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Sitemap 17

• Which of these is the primary responsibility of the left hemisphere? A. Imagination B. Coordination ...
• Which side of the body does the left hemisphere control? A. The left side ...
• The left side of your brain is responsible for thinking critically A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• The two halves of the brain are called A. Dominance B. Opposites C. Hemispheres ...
• Which list represents major functions of the right hemisphere? A. Speech, reading & writing ...
• Functions include initiating voluntary movement, working memory, personality, and higher cognitive functions such as decision-making ...
• The second-largest part of the brain that is responsible in coordinating movement, posture, and balance. ...
• Responsible for recognizing sensory information, including touch, temperature, pressure and pain. A. Frontal lobe ...
• It regulates when you feel sleepy or awake and connects the cerebrum and cerebellum to ...
• Which side of the body does the right hemisphere control? A. The left side ...
• Why are most people right-handed? A. Because the left hemisphere is almost always dominant ...
• Which part of the brain is affected when we experience vertigo? A. Cerebellum B. Cerebrum ...
• The right side of your brain is responsible for making you think analytically? A. TRUE ...
• The center of visual perception A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Occipital lobe ...
• Which lobe is affected when we lose our vision? A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe ...
• Which list represents major functions of the left hemisphere? A. Speech, reading & writing ...
• What is the primary responsibility of the right hemisphere? A. Imagination B. Coordination C. Reasoning ...
• Processes hearing, language and helps us identify faces. A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe ...
• Soak nails for long periods. A. Do B. Don't
• Identify the Nail Disease/Disorder A. Onychia ...
• If the client has a nail disease, I can continue to work on  their nails. ...
• Stop working on a client if they have a nail disorder A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Identify the Nail Disease/Disorder A. Blue Nail ...
• Identify the Nail Disease/Disorder A. hang nail ...
• The toenails and the feet can also have diseases or disorders.  A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Bite nails. A. Do B. Don't
• I am qualified as a cosmetologist/nail technician to advise  a client as to what diseases ...
• Identify the Nail Disease/Disorder A. Blue Nail ...
• You may be in a position to recognize conditions that may signal mild to serious ...
• Sterilize nail tools. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Identify the Nail Disease/Disorder A. Ridges ...
• A client with athlete’s foot can be treated in the salon A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Keep nails shaped and trimmed. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Treat ingrown and torn nails as soon as possible. A. Do B. Don't
• I can perform services on nails or skin that are inflamed.  A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Lipid from _____ can be transported by lymphatic system into the blood. A. heart ...
• Interstitial fluid is collected by......... A. Blood capillaries B. Lymphatic capillaries C. Nerve cells ...
• Gas, nutrient, and waste exchange occur between the __________ and the tissues of the body.  ...
• The fluid found in lymphatic system is known .................. A. interstitial fluid B. blood ...
• Which structure contains microvili? A. A ...
• Why erythrocyte, platelets and protein plasma found in blood cannot be found in the interstitial ...
• These carry blood to the heart: A. arteries B. veins C. capillaries D. arterioles
• What transports lymph fluid back to the circulatory system? A. Lymph B. Lymph Vessels ...
• The following structures are all part of which body system? Vena Cava, Aorta, Pulmonary Artery ...
• I am the 'liquid' portion of blood. A. Erythrocytes B. Thrombocytes C. Leukocytes D. Plasma ...
• Before absorption of lipid n the lumen of intestine, lipid is broken down into _____ ...
• Which of the following cells are responsible for fighting diseases?  A. White Blood Cells ...
• The fluid from the blood capillary that is formed in the spaces between the cells ...
• Which body system does your cardiovascular system work with to oxygenate the blood? A. Muscular ...
• Which structure(s) carry/carries blood to/away the villi? ...
• What is pulmonary circulation? A. Blood travelling to and from the lungs B. Blood travelling ...
• These carry blood away from the heart A. arteries B. veins C. venules D. capillaries ...
• The majority of the absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream occurs in the _______. ...
• How many layer(s) of cell is/are there in structure Z?
• What is the function of red blood cells? A. to fight infection B. to aid ...
• Numerous fingerlike projections in the folds of the wall of the ileum is classified as ...
• The aorta is the largest artery in the body. The blood leaving the aorta is ...
• Which is NOT alive? A. Flower B. Insect C. Fire D. Tree
• Which best describes 'tissue'? A. basic unit of life B. group of cells working together ...
• What is the job of the lungs? A. pump blood around the body B. take ...
• Which organ is NOT part of the digestive system? A. stomach B. large intestine ...
• What is label Y? A. clip ...
• Arteries and veins are part of the: A. digestive system B. breathing system C. circulatory ...
• Which organ system carries information around the body? A. digestive system B. respiratory system ...
• Your heart is made of: A. food B. skin C. muscle and fat D. blood ...
• The job of the root hair cell is to: A. help protect a root ...
• Which organ is labelled Z? A. stomach ...
• An organ system is: A. a collection of organs working together to do an important ...
• Robots can act just like humans. A reason why they are non-living is because they ...
• Which specialist cell is NOT found in animals? A. red blood cell B. guard cell ...
• Which part do plant cells have but animal cells do not? A. cell wall ...
• Food is broken down in the stomach and the nutrients are absorbed into the blood ...
• What is label W? A. nucleus ...
• What are chloroplast? A. cough medicine made from plant cells B. chemcial stored in the ...
• All organs contain: A. cell wall B. tissues C. systems D. acid
• Which three things do all animals and plants do? A. grow, reproduce, play B. eat ...
• The heart pumps blood around the body, what is transported in the blood? A. water ...
• On the animal cell, what is the job of label W?
• What is MRS GREN? A. 7 food groups B. 7 organs in the body ...
• Which 7 life processes (MRS GREN) is used when a mouse smells cheese? A. movement ...
• What does M stand for in MRS GREN? A. Muscle B. Movement C. Microscope ...
• Which 7 life processes (MRS GREN) are the kidneys used for? A. sensitivity B. respiration ...
• The stomach and the intestines have smooth muscle. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The ______ are the tough bands of tissue that connect bone A. ligaments B. joints ...
• ______ movements are movements that a person can control. A. voluntary B. involuntary
• The heart is a cardiac muscle . A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The ______is the longest bone in the human body. A. ulna B. fibula C. humerus ...
• Both the knee and finger have _______ A. hinge joints B. muscles
• Muscles can _____, but not _______. A. pull, push B. push, pull
• Muscles _____ bones to move them. A. pull B. push
• Layer of the bone with many small spaces is _______. A. compact bone B. bone ...
• _____ are doctors who look at x-rays and find ways to help people get better. ...
• ____ permits the head to move from side to side. A. pivot joint B. muscle ...
• Muscle movements that you choose to control A. Involuntary B. Voluntary
• The ______ protects the brain and shapes the face. A. skull B. femur C. fibula ...
• The _____ protects the heart. A. skull B. rib C. sternum D. humerus
• The _____ is the connection between two bones. A. joint B. muscles
• The _____ bone is the smooth, hard, white layer of bone. It bears stress from ...
• The joints in the shoulder and hips are ___________. A. ball and socket joints ...
• The nucleus of a single-celled organism becomes damaged. In a complex organism, this would be ...
• Which body systems work together to send oxygen throughout the body? A. respiratory and excretory ...
• What is an example of the muscular system and the nervous system interacting to maintain ...
• Jenny plays on a soccer team and kicked the soccer ball into the goal. What ...
• What structure connects bones together at a joint? A. cartilage B. ligament C. muscle ...
• Gas exchange occurs between the tissue cells and the blood in the A. arteries ...
• How does the skeletal system interact with the nervous system? A. the nervous system provides ...
• What is the main function of the skeletal system in relation to the muscular system? ...
• What is the primary role of the cardiovascular system in maintaining the body? A. It ...
• Red blood cells are produced in the body and travel through arteries and veins. The ...
• The human circulatory system and respiratory system work together to help the body maintain homeostasis. ...
• Which of the following make up the central nervous system? A. brain and spinal cord ...
• The spinal cord, a long tubular structure, that connects to the brain, is protected by ...
• The respiratory system provides oxygen to the blood in the body, while removing carbon dioxide. ...
• Which type of muscles are used when a person walks? A. cardiac muscle B. smooth ...
• When a doctor checks the reflex of your knee, which body systems are being tested? ...
• The brain, bones, and muscles work together to help people move. What other organs work ...
• Which of the following is a function of the musculoskeletal system in the human body? ...
• The job of tendons in the muscular system is to A. connect muscles to bones ...
• What are the main functions of the human skeleton? A. exchange of gases B. support ...
• In the human body, which of the following organs connects the sensory organs through nerves, ...
• Which statement correctly describes two organ systems working together when the body increases its movement? ...
• Which statement provides the best evidence that the muscular system interacts with the respiratory system ...
• Nuclear medicine uses A. radioactive pharmaceuticals B. random medicine C. aspirin D. ESP
• Which is not a type of radiation? A. Gamma B. Beta C. Alpha D. Omega ...
• What is this X-ray showing? A. A broken ...
• What is Medical Imaging A. Diagnosis using computer technology B. Visual representation of the interior ...
• What device acts as the source and the detector of ultrasound waves A. A Transducer ...
• SI unit for absorbed dose is A. Gray B. Sievert C. Curie D. Roentgen
• What type of medical imaging is this? A. ...
• Uses a very strong magnetic field A. MRI B. X-Ray C. CT D. PET ...
• Tissue weighting factor for alpha particles is A. 1 B. 2 C. 2.5 D. 20 ...
• Which of the following is NOT a type of medical imaging? A. BMI B. MRI ...
• How does radiation affect living cells? A. Radiation can damage DNA inside living cells. ...
• The absorbed dose weighted for harmful effects of different radiation was manifested by A. Effective ...
• Great detail on soft tissues like the brain, tendons and ligaments. A. MRI B. X-Ray ...
• Nausea and vomiting are the symptoms in acute radiation syndrome A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Is ultrasound safe to use? A. YES B. NO C. MAYBE
• Which sweat gland creates a sweat that is mostly water? A. Apocrine B. Sudoriferous ...
• Highly infectious fungal infection of the scalp or skin, whose name doesn't match its source ...
• What gland is responsible for keeping our hair soft and is a barrier for bacteria ...
• Structure labeled #6 A. cuticle B. ...
• A Second Degree Burn damages which two layers of the skin? A. Hypodermis, and Epidermis ...
• Another autoimmune disease where the hair follicles are attacked by the body. A. Lucidium ...
• The substance produced by the skin that helps to prevent skin cancer by blocking UV ...
• Red and itchy skin that burns or itches, can lead to blisters or legion. ...
• What layer of epidermis does cell division occur? A. stratum lucidum B. stratum basale ...
• Human papilloma virus causes A. warts B. cold sores C. eczema D. rosacea
• Burns without blisters are most likely what degree of burn? A. 1st B. 2nd ...
• This is the most common type of skin cancer and the malignancy begins in cells ...
• Structure labeled #1 A. cuticle B. ...
• A person should see a dermatologist if a mole or spot on their skin ...
• The oldest cells of the epidermis will be found here A. Stratum Corneum B. Stratum ...
• The best way to treat athletes foot is A. take an antibiotic B. keep feet ...
• Oil glands that are found all over the skin, except on the palms and soles, ...
• A. First Degree Burn B. Second Degree ...
• What is the condition called when your skin is a yellowish tint? A. Jaundice ...
• Fungal infection that can often be found living on floors of gyms or locker rooms, ...
• Which degree of burn can cause infections and dehydration? A. First Degree Burn B. Second ...
• The immune system is made up of a network of cells, tissue, and organs that ...
• Which of the following is trait that a virus shares with a living organism? ...
• Viruses... A. use a host to reproduce B. breath oxygen C. grow D. eat food ...
• Which disease can be caused by UV rays from the sun and tanning beds? ...
• This mineral makes hemoglobin and myglobin which you must have for blood production.  If you ...
• Which body system works with the circulatory system to make sure that oxygen is delivered ...
• For a burn, it´s a good idea to________ A. See the dentist B. Take some ...
• Which system works with the circulatory system to make sure all of your cells get ...
• STI's are what kind of disease? A. Non-Communicable B. Communicable C. Both D. Neither
• What type of pathogen is most likely found in warm, moist environments? A. virus ...
• People can suffer from __________________ if they do not eat sufficient food. A. essential nutrition ...
• Athlete's foot is which type? A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Fungi D. Protist
• Which of the following is not caused by a virus? A. Common Cold B. Norovirus ...
• Disease-causing microorganism, such as a bacterium or fungus. A. antigen B. prion C. pathogen ...
• A microbe that lives in or on another organism of another species (its host) and ...
• Which disease is caused by a virus and causes muscle aches and a high fever? ...
• Is a single celled microbe that causes diseases such as strep throat, meningitis, TB, cholera ...
• You can get ringworm of the skin by sharing contaminated towels, clothing, and sports equipment, and by ...
• Which disease is caused by your pancreas not producing enough insulin? A. Parkinson's disease ...
• Should you leave potato salad outside during a picnic for 3 hours without ice during ...
• What is the Danger Zone? A. 40 degrees - 140 degrees B. It depends on ...
• Foodborne diseases can cause death. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Who's at risk for foodborne illnesses?  A. Teenagers, older adults, middle aged adults  B. Very ...
• What could happen if you eat a food that is unsafe? A. Nothing would happen ...
• What causes foodborne illness? A. Rotten food B. Bacteria C. Food that is dropped on ...
• Which would not cause a germ to get into food? A. Double dipping with a ...
• Keeping raw and cooked food separate prevents cross-contamination A. TRUE B. FALSE
• When should you wash your hands when preparing food? A. After handling raw meats ...
• What is foodborne illness? A. An illness that makes you too sick to eat. ...
• What food is more likely to cause foodborne illness? A. Milk B. Chicken C. Bread ...
• Which is a true statement? A. All microorganisms are unsafe in food. B. Keeping food ...
• Which of the following ways is NOT a safe way to defrost raw meat? ...
• What are the most common symptoms of foodborne illness? A. Swollen glands and rash. ...
• It's safe to buy cans that have large dents in them. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Following practices to prevent foodborne illness and keep food safe to eat is called? ...
• What happens when a person gets a foodborne illness? A. They start choking. B. They ...
• This injury is also known as...a bruise A. Myositis Ossificans B. Puncture C. contusion ...
• What should you do to protect a contusion before an athlete returns to play? ...
• What is a subluxation? A. Partial fracture B. Partial hematoma C. Partial abrasion D. Partial ...
• Which ligament stabilizes the knee against a varus force? A. ACL B. MCL C. PCL ...
• Identify the fracture: Break of splinter of the bone into more than two fragments ...
• This injury is also know as... runners knee A. Chondromalacia patella B. Osgood-schlatter C. Osteitis ...
• This injury is also known as...a scrape A. Abrasion B. Puncture C. Laceration D. Avulsion ...
• The stretching or tearing of ___________ is a strain. A. meniscus B. muscle C. ligament ...
• Injury where muscles on the front of the tibia swell due to overuse and cause ...
• What injury would have a sharp pain on the back of the thigh muscle? ...
• This injury to the bone occurs at the base of the 5th metatarsal. A. Lisfranc ...
• Which ligament prevents the tibia from moving backward on the femur? A. MCL B. LCL ...
• A blow to the lateral side of the knee could cause a tear in which ...
• What structures provides cushion between the femur and tibia? A. ligaments B. tendons C. mensicus ...
• What injury would have a sharp pain on the front of the thigh muscle? ...
• What commonly broken bone of the shoulder girdle typically results from a fall on the ...
• What injury to the olecranon results from a direct blow and presents with significant inflammation ...
• This injury is also known as...baseball finger A. jersey finger B. gamekeepers thumb C. buttonhole ...
• This injury is also known as...a cut A. Abrasion B. Puncture C. Laceration D. Avulsion ...
• This injury is also know as...tennis elbow A. Epicondyliits B. Volkmann's Contracture C. Tendonitis ...
• Identify the fracture: A slanted fracture that occurs when force is applied at an angle ...
• A direct blow to the front of the thigh would cause what injury? A. Iliac ...
• Identify the injury pictured A. jersey finger ...
• A dashboard injury typically refers to an injury to which ligament? A. ACL B. PCL ...
• Resisted flexion of shoulder and supination of the forearm often yields a snapping and/or popping ...
• Identify the fracture: A fracture in which the break is at a right angle to ...
• Which ligament prevents a valgus (lateral) force on the knee? A. ACL B. PCL ...
• Identify the injury pictured A. jersey finger ...
• What is another name for shinsplints? A. medial tibial stress syndrome B. medial fibular stress ...
• Most common MOI for non-contact ACL sprain is what? A. Plant and twist B. Squat ...
• In what direction should that angle be directed? A. Cephalic B. Caudal
• What is the obliquity for an oblique knee? A. 15 degrees B. 30 degrees ...
• Where should you center for a lateral knee radiograph? A. Patella B. 2 inches distal ...
• For the high image femur, how much should you rotate the leg? A. 5-10 degrees ...
• How much should the knee be flexed on a lateral knee radiograph? A. 10-15 ...
• Which AEC cell should be utilized for a femur radiograph? A. Right side for right ...
• How much of an angle should be utilized on a knee radiograph if a patient ...
• Where should the bottom of the IR be located on a low image AP femur? ...
• How much should the knee be flexed for a lateral femur radiograph? A. 10-15 ...
• Where is the CR placed for the AP, INTERNAL and EXTERNAL knee radiographs? A. At ...
• What size IR should be used with a femur radiograph? A. 8x10 B. 10x12 ...
• What is the kVp range for a femur radiograph? A. 65-70 B. 75-85 C. 80-90 ...
• Is a grid used for a tib/fib radiograph? A. Yes B. No
• What can be done to improve resolution on a tib/fib radiograph? A. Use a grid ...
• When we begin exercise, which branch of the nervous system is activated? A. Sympathetic ...
• Can Vo2MAX be increased using a training/exercise programme ? A. Yes B. No
• A normal, healthy heart will demonstrate variability in it's rhythm A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What is the correct term for 'the amount of blood ejected from the heart in ...
• What is the correct calculation to work out a human athletes maximum heart rate? ...
• What is the correct formula to calculate 'cardiac output' ? A. heart rate x stroke ...
• What is the correct term for the definition: 'maximum pressure in arteries during LV Contraction' ...
• what is the correct term for this definition: 'heart rate increases slowly over time (during ...
• What does HRR stand for? A. Heart rate resting B. Heart rate recovery C. Heart ...
• What is Hypervolaemia? A. increased plasma volume B. increased red blood cells C. Increased capillaries ...
• What is the 'typical' cardiac output for a human athlete at rest? A. 40 L/min ...
• Endurance training results in little or no increase in oxygen uptake. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• What is the most accurate way to measure the blood pressure of a horse? ...
• What is 'angiogenesis'? A. Enlargement of existing arterial vessels and is effective for increasing bulk ...
• What does a Psphygmomanometer measure? A. Heart Rate B. Respiration Rate C. Blood Glucose ...
• What HR zone would be 60-70% of a persons maximum heart rate? A. Zone 1 ...
• What is the 'typical' stroke volume for an equine athlete at rest? A. 50ml ...
• Resting HR may decrease as an athlete becomes fitter. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What does 'AV Block' look like on an ECG? A. QT Prolongation B. T wave ...
• Strength training causes a substantial increase in oxygen output. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What is Q̇ used to denote ? A. Tidal Volume B. Stroke Volume C. Pulmonary ...
• Identify structure number 4. A. sebaceous glands ...
• Skin protects the body by keeping harmful substances outside the body and keeping important substances ...
• Identify structure 13 A. arrector pilli muscle ...
• Tiny openings at the skin’s surface are called A. epidermis B. pores C. dermis ...
• Identify structure number 1 A. sweat gland ...
• Warts and Moles are examples of ... A. Malignant Tumors B. Contusions C. Benign Tumors ...
• The protective dead layer of cells of the outer epidermis is called the: A. stratum ...
• What can you conclude from the fact that your skin prevents harmful germs from entering ...
• Which one is a function of the skin? A. Eliminates water. B. Produces vitamin D. ...
• Where are the sweat glands located? A. dermis B. epidermis  C. hypodermis
• Structure in the dermis of the skin from which a strand of hair grows. ...
• Which of the following layers of the skin does not contain any blood vessels? ...
• Identify the structure labelled 10 A. Hair ...
• Where can you find dead skin cells? A. Your innermost layer of skin B. Your ...
• In what order are the outermost to innermost skin layers? A. dermis, hypodermis, epidermis ...
• Benign Tumors are not serious. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What do sebaceous glands, hair follicles, and sweat glands have in common? A. They all ...
• The term goose bumps is directly related to the contraction of which structures? A. hair ...
• Place the following layers of skin in order, from outermost to innermost: A) Dermis; B) ...
• Identify the structure labelled 14 A. Hair ...
• It is the body's __________________ glands that secretes an oily liquid that naturally moisturizes the ...
• The following statements are correct about Glycemic Index (GI), EXCEPT A. Ukuran secepat mana paras ...
• Metabolic Sauver is No. ___ the lowest GI (Glycemic Index) diabetic specific formula.
• Metabolic Sauver is manufactured in which country? A. Japan B. Singapore C. Taiwan D. Australia ...
• 1 serving of Metabolic Sauver has how many scoops? A. 4 scoopr B. 5 scoops ...
• What are NOT the benefits of Metabolic Sauver? A. Low in fiber which gives full ...
• Metabolic Sauver has added with _____ chain triglycerides to provide instant energy booster. A. Short ...
• What are the plant extracts can be found in Metabolic Sauver? EXCEPT A. Cinnulin ...
• The GI (Glycemic Index) value of Metabolic Sauver is A. 24.68 B. 26.84 C. 28.64 ...
• Which of the following are NOT correct about Metabolic Sauver? A. Complete and balance nutrition ...
• Metabolic Sauver is suitable for: EXCEPT A. Diabetic patient B. Pregnant lady C. Metabolic syndrome ...
• Which joints in the human skeleton work in a similar way? A. hips and backbone ...
• The Axial part of the skeleton contains ______ bones. A. 80 B. 126 C. 206 ...
• This part of the bone produces red blood cells. A. Compact Bone B. Spongy Bone ...
• A common term for chronic inflammation of a joint is... A. Osteoporosis B. fracture ...
• What is the name of the kneecap bone? A. Fibula B. Tibia C. Patella ...
• Which term best describes the joints at the top of your skull? A. Motionless ...
• What is the main purpose of the cranium? A. Protects your heart B. Protects your ...
• Which fracture is common when a person tried to break their fall with outstretched arms? ...
• The site of bone growth on a long bone is called A. Epiphyseal plate ...
• An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine.  A. Scoliosis B. greenstick fracture  C. osteoporosis ...
• Which part of the bone is less dense and porous? A. Compact Bone B. Spongy ...
• The thoracic cage does NOT protect these organs. A. Heart B. Lungs C. Small Intestine ...
• A part of a bone that protrudes or sticks out is called  A. foramen ...
• The bones that make up the spine are called A. femurs B. vertebrae C. cartilage ...
• What is the largest bone in your arm? A. Radius B. Ulna C. Femur ...
• What ball and socket joint do you use when you throw a ball? A. shoulders ...
• This is a disease found mostly in the elderly. A. Scoliosis B. Osteoporosis C. Osteomalacia ...
• Which of the following are not features of compact bone?  A. osteocytes B. Haversian canals ...
• The main difference in the female skeleton and the male skeleton is found in the ...
• Hair is approximately ________ percent protein. A. 70 B. 20 C. 50 D. 90
• A _______ is weak, physical bond easily broken by water or heat. A. hydrogen ...
• The technical term for hair loss is called A. hypertrichosis B. sudoriferous C. alopecia ...
• Course hair has the smallest diameter of the 3 types of texture. A. TRUE ...
• The oil glands in the skin that are connected to the hair follicles are the ...
• A tuft of hair that stands straight up is a A. cystine B. stream ...
• Hair texture is classified as ____ A. wavy, straight or curly B. fine, medium or ...
• Hair follicles are not found on the palms of hands and soles of feet. ...
• The major elements that make up human hair are carbon, oxygen, hydrogen and _______ ...
• The strong chemical bonds that join amino acids are called A. convex bonds B. peptide ...
• The ability of the hair to absorb moisture is called ________. A. hair texture ...
• The middle layer of hair that is fibrous and has hydrogen, salt and disulfide bonds. ...
• The _______ is the innermost layer of the hair and is not in all hair. ...
• The strong bond needed to break in order to chemically change the hairs texture and ...
• The _______ is a small involuntary muscle in the base of the hair follicle. ...
• The ______ is the lowest part of the hair strand. A. hair root B. hair ...
• The measurement of the number of individual hair strands on one square inch of the ...
• The outermost layer of the hair shaft is the ____ A. cuticle B. cortex ...
• The study of hair, its care and its diseases is called: A. biology B. dermatology ...
• Shaving, clipping, and cutting the hair on the head A. makes it grow back faster ...
• Which type of melanin provides natural colors ranging from red and ginger to yellow tones? ...
• Where does the digestion begin? A. Mouth B. Oesophagus C. Stomach D. Throat
• What is the function of the gallbladder? A. produce bile B. store bile C. absorb ...
• Which other two systems work with the digestive system? A. Nervous and skeletal B. Respiratory ...
• wave-like contractions are called... A. esophagus B. pancreas C. peristalsis D. epiglottis
• Which of the following is NOT involved in the process of digestion? A. Kidney ...
• What are the two major functions of the digestive system? A. ingestion and circulation ...
• What part of the digestive system absorbs and digests food the most? A. Stomach ...
• The function of the liver is to... A. absorb vitamins B. produce bile C. store ...
• What is the muscular tube that passes food to the stomach? A. Trachea B. Oesophagus ...
• What is the correct order of the following processes? A. ingestion, digestion, elimination, absorption ...
• What enzyme does the mouth produce to break down food? A. Bail B. Saliva ...
• Name the bone in number 3 A. humerus ...
• A skull has immovable joints. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The human skeleton can be divided into two parts, what are these? A. movable and ...
• Which of the following is an example of an involuntary muscle? A. Muscles in your ...
• The function of the Skeletal system. EXCEPT A. Breaks down food B. Gives shape and ...
• What type of muscles forms the heart? A. Cardiac B. Smooth C. Skeletal
• Which one is voluntary muscle? A. Cardiac B. Smooth C. Skeletal
• Name the bone in number 9 A. ribs ...
• What type of voluntary muscles attaches to bones and provide the force needed to move ...
• Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are considered _____ muscles because we can’t control them. ...
• What type of bone is the femur? A. Long bone B. Flat bone C. Short ...
• What are the 2 types of joints? A. Moveable and Immovable B. Hinge and Gliding ...
• A term that describes an allele that is not expressed when combined with a dominant ...
• Purebred A. an organism's physical appearance or visible traits B. an organism's genetic makeup or ...
• An alternate form of a gene for a specific trait or gene product A. genotype ...
• What's Homozygous? A. having identical pairs of genes for any given pair of hereditary characteristics. ...
• The basic unit of heredity that consists of a segment of DNA on a chromosome ...
• An organism that inherits two of the same alleles from its parents A. dominant ...
• Mutation A. an organism that has 2 different alleles for a trait B. a pair ...
• A chart used to show all the ways genes from two parents can combine and ...
• A trait that covers over another form of that trait. A. Dominant Trait B. Recessive ...
• Hybrid A. the offspring of many generations that have the same traits B. a change ...
• What is Heterozygous?  A. A cure for a disease  B. A genetic malfunction  C. 1+1=None ...
• A term that describes the allele that determines the phenotype of an individual when two ...
• An organism that inherits two different alleles from its parents A. dominant B. recessive ...
• The observable characteristics or traits of an organism A. genotype B. phenotype C. dominant ...
• A trait that is covered over by another form of that trait. A. Recessive Trait ...
• Leukocytes are smaller than Erythrocytes, but they are higher in number. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Blood accounts for approximately ____% of one's total body weight. A. 20 B. 15 ...
• Plasma protein that is converted to fibrin A. leukocytes B. lymphocytes C. hemoglobin D. fibrinogen ...
• Smaller arteries give rise to A. arterioles B. capillaries C. venules
• Another names for platelet A. thrombocyte B. aggranulocyte C. megakaryocyte D. erythrocyte
• A capillary has _________ A. very thin wall so that gases can flow in and ...
• Cells and cell fragments, also called formed elements, are suspended in plasma. A. TRUE ...
• Binds to oxygen A. leukocytes B. platelets C. hemoglobin D. fibrinogen
• The word element that refers to cell. A. cyt/o B. mon/o C. leuk/o D. thromb/o ...
• Which tunica Rests on a basement membrane A. intima B. externa C. media
• The diagnostic test that measures the % of red blood cells to total blood volume ...
• Which tunica is composed largely of fibrous connective tissue A. intima B. externa C. media ...
• The blood cell with the a large surface are do to it's shape is ...
• Erythr/o refers to ______________. A. white B. blue C. yellow D. red
• __________ is the clear, thin, and sticky fluid portion of blood that remains after coagulation. ...
• Which statement about veins is correct? A. They all carry deoxygenated blood B. .They carry ...
• The word element -penia means: A. condition B. decrease in; deficiency C. to eat ...
• WBC's that produce antibodies A. leukocytes B. lymphocytes C. hemoglobin D. fibrinogen
• Word element that means blood condition A. -paresis B. -lytic C. leuk/o D. -emia
• Hem/o and Hemat/o both refer to what? A. thrombocyte B. lymph C. spinal fluid ...
• _______________ are disease-producing organisms. A. leukocytes B. antigens C. antibodies D. pathogens
• Which tunica layer is mostly smooth muscle and elastic fibers A. intima B. externa ...
• What system does the body use to acheive the transporation of oxygen and nutrients to ...
• Which of the following statements is true about Erythropoietin (EPO) A. increases RBC count ...
• where new blood cells are created A. plasma B. marrow C. sickle D. platelets
• Which of the following is an infection associated to contact lens wearer? A. Neiserria gonorrhoea ...
• Which of the following is FALSE about Opthalmia Neonatorum (conjunctivitis of the newborn)? A. It ...
• A patient came to a clinic with skin infection on the face. There were fiery ...
• A patient in his late 50s who suffered from necrotising fasciitis has been reported based ...
• Which of the following is FALSE about leprosy? A. the causative agent is Mycobacterium leprosy ...
• In ________, the toxin produces blisters, honey coloured crusted locally at the site of infection, ...
• Which of the following pathogen is associated with bioterrorism agent? A. Acanthamoeba B. Bacillus anthracis ...
• Thanks to the success of vaccination, in 1980, the World Health Assembly declared __________ eradicated, ...
• The rash of scarlet fever is caused by specific strains of group A streptococcus which ...
• Strawberry tongue is a common symptom of ______ ...
• A 4-year old with a blistering skin syndrome was referred to Burns Unit in Hospital ...
• How does the body respond to an increase in blood pressure? A. releases acetylcholine and ...
• Baroreceptors detect....? A. changes in pH B. changes in temp. C. changes in pressure ...
• Does high blood pressure cause the heart rate to speed up or slow down? ...
• what is the function of the bundle of HIS A. coducts the waves of electrical ...
• What factors can decrease heart rate? A. high pH B. low pH C. high temperature ...
• Which part of the brain controls the autonomic activity of the heart? A. Cerebral cortex ...
• What is the AVN responsible for? A. Opens up the valves to allow blood through ...
• Chemoreceptors detect...? A. Changes in pH B. changes in temp. C. changes in pressure ...
• Where are chemoreceptors located? A. renal artery B. carotid arteries C. lungs D. sinus ...
• Which neurone increase the speed of your heart rate? A. Parasympathetic B. Sympathetic C. Anaxonic ...
• the acceleration of heartbeat is done by: A. Somatic nervous system B. autonomic nervous system ...
• How does the body respond to an increase in CO2 conc? A. No change in ...
• what are the receptors involved in changing heart rate? A. baroreceptors and chemoreceptors B. photoreceptors ...
• As seen in many patients with lupus, the hallmark butterfly rash appears A. On the ...
• Lupus is a form of: A. Infection B. Cancer C. Influenza D. Auto-immune disorder ...
• A disease in which the body produces antibodies that attack its own tissues, leading to ...
• what part of the body reacts to Graves’ disease? A. Arms B. Legs C. Eyes ...
• What is the immune system that attacks joint? A. Type 1 diabetes B. ...
• HIV stands for... A. Human Immunodeficiency Virus B. Human Immune Virus C. Have Infected Viral ...
• Multiple Sclerosis is three times more likely to occur in men than women. True or ...
• What causes your body to have an allergic response? A. antibody B. allergens C. wbc ...
• Which of the following about lupus is false? A. Up to 60% of lupus patients ...
• What does SLE stand for? A. Systolic lupus erythropenia B. Systemic lupus erythematosus C. Stop ...
• All of above are signs and symptoms of type1 diabetes except, A. Fatigue B. Extreme ...
• Which of the following best describes AIDS? A. A virus that slowly destroys the immune ...
• HIV becomes AIDS when ______ cells have been destroyed. A. BD4 B. T Helper ...
• Symptoms of HIV immediately show up. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Which of the following are signs and symptoms associated with myasthenia gravis? 1. Double ...
• Type I hypersensitivities is A. Immediate B. Antibody dependant C. Immune complex D. Cell mediated ...
• Who is most effected by Graves Disease? A. Men B. Women
• A person suffering from AIDS would be unlikely to suffer from which of the following ...
• Muscles aren’t coordinated well A. DMD B. PKU C. cystic fybrosis
• some cells are sick dizziness and low oxygen A. DMD B. sickle cell anemia ...
• Blood don’t clot A. Hemophilia B. Color blindness C. PKU
• delusion anxiety and weight loss are all symptoms of A. Cystic fybrosis B. Sickle cell ...
• a symptom of DMD is A. Blood don’t clot B. Frequent falls C. Trouble seeing ...
• which disease is NOT autosomal recessive A. PKU B. sickle cell anemia C. cystic fybrosis ...
• sickle cell anemia is A. AD B. AR
• lung disease mutation in copies of CFTR gene A. Sickle cell anemia B. PKU ...
• Hemophilia is A. Autosomal B. Sex linked
• PKU is A. Autosomal recessive B. Autosomal dominant
• Duchenne muscular dystrophy is A. Autosomal B. Sex linked
• Huntington’s disease is A. AD B. AR
• Color blindness is A. Autosomal B. Sex linked
• cystic fybrosis is A. A D B. A R
• Inability to see certain colors A. PKU B. DMD C. Color blindness
• The Light I Band consists of...  A. Myosin filaments only B. Actin filaments only ...
• What is the name of the neurotransmitter that is released from the neuron to the ...
• The thick filament is composed of:  A. Myosin B. Actin
• A person who has a disease that inhibits the production of cholinesterase would have what ...
• What is the job of the skeletal muscle's?  A. To Help You Breathe B. To ...
• Involuntary A. skeletal B. cardiac C. smooth D. smooth and cardiac
• The part of a skeletal muscle from z-line to z-line is called A. nucleus ...
• The gap between the nerve endings and the muscle cells is the
• What chemical helps regenerate ATP? A. Magnesium Phosphate B. Creatine Phosphate C. Creatine Sulfate ...
• Which cell organelle provides energy for muscle contraction? A. lysosome B. nucleus C. endoplasmic reticulum ...
• The outermost layer of connective tissue of a muscle is the: A. fascicle. B. epimysium. ...
• Muscle fatigue is due in part to the accumulation of: A. lactic acid B. ATP ...
• Muscles are attached to bones by _____. A. Ligaments B. Tendons C. Cartilage D. Axons ...
• attached to bones A. cardiac B. smooth C. skeletal
• What type of muscle tissue is found in the heart? A. skeletal B. smooth ...
• The thin filament is composed of:  A. Myosin B. Actin
• Which of the following is an example of active immunity? A. You get a vaccination ...
• The innate immunity is A. specific B. non - specific
• A Phagocyte is a type of white blood cell (WBC). A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Which of the following systems protects the body from disease? A. Digestive System B. Nervous ...
• These cells make antibodies A. T cells B. Phagocytes C. Pathogens D. B cells
• Adaptive immunity is A. Specific B. Non-specific
• Innate immunity includes A. The first line of defence and the second line of defence ...
• Adaptive immunity includes A. B memory cells, Antibodies, T cells B. Antibodies only C. Skin, ...
• If you are feeling ill and the doctor prescribes you some antibiotics to help you ...
• What do B cells produce? A. antigens B. macrophages C. T cells D. antibodies
• The master gland is known as the __________________. A. thyroid gland. B. adrenal gland. ...
• The response to stress is called A. Stay or Stray Response B. Fight or Stay ...
• Function of pituitary gland: A. produces the highest number of different hormones B. senses the ...
• Thyroid gland - A. increase bone calcium levels B. produces a hormone (melatonin) that ...
• Which type of anterior pituitary cell secretes human growth hormone?
• The responses of the body to long term stress does NOT include which one of ...
• Glands located on the kidneys that regulate the use of carbohydrates and salt, and ...
• Which of the following hormones opposes the action of parathyroid hormone?
• Pineal gland – A. produces a hormone (melatonin) that helps you go to sleep ...
• What is the function of hypothalamus? A. the master gland B. controls all other endocrine ...
• Function of adrenal glands: A. produces hormones that control BSL (blood sugar level) B. control ...
• What is the biggest function of the respiratory system? A. to pump blood B. to ...
• What system is the body's way of fighting off pathogens that would make it sick? ...
• What is the most important function of the digestive system? A. Gas exchange B. Break ...
• Which two systems are responsible for voluntary movement? A. circulatory and excretory B. digestive and ...
• Muscle contraction that keep food moving alone in one direction through the digestive system. ...
• The protective covering of the body. A. respiratory system B. cardiovascular system C. integumentary system ...
• What is the most important function of the excretory system? A. Break down food ...
• Responds to sensory information by transmitting signals to and from different parts of the body. ...
• What body system is associated with HORMONES? A. Excretory B. Endocrine C. Integumentary D. Nervous ...
• Which is NOT a function of connective tissue? A. secretes hormones B. supports the body ...
• Bone( osseous) is a connective tissue type. It’s function is to protect and support the ...
• Elastic cartilage is a type of connective tissue that provides elasticity. Where is it located? ...
• Connective tissue is found where? A. everywhere - most abundant and widely distributed tissue ...
• What are the 3 types of extra cellular matrix? A. Bone, collagen, calcium B. Collagen ...
• Blood is a loose connective tissue. Blood is a vascular tissue. Which is NOT true ...
• Reticular connective tissues form stroma. What is stroma? A. Packing tissue B. Fuel storage ...
• Two main elements of extra cellular matrix are: A. ground substance and fibers B. Bone ...
• Areolar is a loose connective tissue that is widely distributed. It is soft and pliable ...
• What is an extra cellular matrix? A. Non-living material that surrounds living cells. B. Poor ...
• Fibrocartilage is a type of connective tissue that is highly compressible. Where is it located? ...
• Hyaline cartilage is a type of connective tissue. It is the MOST common type of ...
• What do tendons do? A. Attach skeletal muscle to bone B. Attach bone to bone ...
• Dense connective tissue( dense fibrous tissue)has a main matrix element of collagen fiber and fibroblast(cells ...
• characteristics of Connective tissue include: A. Produce blood cells and secrete hormones B. variations in ...
• Where is reticular connective tissue located? A. Spleen, lymph nodes and bone marrow B. Skeletal ...
• Adipose tissue is a loose connective tissue. It’s cells contain large lipid deposits. The matrix ...
• Reticular is a loose connective tissue with a delicate network of… A. tendons B. Ligaments ...
• It is connective tissues which are made up of bundles of hundreds to thousands of ...
• Which of these is NOT a job of the Muscular system? A. contracts and relaxes ...
• What is the main function of the skeletal system? A. clean the body B. deliver ...
• It is made up of bones, cartilages, and other special structures such as ligaments, joints ...
• A soft, strong and flexible tissue that serves as cushion between bones and provides shape ...
• How many muscles are in the human body? A. 206 B. 306 C. 606 ...
• It is longest bone in the body A. Femur B. Ligaments C. Muscles D. Tendons ...
• muscles of the heart A. Bone Marrow B. Cardiac C. Brain D. Heart
• It is soft tissue inside the bone that produce red blood cells A. Bone Marrow ...
• It is a tough structure made up of connective tissues surrounded by minerals A. Bone ...
• Is made up of tissues that work the skeletal system to make the body move. ...
• It is tough, connective tissues which connect the skeletal muscles to the bones. A. Femur ...
• Examples of involuntary muscles are... A. heart beating B. digestive system C. eyes blinking ...
• It is stretchable connective tissues that hold joints together A. Femur B. Ligaments C. Muscles ...
• Also known as the LOCOMOTOR SYSTEM or ACTIVITY SYSTEM A. Digestive System B. Muscular System ...
• A nurse is collecting data from a client following the application of a leg cast ...
• A nurse is talking with a client who has a new diagnosis of acute bursitis ...
• Autoimmune Musculoskeletal Disorder resulting in systemic (bodywide) joint inflammation and pain is known as ...
• A nurse is assisting with the care of a client who has a femur fracture ...
• A nurse is collecting data on a client who has a femur fracture. Which of ...
• What is Osteoarthritis A. A type of pain B. A degenerative bone disease C. A ...
• Sally recently suffered trauma to her tibia. Her dr said she has developed inflammation of ...
• A nurse is reinforcing teaching about placement of a prosthesis with a client who is ...
• A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client who is to have a myelogram. Which ...
• The term rhabdomyolysis is defined as _____ of striated muscle. A. weakness B. split ...
• Which of these substances are found in bones? A. Hydrogen B. Calcium C. Sodium ...
• A nurse is caring for a client who has a new below-the-knee amputation. Which of ...
• Osteoarthritis can cause pain due to inflammation of the joints. What type of pain medication ...
• 7 yo broke tibia, placed in hard splint. Hours later, extreme pain, not relieved by ...
• Bones need a balanced diet that includes: A. calcium and vitamin D B. calcium and ...
• A musculoskeletal disorder that involves nerve pain at the wrist, sometimes cause by repetitive movement ...
• A nurse is assisting with the plan of care for an older adult client who ...
• abnormal inward curvature of the lumbar region of the back A. ruptured disc B. lordosis ...
• Which of the below treatment can be the last option for osteoarthritis patient? A. Wear ...
• A nurse is contributing to the plan of care for an older adult client who ...
• While the kidneys process about 180 L of blood-derived fluids daily, the amount that actually ...
• The ________ artery lies on the boundary between the cortex and medulla of the kidney.        ...
• Which of the following are functions of the urinary system? 1. Vitamin D synthesis 2) ...
• Blood vessels of the renal columns are called ________. A. lobar           B.  segmental           ...
• Which gland sits atop each kidney? A. adrenal          B.  thymus           C. pituitary         D.  pancreas
• The first structure in the kidney to collect newly formed urine is the: A. Renal ...
• What tube is between the kidney and bladder? A.   ureters                      B. urethra                ...
• The first major branch of the renal artery is ________. A. arcuate          B.  interlobular        ...
• Elimination A. Exclution B. Explosion C. Excretion D. Expression
• As the renal artery approaches the kidney, it branches to supply the renal tissue. Place ...
• Urine passes through the ________. A. renal hilum to the bladder to the ureter ...
• Which of the choices below is NOT a function of the urinary system? A. helps ...
• What is the action of urination? A. mastication        B.   olfaction  C. micturition ...
• Arrange the following structures in correct sequence: (1) ureter (2) renal pelvis (3) calyx (4) ...
• Which is not a function of the urinary system? A. Regulation of blood volume ...
• The primary excretory organ/s: A. urethra B. urinary bladder C. ureters D. kidneys
• The filtration membrane includes all except ________. A. glomerular endothelium B. renal fascia C. podocytes ...
• ____% of water ingested is circulated in the body and ____ % is excreted. ...
• Which of the following is not reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule? A.  Na+               ...
• Part of the brain stem, serves as a pathway for nerve impulses. It also helps ...
• This part helps you solve problems and make decisions. A. cerebrum B. thalamus C. hypothalamus ...
• What are the grooves in the brain called? A. Gyri B. Sulci C. Lobes ...
• The diencephalon is composed primarily of ____________. A. the cerebellum, brain stem and cerebrum ...
• The brain is made up of three major parts. What are they? A. The occipital ...
• Connective tissues which protect the brain and spinal cord are called the __________. A. vertebrae ...
• This part takes care of body jobs you don't think about, like digesting food and ...
• This part controls your emotions and keeps your body at the right temperature. A. thalamus ...
• Sally has a brain injury; she knows what she wants to say but can't vocalize ...
• This part controls balance and coordination. A. thalamus B. hemisphere C. cerebellum D. cerebrum ...
• Name the two major parts of the central nervous system. A. The brain and the ...
• Occipital Lobes are responsible for:  A. balance B. vision C. hearing D. movement
• What part of the brain controls you movement, sense of touch, taste, and temperature? ...
• The 3 layers of meninges from superficial to deep are A. dura mater, arachnoid mater, ...
• Automatic reflex centers for the heart rate, blood pressure, breathing, swallowing, and vomiting A. Medulla ...
• What is the main function of the parietal lobe? A. Speech, thinking, touch B. Speech, ...
• Which part of the nervous system controls autonomous reflexes such as the heart rate, breathing, ...
• What are different halves of your brain called? A. cerebellum B. cerebrum C. hemispheres ...
• What is the main function of the temporal lobe? A. Speech, thinking, touch B. Speech, ...
• Nerve responsible for sense of smell A. optic B. olfactory C. hypoglossal D. vagus
• A_______is what your body does in reaction to a stimuli.  A. reaction B. response ...
• If you had one word to describe the function of the parietal lobe it would ...
• Bacteria that can cause disease are A. viruses B. pathogens C. protists
• What are the poisons produced by some pathogens? A. toxins B. lysosomes C. slime
• Spiral or corkscrew-shaped bacteria A. coccus B. bacillus C. spirillum D. prokaryote
• Rod shaped bacteria A. coccus B. prokaryote C. spirillum D. bacillus
• What helps prevent some bacterial and viral diseases? A. Vaccines B. Antibiotics C. Herbal tea ...
• Bacteria that can make their own food (producers) A. cyanobacteria B. saprophytes C. nitrogen-fixing
• All bacteria are harmful. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Whiplike tail that bacteria use for movement A. pili B. cytoplasm C. cell wall ...
• Spherical bacteria A. coccus B. bacillus C. endospore
• Virus that is inactive inside a cell, gets reproduced with the cell, and can active ...
• A bacterium reproduces asexually by dividing to form two new bacterial cells. What is the ...
• Process in which food (often milk) is heated to a temperature that kills most harmful ...
• One important way to control the spread of bacterial and viral diseases is A. hand ...
• Bacteria are prokaryotes, meaning they ________. A. lack a nucleus B. are very large ...
• Which is most often used to treat a bacterial infection? A. vaccine B. antibiotics ...
• What is a host? A. An organism that eats another organism B. An organism or ...
• ______________ are bacteria can break down dead and decaying materials (decompose). A. saprophytes B. bacteriophages ...
• What bone forms the forehead? A. mental B. frontal C. occipital D. temporal
• What is the only movable bone in the skull A. maxilla B. zygomatic C. mandible ...
• What type of examination are the lymph nodes palpated? A. intraoral B. periodontal C. extraoral ...
• What are the two basic types of movement by the TMJ? A. popping and crepitus ...
• Which is not a symptom of TMD? A. pain B. joint sound C. enlarged lymph ...
• Where is the mental foramen located? A. palatal side of maxilla between apices of the ...
• Which division of the trigeminal nerve subdivides into the buccal, lingual, and inferior alveolar nerves? ...
• Which is not an artery that branches from the inferior alveolar artery? A. mental ...
• Which cranial nerve innervates all muscles of mastication? A. hypoglossal B. mandibular division of the ...
• What is the horseshoe shaped bone? A. zygomatic B. hyoid C. sphenoid D. palate
• What bone forms the cheek? A. frontal B. temporal C. orbital D. zygomatic
• Which is not a region of the head? A. frontal parietal occipital mental B. temporal ...
• What bones form the upper jaw and the hard palate? A. mental B. buccal ...
• Which of the major salivary glands is the largest? A. parotid B. mandibular C. sublingual ...
• What is incorrect about the teeth of males and females? A. females teeth are larger ...
• What artery supplies the maxillary molars, premolars, and gingiva? A. incisive B. anterior middle superior ...
• How many pairs of cranial nerves are connected to the brain? A. 11 B. 12 ...
• What is another name for the Parotid duct? A. Daffy's duct B. Wharton's duct ...
• What is the term for enlarged or palpable lymph nodes? A. pathology B. lymphadenopathy ...
• 3 things all neurons have in common: A. Transmit electrical impulses away from the cell ...
• Why does your body separate negative and positive charges? A. For protection B. To build ...
• Is your brain active during sleep? A. Yes B. No C. Only when you dream ...
• The flow of electricity/impulses/messages from one point to another: A. Voltage B. Proteins C. Potassium ...
• What is the key to all electrical events in neurons? A. The movement of ions ...
• Which is NOT a step in a reflex action? A. Sensory neurons in your hand ...
• This system links the rest of your body to your brain and spinal cord: ...
• These cover some axons and increase the speed of the impulse: A. Myelin Sheath ...
• What is integration? A. The sensory receptors your skin is responsible for. B. Nervous system ...
• This system receives information about what is going on inside and outside of your body. ...
• What percentage of the calories you take in each day are consumed by your brain? ...
• Sudden, uncontrolled nerve impulses, often due to injury or bad reaction to medication: A. Sleazy ...
• This is the negatively charged ion inside the neuron: A. Sodium B. Potassium C. Protein ...
• This is a thick column of nerve tissue that links the brain to most of ...
• The nerve impulse is also known as: A. Action Potential B. Concussion C. Sodium ...
• The most common problem of the nervous system that people experience. These are often brought ...
• Which is NOT part of a neuron A. Nucleus B. Coma C. Dendrite D. Axon ...
• A concussion is: A. A type of spinal cord injury B. A thing that is ...
• How many neurons make up the brain? A. 1 million B. 100 million C. 1 ...
• The three types of neurons are Sensory Neurons, Interneurons and: A. Myelin Neurons B. Engine ...
• This is the control center of the body. It includes the brain and spinal cord: ...
• Why is the cerebral cortex folded over itself into bumps and grooves? A. To help ...
• The cells responsible for the early stages of endochondral ossification. A. chondrocytes B. osteoblasts ...
• A disc of hyaline cartilage that grows during childhood to lengthen the bone. A. epiphyseal ...
• Results in the formation of cranial bones of the skull and clavicles. All bones formed ...
• During infancy and childhood, the single most important stimulus of epiphyseal plate activity is...... ...
• Cartilage-forming cells in the surrounding perichondrium secrete new matrix against the external face of the ...
• Essentially all bones of the skeleton below the base of the skull are formed this ...
• A disorder characterized by excessive bone breakdown and abnormal bone formation. A. Osteomalacia B. Paget's ...
• The process of bone formation also called ossification. A. osteomalacia B. osteogenesis C. osteoperosis ...
• The lacunae-bound chondrocytes divide and secrete new matrix, expanding the cartilage from within. A. appositional ...
• What is the name of the plasma membrane surrounding each muscle fiber? A. T Tubule ...
• What is the specific neurotransmitter that stimulates the movement of skeletal muscles? A. GABA ...
• What is the contractile unit of the muscle? A. Z disk B. Sarcomere C. Muscle ...
• Which of these occurs first during a muscle contraction? A. The nerve signal reaches the ...
• Once the action potential reaches the end of the axon terminal what takes place? ...
• Which of these occurs last during a muscle contraction? A. The nerve signal reaches the ...
• Which muscle characteristic allows the muscle to return to resting length after contraction? A. Contractility ...
• What part of the muscle fiber stores Ca ions and releases them when stimulated? ...
• What protein makes up the thick filaments? A. Troponin B. Tropomyosin C. Myosin D. Actin ...
• ___are thick filaments. A. actin B. myosin C. troponin D. tropomyosin
• What is the name of the component that houses the neurotransmitters? A. Synaptic cleft ...
• ___forms a crossbridge with actin. A. actin B. myosin C. calcium D. ATP
• ___are thin filaments. A. troponin B. tropomyosin C. actin D. myosin
• ___provides energy for muscle contraction and relaxation. A. cAMP B. ADP C. ATP D. M ...
• The gap between the nerve cell and sarcolemma is the ____ ___. A. Synaptic cleft ...
• Once calcium is pumped into the axon terminal what happens? A. The muscle contracts ...
• Calcium is stored in the ___. A. sarcoplasm B. sarcolemma C. sarcoplasmic reticulum D. transverse ...
• What is the name of the location where the neuron and muscle fiber meet? ...
• Which bone is embedded the pituitary gland? A. Maxilla B. Vomer C. Sphenoid D. Terigoid ...
• Which of the following is not a protein hormone? A. ACTH B. Thyroxine C. TSH ...
• Hypo secretion of which hormone cause diabetic insipidus. A. ACTH B. Thyroxine C. Insulin ...
• Which of the following is the function of Glucocorticoid? A. Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Glycogenesis ...
• Which cells of thyroid gland secrete thyroglobulins? A. follicular cells B. Parafollicular cells C. Inside ...
• TSH is a _______. A. polypeptide B. homodimer protein C. heterodimer protein D. steroid hormone ...
• What is the roll of prolactin? A. Glandular tissue development B. Milk synthesis C. Duct ...
• Iodination of thyroglobulin takes place at A. Inside the cytoplasm of follicular cells B. Inside ...
• Glucocorticoid is a _______. A. Polypeptide hormone B. Amono acid derivative hormone C. Steroid hormone ...
• ACTH acts on the cells of ________. A. Medullary cells of kidney B. Medullary cells ...
• What condition will be appear due to excessive secretion of GH during adulthood? A. Gigantism ...
• The key element needed to make thyroxine is A. Calcium B. Iron C. Magnesium ...
• Calcitonin helps to A. increase calcium in your bones B. increase the absorption of calcium ...
• Which of the following is not secreted from the pituitary gland? A. Oxytocin B. Prolactin ...
• Which of the following hormone is a mitogen for certain cells? A. PRL B. TSH ...
• The roll of LH is _______. A. Stimulate testis to secrete testosterone B. Stimulate ovary ...
• Thyroxine and triiodothyronine help in A. maintaining calcium level B. metabolism C. reproductive cycle ...
• Which of the following neuro-hormone is not exist? A. CRH B. CIH C. GIH ...
• Neonatal hypothyroidism is called _______. A. Grave's disease B. Myxoedema C. Gigantism D. Cretinism
• Where is the Pituitary gland located? A. Hypophysial Fossa B. Dorsum Sellae C. In the ...
• Which of the following is not the function of Oxytocin? A. Milk ejection B. uterine ...
• You are more likely to get salmonella from not cooking your meats and eggs correctly. ...
• Wash your hands after using the restroom or changing diapers, before and after preparing or ...
• Salmonellosis is very contagious. It can be spread by someone who's contracted it even if ...
• To treat the disease you need salt and fluid replacements and antibiotics for severe cases. ...
• Sharing saliva or mouth-to-mouth contact with someone who's carrying the bacteria can transmit them the ...
• Is there a possible chance you may get salmonella if you eat sunny side eggs? ...
• You may get E.coli by drinking water that may have been contaminated with feces? ...
• If you get infected with Salmonella, the symptoms will last for 4-7 days? A. TRUE ...
• E.coli and Salmonella are very similar, but E.coli is more dangerous. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Are these the correct symtoms for E.coli? A. ...
• E. Coli is not spread by coughing, kissing, or through normal, everyday interactions with friends ...
• Don’t cross-contaminate food preparation areas. Thoroughly wash hands, counters, cutting boards, and utensils after touching ...
• Wash fruits and vegetables before eating, unless the package says the contents have been washed. ...
• To treat the disease you need salt and fluid replacement A. E. coli B. Salmonella ...
• If you get infected with E.coli, the symptoms will last 5-7 days. A. TRUE ...
• if you touch or consume contaminated water with E.coli, this infection can be passed from ...
• This disability encompasses multiple conditions. A. Au B. Hearing Impaired C. Multiple Disabilities D. Visually ...
• This disability affects muscles and bones, as well as joints, ligaments, and tendons. A. Developmental ...
• Characteristics this disorder mostly relate to issues of personal identity and emotional well-being. A. Emotional/ ...
• AD/HD falls into this category of disabilities. A. Autism B. Visually Impaired C. Other health ...
• The children identified in this category are young. A. Deaf/Blind B. Multiple Handicaps C. Developmental ...
• At what IQ score would a student be considered to have an intellectual disability? ...
• Allow extra time for students to shift from one activity or environment to the next ...
• Screen readers convert text on a computer screen to audible speech and is most helpful ...
• This disability affects a person's sight and hearing. A. Deaf B. Blindness C. Hearing Impairment ...
• _________ planning is a collaborative process that has shown great promise in supporting students with ...
• Generally, only children who cannot hear sounds generating less than ___ decibels (dB) are considered ...
• An impairment in hearing, whether permanent or fluctuating, that adversely affects a child's educational performance. ...
• Characteristics of AD/HD include: A. Does not pay attention to detail and often makes mistakes ...
• A classroom design where all instructional materials contain visual supports and cues best supports students ...
• Speech-to-Text software could be used as an accommodation for someone with this disability. A. Orthopedic ...
• Text to Speech software can be most helpful to students with this disability. A. Dyslexia ...
• Cerebral palsy, spina bifida and degenerative diseases are characteristics for this disability category. ...
• Individuals with this disability will always have developmental differences in communicative function, social interaction skills, ...
• This disabilities can be defined by a disorder in one or more of the basic ...
• Dyslexia is a common disability in this disability category. A. Emotional/ Behavioral Disorder B. Intellectual ...
• This disability is the term used for children aged three through nine years who have ...
• ________ and ________impairment is defined as a communication disorder that adversely affects the child's ability ...
• The _________of many nephrons open into a straight tube callecting duct A. Proximal convoluted tubules ...
• Thickness of adult human kidney is A. 1-2 cm B. 2-3 cm C. 3-4 cm ...
• Amount of blood filtered by kidneys per minute A. 1000-1100 ml B. 1100-1200 ml ...
• Renal tubule begins with a _______cup like structure called Bowman's capsule A. Single walled ...
• Following structure enter through hilum of kidney A. Ureter only B. Ureter , blood vessels ...
• Each nephron is made up of A. Glomerulus B. Renal tubule C. Both a and ...
• Following structures are situated in cortical region of kidneys A. Malpighian corpuscle B. PCT ...
• Which part of Henle's loop continues as another highly coiled tubular region called distal convoluted ...
• In Reabsorption process nearly _____ percent of filtrate is reabsorbed by renal tubules to release ...
• In the Reabsorption process following substances are absorbed by active transport A. Glucose B. Amino ...
• Loop of Henle dips into A. Cortex B. Medulla C. Both of above D. None ...
• Length of kidney of an adult human measures A. 8-10 cm B. 10-12 cm ...
• GFR in healthy individual is approximately A. 100ml/ min B. 125 ml/min C. 150 ml/ ...
• Average weight of human kidney is A. 90-140 g B. 100-150 g C. 110-160g ...
• Each kidney has nearly _________ million complex tubular structures called nephrons A. 1 B. 2 ...
• Blood filtered by kidneys per minute constitutes roughly_____of the blood pumped out by each ventricle ...
• Kidneys are situated close to A. Dorsal inner wall of abominal cavity B. Ventral inner ...
• Width of adult human kidney is A. 1-3 cm B. 3-5 cm C. 5-7 cm ...
• Glomerulus is tuft of A. Arteries B. Veins C. Capillaries D. None of the above ...
• GFR in healthy individual is approximately A. 140 L/ day B. 160 L/ day ...
• All of the following substances are reabsorbed by active mechanism by renal tubule EXCEPT ...
• Kidneys are situated between following vertebrae A. Last thoracic and third lumbar B. First thoracic ...
• Blood from glomerulus is carried away by A. Afferent arteriole B. Efferent arteriole C. Both ...
• Indicate the most abundant cation in the extracellular fluid. A. K+ B. Na+ C. Cl ...
• Identify the substance that is secreted by the proximal tubule and prevents the pH of ...
• Identify the correct statement about countercurrent multipliers system A. Descending limb loop of Henle is ...
• Identify Structure F A. Proximal Convoluted Tubule ...
• Which kidney structure empties into the ureter? A. renal pelvis B. calyx C. renal papilla ...
• Which of following is not correct about kidney? A. Formation and excretion of urine ...
• What is the function of ADH? A. decreases reabsorption of water and salts B. increases ...
• Which of the following substances is incorrectly matched with its producer? A. Aldosterone--Adrenal gland ...
• Which of the followings is least likely to be found in the filtrate that moves ...
• Identify the incorrect function of angiotensin II in the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS). A. Increases blood ...
• Which stage of urine production involves returning water, nutrients, and electrolytes to the bloodstream? ...
• _____________ is the second step of urine formation; substances move from the tubular fluid back ...
• Identify the nonselective and passive process performed by the glomerulus that forms the filtrate ...
• Which stage of urine production involves adding ammonia, uric acid, and other waste substances directly ...
• Identify structure A A. Ureter B. ...
• Which stage of urine production involves the removal of substances from the bloodstream? A. reabsorption ...
• How does your body feel if you have a fever? A. too hot B. hungry ...
• Which of the following things can be contagious? A. an ache B. a flu ...
• What kind of doctor works with bones? A. Cardiologist B. Dentist C. Gastroenterologist D. Orthopedist ...
• What is a common tool surgeons use during surgery? A. Hammer B. Scalpel C. Tweezers ...
• What kind of doctor works with the heart? A. Cardiologist B. Dentist C. Gastroenterologist ...
• What should you take if you get a prescription? A. a virus B. a home ...
• What kind of doctor specializes in working on children? A. Cardiologist B. Dentist C. Gastroenterologist ...
• Which of these is a basic first aid procedure? A. Cleaning and bandaging a cut ...
• How many bones are there in the skull? A. 21 B. 22 C. 23 ...
• What is the correct term that is used when a doctor explains what illness or ...
• Blue, brown or purple mark that you get from a fall, being hit by somebody, ...
• Cords made of tough tissue that hold bones and muscles together are called A. Tendons ...
• A long strip of cloth that you wrap around a part of the body that ...
• What BMI is associated with higher mortality? A. 18.5-24.9 B. 25-29.9 C. 30-39.9 D. More ...
• Which of the following are healthy weight management strategies? A. Eating an energy dense diet ...
• When excess energy is stored a triglyceride, what happens first? A. Fat cells enlarge (get ...
• People who are successful in maintain weight loss are physically active for ______ minutes per ...
• What BMI is considered overweight? A. Less than 18.5 B. 18.5-24.9 C. 25.0-29.9 D. 30.0 ...
• A hormone that DECREASES appetite that is produced by fat cells is called: A. Ghrelin ...
• Fat cells/tissue deposited outside of adipose tissue are called: A. White fat B. Brown fat ...
• When energy in exceeds energy out, how is excess energy stored for later use? ...
• A hormone produced by stomach cells that INCREASES appetite is called: A. Ghrelin B. Leptin ...
• To be eligible for bariatric surgery you must: A. Have a BMI of at least ...
• When you lose weight, fat cells decrease in number. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What percentage of the population is underweight? A. 2% B. 5% C. 8% D. 10% ...
• What is not part of the 4 phases of Respiration? A. Ventilation B. Oxygenation ...
• Using the Berlin Criteria for ARDS, ARDS severe P/F ratio is A. 100-200 B.
• Diffusion occurs when the exchange of gases between alveoli and the capillary bed. A. TRUE ...
• The name of the respiratory system that goes from the nose to the lungs is ...
• Who can NOT intubate patients in EAMC A. respiratory therapists B. Physicians C. Nurse ...
• The formula for PF ratio is A. PaO2/Fio2 B. Pao2 x Fio2 / 3
• Low pressure alarm can be contributed by each answer EXCEPT A. pt coughing B. disconnection ...
• What scale do we use for sedation A. Morse scale B. PAL C. RASS
• A patient with a tracheostomy should always have what items at bedside A. glass of ...
• The following are types of obstructive diseases except A. cystic fibrosis B. ARDS C. asthma ...
• How can we check ventilation status? A. Respiratory Rate B. Tidal Volume C. Breath Sounds ...
• What is the normal value of PaCO2? A. 35 - 45 mm Hg B. 80 ...
• Emphysematous lung produce which sound when auscultating the lung A. Tymphany B. Resonance C. Hyperresonance ...
• Ratio of RBC to plasma is A. Hematocrit B. Hemoglobin C. RBC
• An irregular breathing with apnea every 4 - 5 cycles is called A. Biot's ...
• Inward movement of abdomen during inspiration A. Kussmaul Respiration B. Abdominal paradox C. Splinting
• Following are the Chest Physiotherapy, Except A. Percussion B. Vibration C. Postural drainage D. Huff ...
• Which position is contraindicated to the patient with chest injury, hemoptysis and heart disease during ...
• An intendation of lower sternum above the xiphoid process is called A. Pectus Carinatum ...
• Small amount (30ml) of sterile saline inject through the bronchoscope & withdrawn and examined for ...
• Following are the adventitious breath sounds, Except A. Rhonchi B. Wheeze C. Resonance
• What is the the normal Cuff pressure of ET tube? A. 20 - 25 cm ...
• Maria is having difficulty with speech. She wants to say she ‘needs milk from the ...
• Day to day ordinary bodily functions are controlled by the __________ division. A. sympathetic ...
• The occipital lobe is primarily responsible for: A. processing visual information. B. processing auditory information. ...
• Steve had a small stroke that resulted in partial paralysis of his left side. The ...
• From the options given below, identify which brain structure is implicated in basic survival functions ...
• Which of the following is not a function of the sympathetic division? A. accelerates heart ...
• The two forms of reflexes are: A. motor and sensory. B. extensor and intensor. ...
• Jerry wakes up one morning to find that people around him are using words that ...
• When typing on your computer, the individual motions of your fingers on the keys are ...
• The set of neural fibres that connect the two hemispheres is known as: A. the ...
• The area of the brain that provides a connection between Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area ...
• If you burn your hand, your immediate reaction will probably involve all but which of ...
• The brain’s ability to substantially rewire itself in response to environmental demand including disease, injury ...
• The central nervous system is comprised of the: A. peripheral nervous system and autonomic nervous ...
• In which of the following lobes of the brain would you find the primary auditory ...
• George is undergoing brain surgery to remove a tumour. The surgeon applies electrical stimulation to ...
• Which of the following is the correct path of a reflex arc?
• According to the above diagram, which lobe of the cerebral cortex is shaded pale ...
• Identify the branch of the autonomic nervous system that activates the fight-flight-freeze response: A. central ...
• Jack fell off of his bike and hit his head. He sat up and his ...
• The number of new cases of a disease divided by the number of people at ...
• The total number of cases in a population at a certain time A. Prevalence of ...
• A disease spread by parasites, bacteria, fungi, etc. A. Infectious Disease B. Communicable Disease ...
• A disease that cannot be spread between people A. Infectious Disease B. Non-communicable disease ...
• a parasite that carries a pathogen A. Vector B. Disease C. Pandemic
• The state of being ill or diseased A. Mortality B. Morbidity
• The branch of medicine that deals with the incidence, distribution, and control of disease ...
• Death - may include the cause of death A. Mortality B. Morbidity
• A microorganism e.g. bacteria that cause disease A. Vector B. Pathogen C. Pandemic
• a disease that is not transmissible from one period to another e.g. parkinsons A. infectious ...
• an epidemic that spreads worldwide A. pandemic B. epidemic C. endemic
• An infectious disease transferred from host to host A. Infectious disease B. Epidemic C. Pandemic ...
• A Non-communicable disease that is due to gender, age e.g. cancer A. Infectious disease ...
• The number of new cases in a population during a particular time period A. Prevalence ...
• a disease regularly found among particular people or a certain area A. epidemic B. pandemic ...
• A disease spread by contact A. communicable disease B. non communicable disease C. contagious disease ...
• An infectious disease of animals e.g. rabies which can cause disease when transmitted from animals ...
• a disease outbreak that spread quickly through the population in a geographical area A. pandemic ...
• Blood flows into the heart at the top into the A. Atrium B. Ventricle ...
• Blockage of the coronary arteries is called: A. Coronary heart disease B. Infection C. Heart ...
• Which blood vessels return blood to the heart? A. Arteries B. Veins C. Capillaries ...
• The ventricles pump the blood out of the heart A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The components of the blood are: A. Plasma Water B. Plasma ...
• Look at the structures and identify the name of each blood vessel
• Which is the name of the arteries that supply blood to the heart muscles? ...
• The contraction of the cardiac muscle is called: A. Diastole B. Heart beat C. Systole ...
• Blood returns to the heart from the lungs through the A. Pulmonary artery B. Aorta ...
• Oxygenated blood returns to the heart by the A. Aorta B. Pulmonary vein C. Pulmonary ...
• Which is the function of red blood cells? A. Fight pathogens B. Blood clotting ...
• Desoxygenated blood flow into the heart into the  A. Left atrium B. Right atrium C. Left ...
• Where would you find a prefix in a medical word? A. At the start ...
• Where would you find a suffix in a medical word? A. At the start ...
• What is the root word of the medical term 'hyperglycaemia'? A. hyper B. glyc ...
• What is the suffix of the medical term 'hyperglycaemia'? A. hyper B. glyc C. aemia ...
• What does the prefix 'intra-' refer to? A. Within B. Slow C. Fast D. Too ...
• What does the prefix 'hyper-' refer to? A. Within B. Slow C. Fast D. Too ...
• What is the prefix of the medical term 'hyperglycaemia'? A. hyper B. glyc C. aemia ...
• What does the suffix '-aemia' refer to? A. Inflammation B. Study of C. Forming or ...
• What does the root word 'gastr' refer to? A. Joints B. Bones C. Stomach ...
• What does the medical term acute mean? A. An illness that lasts a short time ...
• Combining vowels change the meaning of a medical term. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What does the root word 'arthr' refer to? A. Joints B. Bones C. Stomach ...
• What does the suffix '-genic' refer to? A. Inflammation B. Study of C. Forming or ...
• What does the term hyperglycaemia refer to? A. Low blood sugar B. Fast heart rate ...
• What does the suffix '-itis' refer to? A. Inflammation B. Study of C. Forming or ...
• What does the medical term remission mean? A. An illness that lasts a short time ...
• Any signs and symptoms of the patient's illness should be noted in the medical complaint ...
• What does the medical term chronic mean? A. An illness that lasts a short time ...
• What does the prefix 'tachy-' refer to? A. Within B. Slow C. Fast D. Too ...
• What does the root word 'pulmon' refer to? A. Joints B. Bones C. Stomach ...
• What does the root word 'osteo' refer to? A. Joints B. Bones C. Stomach ...
• What does the medical term terminal mean? A. An illness that lasts a short time ...
• What does the suffix '-logy' refer to? A. Inflammation B. Study of C. Forming or ...
• What does the prefix 'brady-' refer to? A. Within B. Slow C. Fast D. Too ...
• Which is NOT a possible capsid morphology (shape)? A. tetrahedral B. helical C. icosahedral ...
• What is TRUE about herpes simplex virus latency? A. Lytic cycle genes are actively expressed ...
• Oncogenic viruses... A. Contribute to only 5% of human cancers worldwide B. Include papillomavirus and ...
• A cell expressing heparan sulfate is vulnerable to infection by... A. Adenovirus B. Herpes simplex ...
• Phage replication is indicated by... A. Turbidity (opaqueness) on a bacterial lawn B. Clearings (plaques) ...
• You isolate an infectious, acellular pathogen from a potato. It may be a... A. Bacteriophage ...
• Viral genomes are protected by... A. Polysaccharide network B. Protein coat known as a capsid ...
• Viruses can have the following genetic material, EXCEPT... A. double-stranded RNA B. single-stranded RNA ...
• Inhibition of the interaction between HIV gp120 and host T cell CD4 would... A. Prevent ...
• Viral life cycles... A. Involve a specific host B. Prefer certain tissue or cell types ...
• HIV reverse transcriptase... A. Copies genomic RNA to DNA B. Makes few mistakes during replication ...
• What is TRUE about retroviral genes? A. env codes for matrix & capsid proteins ...
• What is FALSE about herpes simplex virus replication? A. Viral protein ICP34.5 allows it to ...
• How would a scientist design an oncolytic virus? A. Prevent it from replicating in normal ...
• How do oncogenic viruses contribute to cancer? A. They slow down cell cycle progression ...
• Getting rid of phage lambda protein cII would cause... A. Entry into the lytic cycle ...
• Why are prions so lethal? A. They involve RNA misfolding B. They mainly affect the ...
• Some viruses have a phospholipid membrane. This is derived from... A. The extracellular environment ...
• Phage lambda attachment and entry into E. coli... A. Involves a bacterial porin, LamB ...
• Oncolytic viruses... A. Contribute to cancer getting worse (metastasis) B. Alert the immune system to ...
• An example of Skeletal muscle is A. Tricep B. Digestive tract C. Heart
• What is NOT a function of muscles A. Communication B. Movement C. Respiration D. Fighting ...
• The three types of muscle are: A. triceps biceps heart B. Smooth Skeletal ...
• this type of muscles function is associated with the circulatory system A. Skeletal B. Smooth ...
• How many types of muscles are there? A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 ...
• This type of muscles main function is movement A. Smooth B. Cardiac C. Skeletal ...
• Which word best describes: An action being carried out subconciously A. Voluntary B. Involuntary ...
• An example of smooth muscle is A. digestive tract B. Heart C. Tricep
• Which word best describes: an action carried out intentionally A. Involuntary B. Voluntary
• An example of Cardiac muscle is A. Digestive tract B. Heart C. Tricep
• This type of muscle is particularly important in the digestive system, helping move food along   ...
• Range of motion term that refers to moving a body part away from the midline ...
• What is the name of the disease that shows itself by decreasing density in bones, ...
• Movement by which the two ends of any jointed part are moved away from each ...
• During range of motion activities, make sure to ask the patient if they are experiencing ...
• Symptoms/signs of osteoarthritis A. Pain B. Swelling in the joints C. Decreased range of motion ...
• What word do we use to describe a broken bone? A. Laceration B. Abrasion ...
• The word meaning Absence of muscle tone or development A. Trophy B. Atrophy C. Paralysis ...
• What type of Range of motion is the CNA performing the movements in? A. Active ...
• Movement by which the ends of a jointed area are brought closer together (The angle ...
• What type of pain is associated with an amputated extremity? A. Inflammatory pain B. Bone ...
• This metabolic disease results in chronic pain, arthritis, and uric acid deposits in the joints ...
• A group of parts that work together to do a job, perform a function, or ...
• What is the term used to describe range of motion that the patient is doing ...
• Breaking of a bone on one side only, more common in children A. Compound fracture ...
• Range of motion term that results in a body part moving towards the midline ...
• Which bone is the longest/strongest in the body? A. Humerus B. Tibia C. Fibula ...
• What term do we use to describe an artificial body part, meant to take the ...
• A painful condition where pressure within the muscles builds up, preventing blood and oxygen from ...
• A fracture in which part of the bone is sticking out of the skin is ...
• Which of the following can cause gastroenteritis? A. Genetics B. Poor hygiene C. Hitting your ...
• Which of the following disease affects the circulatory system? A. Epilepsy B. Osteoporosis C. Hypertension ...
• Food intolerance is when a person has difficulty digesting certain food. What are the common ...
• Which of the following conditions affect the respiratory system? A. Asthma B. Gastroenteritis C. Covid-19 ...
• What is hypertension? A. Low blood pressure B. High blood pressure C. Low blood sugar ...
• What is a chronic disease? A. A disease that can be passed from one person ...
• Arthritis affects which body system? A. The musculoskeletal B. The nervous system C. The circulatory ...
• Who is most likely to be affected by Alzheimer's disease? A. A 25 year old ...
• Loss of taste and smell is a common symptom of Covid-19 A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Which of the following specialists are trained in the diagnosis and treatment of nervous system ...
• What are the common signs or symptoms of osteoporosis? A. Bones that break easily ...
• Multiple sclerosis is an acute, non-communicable condition. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What are common signs and symptoms of arthritis? A. Pain in the joints B. headache ...
• Epilepsy/ seizures and Alzheimer's affect which of these body systems? A. The circulatory system ...
• Osteoporosis is a chronic condition. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What is an acute disease? A. A disease that can be passed from one person ...
• An autoimmune disease attacks healthy body cells A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What is the purpose of oil glands? A. Oil inhibits bacteria B. Oil promotes bacteria ...
• Observing a client's hair and skin can determine a lot about their health A. TRUE ...
• Dorsal and Ventral refer to the 2 major body cavities A. FALSE B. TRUE
• Which of the following is a function of the muscles A. Acts as an elimination ...
• Where is the bone marrow found? A. Periosteum B. Compact bone C. Spongy bone ...
• Every part of the human body is covered with hair except the hands and soles ...
• Which of the following is considered to have smooth muscles A. Muscle attached to bones ...
• An irregular bone is hard and dense that provides strength, structure, and mobility A. TRUE ...
• Skin is an organ of elimination A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The epidermis contains blood vessels and nerves A. TRUE B. FALSE
• An immovable joint contains a joint capsule and synovial fluid A. FALSE B. TRUE
• What is the most basic functional unit in the body? A. Hemoglobin B. Immunity ...
• Which of the following is considered a short bone A. Femur B. Patella C. Vertabra ...
• What is a hinge joint? A. Allows movement in one direction B. Allows movement in ...
• What is the largest organ in the body? A. Blood B. Brain C. Skin ...
• There are 6 basic types of tissue A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Adipose tissue, dense fibrous, cartilage, bone, blood, and lymph are all part of which type ...
• Hair, skin, nails, sweat and oil glands are part of which body system? A. Musculoskeletal ...
• Which cells are part of the innate immune system? (check all that apply) A. neutrophils ...
• Which cell is dubbed the Kamikaze of the immune cells? A. B lymphocytes B. T ...
• What is the most abundant white blood cell in a ruminants ? A. neutrophil ...
• Which part the immune system gets activated first during an infection during a first infection ...
• Which cell is secretes antibodies? A. B lymphocytes B. T lymphocyte C. neutrophils D. eosinophil ...
• Which cells are best suited to kill off parasites? A. neutrophil B. lymphocyte C. eosinophil ...
• What is the RAREST of white blood cells? A. neutrophil B. lymphocyte C. monocyte ...
• Which part of the immune system carries the memory of past infections? A. innate ...
• Which cell is best suited to kill cancer cells ? A. B lymphocytes B. T ...
• Which cells are part of the adaptive immune system? A. B lymphocytes B. T ...
• Which part of the immune system respond the strongest after the second or third infection ...
• What is the most abundant white blood cell in a human? A. neutrophil B. lymphocyte ...
• How mush blood is taken during a blood donation? A. approx 100mls B. approx 500ml ...
• How long must you wait after getting a tattoo before you can give blood? ...
• How often can a person donate blood in ireland? A. every 35 days B. every ...
• What treatments/ illnesses best describe what hospitals might use blood for most, when they transfuse ...
• Donors must fast before giving blood. True/false A. TRUE B. FALSE
• How many kilometers a day does your blood travel around the body? A. approx 9.6kms ...
• What percentage of the eligible population are active blood donors? A. 30% B. 13% ...

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