly found on which chromosome? A. XX B. XY C. Y ...
• What are the 4 letters that represent the DNA bases? A. Q R U ...
• A ______________ is a person who has one normal or dominant allele for a trait ...
• The image shows the pattern of inheritance ...
• A recessive allele on the X chromosome will always produce the trait in a male. ...
• What is the correct term for a structure which contains the genetic material (DNA) and ...
• Why do we need meiosis? A. To double the number of chromosomes going into sex ...
• The shape of a DNA molecule is a A. rope B. double helix ...
• In mitosis, the two resulting cells are A. different from the parent cell and ...
• What happens when a true-breeding plant self-pollinates? A. Some of its offspring have the ...
• What are the blood types of the possible children that a woman (type O) and ...
• If this image were real, it would ...
• An offspring that receives the dominant allele from one parent and the recessive allele from ...
• What is the diploid number in human cells? A. 2 B. 23 C. 46 D. ...
• A human body (somatic) cell usually has how many chromosomes? A. 6 B. ...
• Which one of the following statements is NOT true? A. Genes are the only ...
• Chromosomes are found in the ____________ of the cell A. Chloroplast B. Nucleus C. Cytoplasm ...
• The cells produced via meiosis are called: A. sex cells B. somatic cells C. body ...
• In guinea pigs, the allele for short hair (H) is dominant and the allele for ...
• If an offspring receives an allele of genetic information for two different forms of a ...
• What is the definition of the phenotype? A. The physical characteristics of an organism ...
• If a somatic (body) cell in a butterfly contains 24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg would ...
• Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or ...
• A plant with two dominant OR two recessive alleles is said to be... A. ...
• In cats, the allele for stripes (S) is dominant over the allele for no stripes ...
• An allele which is only expressed when no dominant allele is present. A. hidden ...
• What is the genotype of a person with type A blood, who had a father ...
• A man with type AB blood is accused of being the father of a type ...
• The sex chromosomes of a male are A. XX B. XY C. YY D. VV ...
• What gender of offspring are most often affected by sex-linked inheritance? What gender are ...
• What type of RNA carries the DNA message out of the nucleus to the ribosomes? ...
• One form of a gene is called_______________ A. a DNA B. a Phenotype C. a ...
• How many phenotypes are there in ABO blood types? A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 ...
• A cell containing genetic information from each parent, for example a sperm or an egg. ...
• What is the relationship between a protein, the cell, and DNA? A. DNA is ...
• Which answer contains the heterozygous genotype? A. AA B. aa C. Aa ...
• During meiosis, the nucleus of the parent cell divides A. once B. twice C. three ...
• Which base would pair with G (Guanine)? A. A B. T C. ...
• Mendel found that if he crossed a pure bred white-flowered pea plant with a pure ...
• Meiosis results in the production of A. 2 diploid cells B. 2 haploid ...
• An offspring that receives 2 dominant alleles or 2 recessive alleles from its parents. ...
• The genotype of an organism is the ______________. A. Physical appearance B. Genetic ...
• In pea plants, white flower color is recessive. In order to inherit white flower color, ...
• What is the result of meiosis? A. 2 daughter cells that are haploid and genetically ...
• Which of the following would be coded in your DNA? A. proteins and hormones ...
• How much of your DNA do you inherit from your mom? A. 10% B. 25% ...
• The antibody-secreting progeny cells of a B-cell clone are called A. plasma cells. ...
• A symptom is _______. A. a subjective indication of disease B. measurable by ...
• All of the following represent potential therapy for patients with SCID except A. graft ...
• Many men make antibodies to sperm, resulting in destruction of sperm to the point of ...
• Your 81-year old grandfather has been diagnosed with cancer of the thymus. The doctor is ...
• Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates? A. Opsonization ...
• When monocytes migrate from the blood out to the tissues, they are transformed by inflammatory ...
• An example of artificial active immunity would be A. giving a person immune serum ...
• Contact dermatitis involves A. a sensitizing and provocative dose. B. an allergen entering ...
• An example of a secondary acquired immunodeficiency is A. AIDS. B. adenosine deaminase ...
• SCID is defined by a lack of functional B and T cells which eliminates protection ...
• T/F: Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa. A. TRUE ...
• High titers of specific antibodies are characteristic of A. immune serum globulin (ISG). ...
• Carriers that shed and transmit pathogens a long time after they have recovered from an ...
• Autoimmunity is typically due to A. a transfusion reaction. B. a deficiency in ...
• T/F: A low to moderate fever in an otherwise healthy person should be treated immediately ...
• A person who produces anti-A and anti-B serum antibodies will have blood type ______. ...
• Hematopoiesis is the A. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding. B. production ...
• Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are ...
• Which of the following is not true of the preliminary findings by the HMP thus ...
• One of the major differences between the first and second line of defense is that ...
• MHC molecules are found on all of the following cells except ______. A. islet ...
• Microbial hyaluronidase, coagulase, and streptokinase are examples of _____. A. exoenzymes B. hemolysins ...
• Which white blood cells comprise 20% to 30% of the circulating WBCs and are the ...
• What will be the immediate action of an allergen when it enters the body for ...
• The objective, measurable evidence of disease evaluated by an observer is termed a/an ______. ...
• The granules of eosinophils contain ______. A. histamine B. antigens C. serotonin ...
• Corticosteroids will A. block synthesis of leukotrienes. B. reverse spasms of respiratory smooth ...
• Tissue transplanted from one body site on a patient to a different body site on ...
• Which genus is resident biota of the mouth, large intestine, and within the vagina from ...
• T/F: A fetus can get an infection when a pathogen in the mother's blood is ...
• T/F: A xenograft is graft tissue from a donor of one species transplanted to a ...
• A patient visits your clinic often with recurrent respiratory infections. Based upon their medical history, ...
• The suffix –osis means ______. A. blood B. tumor C. inflammation ...
• The histocompatibility complex proteins function in A. recognition of self. B. B cell ...
• Each of the following are benefits of fever except A. it increases phagocytosis. ...
• T/F: The tuberculin reaction develops within 30 minutes of the skin test in people with ...
• Which of the following statements does not represent the role of a cell marker in ...
• Edward Jenner's work involved A. immunization using a related, less pathogenic organism to give ...
• Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to ...
• The serum of a person with blood type A and Rh- will have the ability ...
• Lysozyme is found in ______. A. Tears B. Salivary Secretions C. Sweat ...
• The difference between the terms pathogenicity and virulence is that A. pathogens cause disease ...
• Normal biota includes each of the following except ______. A. Bacteria B. Fungi ...
• In multiple sclerosis, autoantibodies attack A. acetylcholine receptors on smooth muscle. B. cells ...
• A properly functioning immune system is responsible for A. surveillance of the body ...
• A patient enters your clinic with a suspected helminthic infection. In support of this diagnosis, ...
• Antigen presenting cells A. include dendritic cells. B. include macrophages. C. engulf ...
• A type of monocyte that has long, thin processes to trap pathogens is a(n) _____ ...
• The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population is ...
• Your patient has a rash, a fever, and a very high white blood cell count. ...
• Reservoirs include ______ A. Humans B. Animals C. Soil D. Water ...
• All of the following pertain to platelets, except A. they function primarily in hemostasis. ...
• T/F: Certain complement components stimulate inflammation and phagocytosis. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Which of the following is transmission of disease from mother to fetus? A. Direct ...
• T/F: During graft rejection, cytotoxic T cells of the recipient recognize and respond to foreign ...
• An effective test to determine whether an individual is allergic to a specific substance is ...
• Specific immunity provides long-lasting protection through the production of _____. A. antibodies B. ...
• T/F: The secondary response to an antigen is more rapid and robust than the primary ...
• All of the following are autoimmune diseases except A. Graves' disease. B. metastatic ...
• Virulence factors include all of the following except ______. A. Exotoxins B. Capsules ...
• High levels of tryptase in the blood is indicative of A. a bacterial infection. ...
• Immunotherapy is the A. use of antitoxins. B. conferring of passive immunity. ...
• Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis? A. Neutralization ...
• DiGeorge syndrome is the result of A. delayed hypersensitivity. B. congenital absence or ...
• T/F: During inflammation, a high neutrophil count is a common sign of bacterial infection. ...
• Not all phagocytic cells are antigen-presenting cells. B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells differ from ...
• Superantigens are A. body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign. B. ...
• The total number of deaths in a population due to a disease is the ______ ...
• The ability of TC cells to initiate apoptosis in virally-infected cells and cancer cells is ...
• Each of the following is a term reflecting a process involved in the migration of ...
• Cytotoxic T cells A. secrete granzymes and perforins that damage target cells. B. ...
• Based on new information from the Human Microbiome Project, the human body typically begins to ...
• Infection with enteroviruses, such as rotavirus and cytomegalovirus, has been implicated in the onset of ...
• The suffix –emia means ______. A. Blood B. a disease or morbid process ...
• In the theory for allergic desensitization, which immunoglobulin blocks the allergen from binding with IgE? ...
• Once a microbe has entered a host, what process performed by certain white blood cells ...
• What type of molecules act to draw phagocytes to foreign substances? A. PAMP's ...
• Many men make antibodies to sperm, resulting in destruction of sperm to the point of ...
• T/F: Genetic differences among species and within a species can convey genetic immunity to certain ...
• Class I MHC genes code for A. self receptors recognized by T lymphocytes ...
• The most numerous WBCs that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are ______. ...
• An animal, such as an arthropod, that transmits a pathogen from one host to another ...
• What is one goal of the Human Microbiome Project? A. To sequence the DNA ...
• Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule, thereby disrupting ...
• Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing ______. A. degranulation ...
• Someone who inconspicuously harbors a pathogen and spreads it to others is a _______ ...
• Which of the following does not illustrate the use of universal precaution methods in the ...
• Animals that participate in the life cycles of pathogens and transmit pathogens from host to ...
• Which of the following is not a target for TC cells? A. Pig transplanted ...
• The most significant cells in graft rejection are A. suppressor T cells. B. ...
• Which of the following is not a factor that weakens host defenses against infections? ...
• If you were a bacterial cell, which of the following would be the most beneficial ...
• Which of the following is an example of sequelae? A. Difficulty swallowing from streptococcal ...
• Which of the following is the endotoxin? A. Lipopolysaccharide B. Collagenase C. ...
• As an adult who never developed chickenpox infection as a child, you elect to receive ...
• Antigens that elicit allergic reactions are called ______ A. autoantigens B. allergens ...
• Acquired specific immunity involves the response of A. skin barriers. B. lysozyme ...
• The major histocompatibility complex is A. a set of glycoproteins, called MHC antigens, found ...
• T/F: Latency is a dormant state of an infectious agent. A. TRUE B. ...
• T/F: A viral infection can lead to the development of type I diabetes A. ...
• Helper T cells A. directly destroy target cells. B. function in allergic reactions. ...
• Large quantities of antibodies that react to the second entry of antigen and lead to ...
• A person will typically experience the sensation of _____ when fever is starting to occur ...
• Each of the following is inoculation of normal biota to a newborn except A. ...
• A foreign molecule that causes a specific immune response is a(n) ______. A. PAMP ...
• An endotoxin is ______. A. secreted by pathogenic organisms B. indicative of fungal ...
• Which of the following is mismatched in relation to inflammation? A. Tumor-Cancer B. ...
• Human blood types involve all of the following except A. MHC genes. B. ...
• The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away ...
• T/F: Before a type II hypersensitivity can proceed, three immune components must be in place: ...
• The third line of defense against foreign invaders can be described as having _______ and ...
• Epinephrine A. causes desensitization. B. is an antihistamine. C. reverses constriction of ...
• T/F: Virulence refers to the degree of pathogenicity manifested by a microbe, not simply whether ...
• Live, attenuated vaccines A. include the Sabin polio vaccine. B. include the measles, ...
• A foreign molecule that causes a specific immune response is a A. antigen ...
• Humoral immunity involves ______, while _____ function in cell-mediated immunity. A. B cells, T ...
• Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all of the following diseases except A. myasthenia gravis. ...
• The effect of beneficial microbes of normal biota against invading microbes is called ______. ...
• The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is _____. A. IgD B. ...
• Which of the following is not an event of phagocytosis? A. Ingestion B. ...
• T/F: The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention assigns the most virulent microbes known to ...
• All of the following are physical barriers to pathogens, except ______. A. T Cells ...
• Plasma A. is the liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended. ...
• Histamine causes all of the following except A. wheal and flare reaction in skin. ...
• Bacterial toxins are chemical products made by bacteria. A person ingests some honey containing Clostridium ...
• What can be a consequence of a genetic deficiency in B-cell survival and maturity? ...
• An example of natural passive immunity would be A. chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong ...
• Endogenous infectious agents arise from microbes that are ______. A. transmitted from one person ...
• The molecular fragment on an antigen molecule that a lymphocyte recognizes and responds to is ...
• All of the following are associated with IgE and mast-cell-mediated allergy except ______. A. ...
• Place the following cells in order from greatest to least phagocytic activity: neutrophils, eosinophils, macrophages. ...
• Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergen? A. Histamine acting on smooth ...
• Which of the following is not correct terminology used for resident biota? A. Normal ...
• Superantigens are A. cell markers found in some member of a species but not ...
• Plasma cells A. are derived from T lymphocytes. B. function in cell-mediated immunity. ...
• T/F: Eczema is an autoimmune disorder. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are ______ A. interferons ...
• Diapedesis is the A. production of only red blood cells. B. migration of ...
• Since the 1970s, approximately 40 new infectious disease agents have been discovered, including SARS, chikungunya ...
• Leukopenia is the _____ in the level of white blood cells in a patient. ...
• T/F: The virulence factors of a pathogen are determined by how strong or weak a ...
• When would Koch's postulates be utilized? A. to determine the cause of a new ...
• The greatest number of pathogens enter the body through the ______. A. Skin ...
• The _____ system of blood proteins act to lyse foreign cells and viruses. A. ...
• Which type of white blood cell is particularly attracted to sites of parasitic worm infections? ...
• Which protein can be produced by a virus-infected cell, in order to communicate with other ...
• Serum sickness and the Arthus reaction are both type III hypersensitivities, but they differ in ...
• T/F: Fomites, food, and air serve as indirect transmission routes of pathogens. A. TRUE ...
• T/F: B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes mature in the thymus gland. A. TRUE ...
• The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all of the following except ______. ...
• The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is highly diversified from one ...
• Which gland shrinks in size during adulthood and has hormones that function in maturation of ...
• T/F: Human B lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa. A. TRUE ...
• The dried residues of fine droplets from mucus or saliva that harbor and transmit pathogen ...
• The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention mandates that some diseases must be reported, while ...
• Exotoxins A. Host specific B. Cause more damage than endoxins C. are ...
• T/F: Interferons do not protect the cell that secretes them. A. TRUE B. ...
• An inanimate object that harbors and transmits a pathogen is a ______. A. Vector ...
• T/F; The allergen in poison ivy plants is an oil called urushiol. A. TRUE ...
• The primary, natural habitat of a pathogen where it continues to exist is called the ...
• In order for B cells to produce antibodies and cytotoxic T cells to attack infected ...
• Keratinase has the greatest effect on the ______. A. genital system B. skin ...
• The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell ...
• The membrane attack stage of the complement cascade involves A. the production of inflammatory ...
• Which of the following is not a property of B cells? A. They require ...
• A person with O type blood A. could not have the Rh factor. ...
• All of the following are granulocytes except _____. A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils ...
• T/F: Gamma globulin can be given as immunotherapy to confer artificial passive immunity. A. ...
• The stage of an infectious disease when specific signs and symptoms are seen and the ...
• The least numerous of all white blood cells that release histamine during inflammation and allergic ...
• Which of the following is not a structure used for bacterial adhesion? A. Specialized ...
• Which of the following is not a normal portal of exit of an infectious disease? ...
• Lipopolysaccharide of the outer membrane of gram-negative cell walls is called ______. A. enterotoxin ...
• Components of the first line of defense include all of the following, except A. ...
• Keratin is an important aspect of nonspecific defense because it A. destroys pathogens. ...
• You have received the first hepatitis A vaccine. It was required for your mission trip ...
• T/F: For a successful emergence or re-emergence to occur, a pathogen must be introduced into ...
• Diseases can re-emerge for a variety of reasons. Evaluate the following statements and choose the ...
• Lymphocytes A. possess MHC antigens for recognizing self. B. have membrane receptors that ...
• Which of the following is a mismatched term and description? A. Toxemia - pathogen's ...
• An intermediary inanimate object from which an infectious agent is acquired is termed a ______. ...
• The number of persons afflicted with an infectious disease is the _____ rate. A. ...
• Which of the following do not serve as antigen presenting cells? A. Basophils ...
• Which is not true about the Human Microbiome Project? A. The HMP can only ...
• The suffix –itis means A. blood B. inflammation C. a disease or ...
• You have severe itching problems when bitten by an insect. Your friend gives you an ...
• Myasthenia gravis disease arises from the production of autoantibodies against A. acetylcholine receptors on ...
• Immune system cells differentiate between self and foreign cells by their ______. A. Markers ...
• The initial encounter with an allergen is called the _____ dose. A. allergic ...
• An antihistamine will A. block synthesis of leukotrienes. B. reverse spasms of respiratory ...
• Which of the following fluid compartments is not a partner in immune function? A. ...
• Enterotoxins are ______. A. toxins that target the intestines B. toxins that target ...
• An infectious agent that originates from outside the body is called ______. A. an ...
• The term _____ refers to the presence of small numbers of bacteria in the blood. ...
• The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as ______. A. ...
• What structures are found along lymphatic vessels and are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, ...
• Which lymphocytes lack specificity for antigen and attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells? A. ...
• T/F: Under certain circumstances, a person's resident biota can act as opportunistic pathogens. A. ...
• An infection spread between animals and humans is a ______. A. Zoonosis B. ...
• A disease that has a steady frequency over time in a particular geographic location is ...
• The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is ______. ...
• A sign is A. an objective indication of disease. B. a subjective indication ...
• Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are called _____ because they have prominent cytoplasmic inclusions that appear ...
• A female who is Rh– A. is in the majority of the population with ...
• An example of natural active immunity would be A. chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong ...
• Microbial antagonism is the A. inhibition of T cell binding to microbes. B. ...
• Not all phagocytic cells are antigen-presenting cells. B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells differ from ...
• Once a mother has been sensitized to the Rh factor, A. all other Rh+ ...
• Which of the following is incorrect about blood cells? A. They include glial cells. ...
• Which of the following is a special binding substance that enhances immunogenicity and prolongs antigen ...
• T/F: B and T lymphocytes are specific; they have only a single type of cell ...
• Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause A. recipient antibody activation of the ...
• Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by A. treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation. ...
• Destruction of lymphocytes with self-specificity is called ______. A. hypersensititivity B. proliferation ...
• An example of artificial passive immunity would be A. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG ...
• The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other ...
• A properly functioning immune system is responsible for A. surveillance of the body. ...
• Genetic markers that distinguish a self cell from a foreign invader are typically ______. ...
• T/F: Systemic anaphylaxis can quickly result in airway blockage, shock, and death. A. TRUE ...
• John, a Peace Corps worker in the country of Mali in Africa, was in a ...
• All nucleated cells contain A. secretory antibodies. B. class I MHC. C. ...
• You do not really want to get your 3 children vaccinated. Your view is why ...
• T/F: The leukocyte histamine-release test (LHRT) measures the amount of histamine released from the patient’s ...
• Which term-definition pair is mismatched? A. Leukocidins - damage white blood cells B. ...
• The leakage of vascular fluid into tissues is called ______. A. pus B. ...
• The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when A. maternal Rh- cells ...
• What process generates many B cells and T cells that are activated against specific antigens? ...
• T/F: Plasma is also called lymph. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Infections that go unnoticed because there are no symptoms are called ______. A. Inflammation ...
• T/F: Food allergies include gastrointestinal symptoms and often hives. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Nonspecific chemical defenses include A. lysozyme B. lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat. ...
• The initial, brief period of early, general symptoms such as fatigue and muscle aches is ...
• If an individual has a genetic disorder whereby they lack the ability to make complement ...
• Pathogenic microbes that cause disease in healthy people are called ______. A. indigenous biota ...
• All of the following pertain to interferon except A. it includes alpha, beta, and ...
• Which hormone/s is produced in a female? A. Testosterone B. Oestrogen C. ...
• What is antenatal care? A. Care of a newborn baby. B. Specific care ...
• Why do progesterone levels decrease if an egg is not fertilised? A. So that ...
• Which is true about human gametes? A. The acrosome secretes enzymes which digest a ...
• How do bacteria reproduce? A. Spores B. Binary Fission C. Gametes ...
• Where are sperm cells produced? A. The sperm duct B. Glands C. ...
• What is IVF? A. Sperm is directly inserted into the uterus. B. The ...
• Which is false about asexual reproduction? A. It requires only one parent B. ...
• Which is an advantage to sexual reproduction? A. Requires less time and energy ...
• What is afterbirth? A. When the baby is being pushed out of the vagina. ...
• A tapeworm lives in the intestines of its host. Which example best describes the relationship ...
• Pinkeye the common name of this disease carried by insects that affects the eyes of ...
• The first and most noticeable part of the medical record should be: A. client ...
• To remove a tick you should: A. Pour alcohol on the tick, then pull ...
• It is normal for livestock to wander alone separate from other animals most of the ...
• Increase in heart rate A. Tachycardia B. Bradycardia C. Tachypnea D. ...
• Which pathogen is treated with antibiotics? A. virus B. bacteria C. parasite ...
• Which pathogen is non-living? A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Fungi D. ...
• A veterinary assistant records notes in a medical record using the acronym SOAP as a ...
• What does IBR stand for? A. Infectious Born Respiration B. Indefinitely Bad Respiration ...
• An otherwise healthy veterinary technician, Anna, is bitten by a 2-year-old mixed-breed dog, Tow Tow, ...
• A horse named Desperado was rushed to your clinic unable to put weight on one ...
• Isolating sick animals helps to prevent the spread of disease. A. TRUE B. ...
• What part of the SOAP acronym represents the animal's temperature and heart rate? A. ...
• Harmful ultraviolet radiation from the Sun is absorbed by A. clouds B. ozone ...
• The gradual increase in the temperature of the atmosphere is known as ________________. A. Greenhouse ...
• I can cut down on pollution by_____ A. Walking to the store B. ...
• What are the main sources of water pollution? A. Plastic, Paper, and Metal ...
• Which way can people best reduce land pollution caused by large amounts of waste dumped ...
• What happens to the temperature if more greenhouse gases are released into the atmosphere? A. ...
• Which is one reason that trash and litter can hurt wildlife? A. Wildlife are afraid ...
• Which of the following is the most troubling greenhouse gas being produced by humans? A. ...
• How can global warming cause sea levels to rise? Choose the best answer. A. by ...
• Sunlight reacts with waste gases from the burning of fossil fuels to form A. ...
• Which one of the choices below is NOT a  cause for global warming? A. Having ...
• TRUE or FALSE:  Although water pollution is bad, it doesn't actually cause anyone to die. ...
• This picture shows people walking through a ...
• Which human action can cause pollution? A. Walking B. Biking C. Mining ...
• Which of the following is NOT an effect of Global Warming? A. Polar ice caps ...
• It was hot all week last week.  Is this a sign of climate change? A. ...
• There is nothing we can do to stop water pollution. A. TRUE B. ...
• What is this difference between global warming and the greenhouse effect? A. Global warming refers ...
• This type of pollution inhibits people from seeing the stars and planets. A. Light ...
• Define Deforestation A. the growing of crops on the rooftop B. the cutting ...
• Why does cutting down trees increase global warming? A. trees soak up carbon dioxide B. ...
• Which of the following is not a natural cause of water pollution? A. Volcanoes ...
• What can happen to fish when there is not enough oxygen in the water? ...
• We can prevent water pollution by: A. Reduce the use of plastic. B. ...
• Global warming can lead to A. deforestation B. climate change C. oil ...
• Where is pollution found on the earth? A. only in the air B. only ...
• The main human activity that releases greenhouse gases is A. using bottled water B. burning ...
• Which of the following best describes what these machines are doing? A. Converting wind into ...
• Why is the increase of Greenhouse gasses a big issue? A. It causes climate change ...
• Which of these problems can be caused by air pollution? A. Respiratory problems B. Reduced ...
• Which object is NOT carried by runoff into streams and rivers? A. ozone ...
• Worldwide, temperatures have been increasing for more than 100 years.  Is this evidence of global ...
• What is the function of the heart? A. To pump blood around the body B. ...
• The type of blood vessel where exchange of gases, nutrients, and wastes occurs? A. ...
• PLATELETS ARE CELL FRAGMENT THAT  A. HELP YOUR BLOOD CLOT B. CARRY OXYGEN IN THE ...
• What is the main function of the artery? A. It controls your brain and your ...
• The type of blood vessel that normally carries de-oxygenated blood back to the heart from ...
• The contraction/emptying phase of the cardiac cycle? A. Systole B. Diastole ...
• arteries, veins, and capillaries are three types of __________ A. heart valves B. blood vessels ...
• What type(s) of blood can a person with O+ RECEIVE? A. O+ and O- B. ...
• Positive blood types can DONATE to what type(s) of blood? A. Negative, only B. Positive, ...
• white blood cells are also known as A. thrombocytes B. erthryocytes C. monocytes D. leukocytes ...
• Name part A.     ...
• What antigens are present in a person with type B- blood? A. B, only B. ...
• What function does the heart do? A. Protects organs and produces red blood cells. B. ...
• Name part N.     ...
• What do scientists call bacteria and viruses that can make people sick?   A. diseases ...
• What part of blood is responsible for fighting infections? A. Red Blood Cells B. White ...
• liquid portion of the blood A. leukocytes B. erthryocytes C. plasma D. thrombin ...
• platelets are also known as A. leukocytes B. erthryocytes C. thrombocytes D. monocytes ...
• Type of circulation that refers to the blood flowing through the entire body? A. ...
• Carry blood away from heart; mostly oxygen-rich A. Arteries B. Veins C. Capillaries ...
• molecule that combines with oxygen to transport it A. albumin B. globulin C. haemoglobin D. ...
• What part of blood is responsible for carrying wastes, nutrients, and minerals? A. Red Blood ...
• What do Red-Blood cells do? A. Carry oxygen from the lungs to the body cells ...
• The relaxing/filling stage of the cardiac cycle? A. Systole B. Diastole ...
• What type of blood is the universal donor? A. AB+ B. AB- C. O+ D. ...
• When comparing the offspring of sexually and asexually reproducing organisms, we would expect the genetic ...
• What is a variation? A. a trait that helps an organism survive in its ...
• All of the offspring of an organism have the same genetic material, which is identical ...
• If two organisms reproduce sexually, then their offspring will exhibit a genetic makeup that is ...
• The offspring from asexually reproduced organisms are? A. Different than their parents B. ...
• The genetic material of an offspring of sexually reproducing organisms is best described as– A. ...
• Is the following asexual or sexual reproduction? A labradoodle is a type of dog that ...
• What is one advantage of asexual reproduction? A. offspring are different from parents ...
• How many parents does asexual reproduction involve? A.     one B.     ...
• To breed a cow that produces a lot of milk a farmer would breed: ...
• A clone can be BEST thought of as a(n)  _____ created in the lab.  A. ...
• The purpose of selective breeding is to A. get bigger animals B. get ...
• Which of the following is an example of selective breeding? A. populations of lizards ...
• What is Inbreeding? A. When two closely related animals are bred together B. ...
• Which of the following best represents inbreeding? A. removing DNA from an organism ...
• The evolution of dogs from wolves is due to: A. Natural Selection B. ...
• A farmer has bred his pineapple plants from the sweetest pineapples from his last harvest ...
• Which is another term for selective breeding? A. Artificial selection B. Natural Selection C. Intelligent ...
• Scientists genetically engineer corn to be immune to corn diseases. This is BENEFICIAL because A. ...
• Problems with selective breeding include A. Better animals B. More Meat C. ...
• Problems with animals that are selectively bred include: A. Being more disease resistant ...
• Which is not a result of selective breeding? A. Large seedless watermelons that consumer ...
•     Use the following table to answer this question. A family visited a dog breeder ...
• Which of the following organ of body is protected by skull? A. Stomach ...
• Which system of human body takes air inside? A. Respiratory B. Circulatory ...
• Which of the following make muscular system? A. Bone B. Arm C. ...
• Which part of our body can be moved? A. Knee B. Elbow ...
• Our skin gives us the sense of _____. A. Taste B. Touch ...
• Which of the following organ in our body is used to smell? A. Teeth ...
• Which of the following is the sense organ? A. Hair B. Tail ...
• How many holes are there in an ear? A. 1 B. 3 ...
• Which of the following body parts is called 'storehouse of knowledge'. A. Hand ...
• Which organ is responsible for walking? A. Finger B. Knee C. Arm ...
• Which of the following is the external part of the body? A. Brain ...
• Which of the following organs is located in chest? A. Lungs B. Kidney ...
• Which of the following controls the body function? A. Heart B. Lungs ...
• Which of the following is not a part of the human body? A. Nail ...
• Which of the following help you keep your balance? A. Ear B. Hair ...
• Select the odd one out A. Mouth B. Lungs C. Kidney ...
• Which of the following organs is not present in our body in pair? A. ...
• Which of the following is not a sense organ? A. Ear B. Hair ...
• How many bones are present in our body? A. 200 B. 206 ...
• If you have taken a shower, which organ of your body part is wet? ...
• Main function is to control all of the body's functions and processes A. Skeletal ...
• What do I do? main function ...
• What do I do? main function ...
• This system supports and protects vital organs, stores minerals, and produces red blood cells. A. ...
• The ____________________ is the body system that transports oxygen, nutrients, and waste through the body.   ...
• This system removes waste from body (CO2, urea, excess water, etc). A. digestive system B. ...
• What do I do? main function ...
• Main function is to provide movement for the human body A. Skeletal System ...
• What do I do? main function ...
• Main function is to take in oxygen and get rid of carbon dioxide. A. ...
• What are some major parts of the digestive system? A. kidneys, liver, bladder, and skin ...
• This system transports oxygen, nutrients, and wastes and collects fluid lost from blood vessels and ...
• What do I do? main funtion ...
• Water is absorbed from the food we eat by the ______________, which is part of ...
• The _____________________ is the body system that helps a person move and maintain posture. A.  nervous ...
• What body system includes the kidneys and bladder? A. circulatory system B. reproductive system C. ...
• Which body system does this show? ...
• The ___________ are the main organs of the respiratory system.  A. veins B. lungs C. ...
• What do I do? main funtion ...
• Which example best shows structures that make up the Digestive System in the human body?  ...
• __________ are bundles of fibers that carry messages from the brain to the spinal cord and ...
• How does a pair of skeletal muscles work together? A. both muscles contract at the ...
• What do I do? main function ...
• Which of the following is NOT part of the Circulatory System? A. Arteries B. Brain ...
• What do I do? main funtion ...
• Main Function is to transport nutrients and oxygen to the cells and to take wastes ...
• The ______________________ is the body system that breaks food down so that it can be used ...
• The ____________ is a muscular organ that pumps blood to the body through blood vessels.  ...
• Main function is to provide a framework, shape, or support for the human body. ...
• Main function is to break down food into nutrients. A. Integumentary System B. ...
• Using the picture, what is the function ...
• One major function of the excretory system is to clean the ............... A. urine ...
• Tiny filtering structures where urine is produced in the kidneys are called A. ureters. B. ...
• Tiny filtering structures where urine is produced ...
• Where is urine stored? A. kidneys B. bladder C. urethra D. ...
• Kidneys create a liquid called: A. Urine B. Blood C. Faeces ...
• Using the picture, what is the function ...
• Using the picture, what is the structure ...
• Which kidney is slightly superior in position? A. right B. left C. ...
• In which excretory organ is urea produced? A. skin B. liver C. kidneys D. lungs ...
• The excretory system rids the body of ...
• The basic functional units of the kidneys are A. neurons B. nephron ...
• What is the main function of the excretory system? A. to collect and remove wastes ...
• Using the picture, what is the function ...
• The excretory system rids the body of ______ waste. A. solid B. liquid ...
• What are the filtering units of the kidneys? A. nephrons B. ureters ...
• Use the diagram, what is structure D?
• The outer layer of the kidney ...
• Which organ of the excretory system stores urine until the body is ready to eliminate ...
• Name the tubes that carry urine from ...
• Use the diagram, what is structure C?
• These organs are responsible for ............................. ...
• The process of removal of the body’s wastes is called A. gas exchange. B. respiration. ...
• The ___________ is responsible for the elimination of wastes produced by homeostasis. A. excretory ...
• Which excretory organ eliminates water and some chemical wastes in perspiration? A. lungs B. skin ...
• Under normal conditions, which of the following ...
• Where is the excretory system located? A. Near your esophagus B. In your ...
• Under normal conditions, which of the following substances is found in urine? A. blood cells ...
• Credited with discovering the first X-Rays. A. William Harvey B. Wilhem Roentgen C. Christian Banard ...
• What was usually 80 metres behind the front-line trench A. Mr Rush B. ...
• What was the name of the splint used for leg wounds? A. Thomas splint ...
• What other modes of transport were men moved away from the frontline by? A. train, ...
• What was the aim of the Regimental Aid Post? A. most of the operations ...
• What did the FANY provide? A. surgery assistance B. support for medical services ...
• What caused trench fever? A. lice B. mines C. gas D. fertilizer
• What was a Base Hospital? A. continued treatment or sent soldiers home B. most of ...
• Who was responsible for medical care in the army? A. RAMC B. RMCA ...
• What happens to blood as soon as it leaves the body? A. it dies ...
• How many mobile x-ray units were in operation in the British sector? A. 3 B. ...
• Who was the pioneer of plastic surgery on the Western Front? A. Harvey Cushing ...
• What happened at the Dressing Stations? A. dealt with more serious injuries close to the ...
• What happened in triage? A. washing of soldiers in big baths B. wounded ...
• Those working at the Dressing Stations belonged to a unit of the RAMC called the......? ...
• What was trench foot? A. swelling and gangrene B. wrinkly toes C. smelly socks D. ...
• What is aseptic surgery? A. way to stop infections spreading B. way to ...
• What does RAMC stand for? A. Royal Army Medical Corps B. Royal Army Medical Corpse ...
• What type of people made up the FANY? A. paid women B. male ...
• What was the system for moving wounded soldiers called? A. chain of evacuation ...
• What happens in the radiology department in a hospital? A. x rays B. radiotherapy C. ...
• In 1915, Richard Leisohn discovered that by adding what to blood, the need for donor ...
• Name 3 types of gas used on the Western Front. A. Neon, Hydrogen and ...
• What was the name of the trench at the back of the system? A. ...
• What was the main use of x rays at the start of the war? A. ...
• The likelihood of death from severe shrapnel or gunshot wounds in 1915 was 20%. Due ...
• What was used for the first time at the Second Battle of Ypres? A. ...
• What was the problem with motorised ambulances? A. there was not enough drivers ...
• In theory, how many men could a dressing station treat? A. 100 B. 150 C. ...
• What happened in the Casualty Clearing Stations? A. most of the operations B. immediate first ...
• By 1918, how many soldiers had lost limbs? A. 150, 000 B. 500, ...
• Following is the example of first order reaction. A. Acid hydrolysis of ethylacetate ...
• Which one of the following orders have abundant applications in biological processes? A. First ...
• In a second order reaction a=b. 20% of the reaction is completed in 500 seconds.calculate ...
• In reactions that follow 1st order kinetics, half life is expressed by equation. A. ...
• In the photochemical degradation of multisulphapreparation the order that a reaction does follow is ...
• The half life of a first order reaction is 4 years. What is shelf life. ...
• The time required for the concentration of the reactant to reduce to half of its ...
• Which of the following dosage forms exhibit faster rate of reaction under normal conditions ...
• The conversion of trans-stilbene to cis-stilbene follows the molecularity A. Bimolecular B. Termolecular ...
• In a chemical reaction the rate constant is independent of the initial concentration.which of them ...
• The integral equation for a reaction K=X/at.x/(a-x) is concerned with the order. A. First ...
• In the degradation studies of aspirin suspension the orders observed initially and at the end ...
• A second order reaction follows pseudo first order reaction when the concentrations of A. ...
• The more reliable method to determine order of a reaction A. Graphic method ...
• In chemical kinetics the rate of reaction is expressed as (-dc/dt) where dc, refers to ...
• Which of the following statement marks as a difference between plant cell and animal cell? ...
• Plasma membrane is A. Permeable B. Selectively Permeable C. Semi Permeable ...
• CELL THEORY IS GIVEN BY A. ROBERT HOOKE & SCHWANN B. ROBERT BROWN & SCHLEIDEN ...
• Storage Sap of cell A. Golgi Bodies B. Ribosome C. Vacoule ...
• IDENTIFY THE TYPE OF CELL A. ...
• Kitchen of cell A. Golgi Bodies B. Chloroplast C. Vacoule D. ...
• IDENTIFY THE PROCESS- A.     PLASMOLYSIS