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• Intrinsic electrical impulses start at which of the following locations? A. AV Node B. Bundle ...
• Which of the following describes the network that distributes electrical impulses throughout the heart? ...
• Which receptors detect an increase in blood pressure? A. Proprioceptors B. baroreceptors C. chemoreceptors ...
• Ejection fraction is the .... A. volume of blood pumped out the left ventricle per ...
• Starlings law states that if there is increased venous return, there will be greater diastolic ...
• What process will occur at the capillaries to increase blood flow to working muscles during ...
• Which is the correct definition of bradycardia? A. a decrease in resting heart rate below ...
• What does the sympathetic nervous system do? A. Increase heart rate B. decrease heart rate ...
• cardiac muscles are myogenic - what does this mean? A. muscles contract and relax by ...
• Which is the best definition of blood pressure? A. The force exerted by blood against ...
• An increase in the concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood will stimulate what to ...
• Which is the correct definition of stroke volume? A. the volume of blood returning to ...
• What is the role of chemoreceptors? A. detect an increase in blood pressure B. detect ...
• Which is the correct calculation for working out cardiac output? A. stroke volume / time ...
• Which factors contribute to positive health? A. stress, anxiety B. healthy balanced diet C. plenty ...
• In our body, the first line of defence consists of skin and mucous membrane. ...
• Which one is a communicable disease?? A. Scurvy B. Rickets C. Cholera D. None of ...
• Non-communicable diseases... A. can not be passed from organism to organism B. can be passed ...
• A diet containing all types of nutrients in a right amount is called _________ ...
• Which factors can lead to poor health? A. stress B. unhealthy diet C. anxiety ...
• Malnutrition can be cured by____ A. Balanced diet B. Only junk food C. Only water ...
• Protiens help the body to build muscles A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Foods contain useful substanses called __________ A. Vitamins B. Nutrients C. Sweet
• Communicable disease are ones that... A. can not be passed from organism to organism ...
• Infectious diseases are diseases caused by an organism such as a virus or a bacterium, ...
• Carbohydrates and Fats provide __________ to the body A. Energy B. Nutrients C. Repair dameged ...
• What is a vector? A. pathogen B. organism that carries pathogen C. type of infectious ...
• Diabetes is a ___________ A. Deficiency disease B. Communicable disease C. Non-communicable disease D. None ...
• An example of a communicable disease is.. A. measles B. coronavirus C. chicken pox ...
• Identify the deficiency disease shown: A. Kwashiorkar ...
• Health is... A. feeling on top of your game B. exercising regularly C. eating a ...
• Germs live everywhere A. TRUE B. FALSE
• An example of a non-communicable disease is... A. asthma B. flu C. coronavirus D. measles ...
• Anaemia is a communicable disease A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Quaternary structure A. the amino acid sequence B. formation of alpha helices and beta sheets ...
• Primary structure A. the amino acid sequence B. formation of alpha helices and beta sheets ...
• What is the role of tRNA? A. carries specific amino acids to be joined onto ...
• what is the process where: DNA is converted int mRNA code, then is carried to ...
• phenotype A. physical appearance B. genetics C. photosynthetic organisms
• gene expression A. translocation of genes into their protein end products B. transcription C. translation ...
• What is not a role of mRNA? A. essential to keep DNA protected B. carry ...
• What is the process where: mRNA is read within the ribosome, where associated anticodons are ...
• Secondary structure A. the amino acid sequence B. formation of alpha helices and beta sheets ...
• Tertiary structure A. the amino acid sequence B. formation of alpha helices and beta sheets ...
• How are cells differentiated? A. the way that the DNA molecules are organised and packaged ...
• People have excellent aerobic fitness when they can engage in physical activity for a long ...
• Factors affecting physical health are ..... A. sleep, diet, feelings and learning B. sleep, diet, ...
• What influences health and wellness? A. Family B. Friends C. Morals, values, beliefs D. All ...
• Which of these is NOT one of the 4 areas of health? A. Mental ...
• Which of the following health-related components of fitness has to do with your heart, lungs, ...
• What is the part of physical fitness on which a marathon runner would probably score ...
• Dealing with life's demands in a positive way. A. setting goals B. refusal skills ...
• Which of these actions does not contribute to a good health? A. Following a balanced ...
• Passing down characteristics from parent to child. A. Trait B. Heredity C. Family D. Health ...
• Health related fitness measures a person's ability to perform physical activities that require which of ...
• Strength, endurance, and flexibility are all parts of your ________________ fitness. A. mental B. emotional ...
• Some one who is active daily, able to perform daily activities and has a healthy ...
• Which of these influence our health? A. Family B. Environment C. Media D. All the ...
• Advantages of fitness EXCEPT : A. Relaxation and release stress B. Increase risk of disease ...
• What is the definition of Health? A. Combination of physical, mental/emotional and social health. ...
• Select the correct list of words for benefits of being healthy. A. Look Your Age, ...
• Which of these are examples of mental health? A. Recognize and deal with stress ...
• The range of motion through a joint is known as what? A. Stretching B. Flexibility ...
• The ability to ride a bike for a long time is: A. Muscular Endurance ...
• The percentage of body weight that is made up of fat when compared to your ...
• Which of the following is an example of a portal of exit? A. Mouth ...
• A disease that spreads from one host to another is known as A. Communicable ...
• Changes in the body function that are not always apparent to the observer are known ...
• hese pathogens grow best in warm and damp environments A. Bacteria B. Protozoa C. Fungi ...
• A disease the develops slowly and lasts a long time can be described as ...
• These pathogens lack the ability to metabolize on their own and instead rely on the ...
• The time between entry of the microorganism into the host and the appearance of symptoms ...
• These pathogens can be killed with antibiotics and are single celled A. Bacteria B. Protozoa ...
• The study of disease is known as A. Toxology B. Immunology C. Pathology D. Diseasology ...
• A disease on a world-wide scale is known as A. Epidemic B. Pandemic C. Endemic ...
• During this time, the infected individual returns to normal A. Period of Convalescence B. Period ...
• This term is used when many people in a local area get sick at the ...
• What type of transmission is this? A person gets sick from touching a door knob ...
• Cancer, cardiovascular disease, asthma, and diabetes are examples of this type of disease. A. communicable ...
• Cancer, Hypertension, and Asthma are examples of what types of disease? A. Non-communicable B. Communicable ...
• Which of the following causes diseases? A. Pathogens B. Poor Environment C. Genetics D. All ...
• Epidemiologists look for which of the following? A. Who is sick B. What are their ...
• This term is used when a disease affects a large proportion of the people over ...
• What type of transmission is this? An animal bite or scratch leads to an infectious ...
• This type of disease is communicable, which means it can be spread from person to ...
• The study of the spread of disease is ? A. Pathology B. Biology C. Anatomy ...
• ________ is a disease that can be passed to a person from another person, animal ...
• If a flu outbreak affects a small community, would that be considered a pandemic or ...
• What type of transmission is this? The spray of droplets during coughing and sneezing spreads ...
• What type of transmission is this? Mosquitos, fleas, and ticks pass along an infectious disease. ...
• What is significant about an infectious disease? A. It can be passed from person to ...
• Is cancer a pandemic? A. No, because it is not contagious B. Yes, because lots ...
• What type of transmission is this? A person catches measles by being in the same ...
• Washing your hands is the _________ effective strategy for preventing the spread of disease? ...
• Can you vaccinate against Influenza and Tetanus? A. Yes B. No
• occurs when tendons become inflamed or torn A. strain B. Muscular Dystrophy C. Tendinitis
• Muscle remains contracted due to overuse, lack of water, or lack of oxygen A. Strain ...
• What is Tetanus also known as? A. Cradle Jaw B. Colic C. Lock Jaw
• What toxin produced by another bacteria is the cure for late stage tetanus? A. Clorox ...
• a pulled, stretched, torn muscle/tendon A. strain B. sprain C. fracture D. contusion
• Tetanus has an impact on the muscular system and the nervous system A. TRUE ...
• The toxin of late tetanus creates... A. Rampant coughing B. Muscle relaxation to the point ...
• Tetanus is caused by the bacteria.... A. Clostridium tetani B. Varcella zoster C. C.diptheria ...
• What is ultrasonic frequency employed for obstetric studies? A. a) 0.5 to 1 MHz ...
• Which of the following can be measured using change in resistivity? A. a)Temperature B. b) ...
• Which of the following instrument makes use of the Doppler shift principle? A. a) Abdominal ...
• What will happen to resistance, if the length of the conductor is increased? A. a) ...
• The branch of medicine that deals with the provision and use of artificial devices such ...
• Which of the following instrument is used to measure the oxygen saturation level of blood ...
• Electrodes to measure EEG are placed on ________ A. a) forehead B. b) scalp ...
• The delta wave in EEG ranges from ___________ A. a) 0.5-4Hz B. b) 4-8Hz ...
• Which rhythm is the principal component of the EEG that indicates the alertness of the ...
• Which of the following amplifier circulatory is employed to reduce the hum noise generated by ...
• According to the international 10/20 system to measure EEG, odd number denotes which side of ...
• Skin Reflectance oximeter depends on monitoring backscattered lights in how many wavelengths? A. A.1 ...
• What are used as light source in Skin Reflectance Oximeter? A. a) Photodiode B. b) ...
• The frequency range of ECG is ____________ A. a) 0.05-150 HZ B. b) 500-1500 Hz ...
• Bandpass filter used in foetal phonocardiogram rejects all frequencies outside the ________ Hz range. ...
• Letter F in the EEG electrode placement system denotes? A. a) front B. b) face ...
• How many sounds are produced from the normal foetal heart action? A. a) 1 ...
• What is incorporated in sensor to warm the tissue so as to increase local blood ...
• The sensitivity of an electrocardiograph is typically set at 10 mm/mV. A. a) True ...
• What is range of ultrasonic energy transmitted into the body? A. a) 0-5 mW/cm2 ...
• The detected signals are processed in the form of photo – plethysmographs to determine ___________ ...
• Normal EEG frequency range is _______ A. a) 50-500Hz B. b) 0.5-50HZ C. c) 0.05-5Hz ...
• Resistive transducers are ______________ A. a)Primary transducers B. b) Secondary transducers C. c) Either primary ...
• In floating electrodes metal electrode does not make direct contact with the skin. A. a) ...
• Which technique is used to derive an integrated rate of the foetus heart from blood ...
• Which of the following can be used to measure using thermistors? A. a) Very low ...
• The blood is a poor conductor of electricity. A. a) True B. b) False
• To achieve optimum performance and to enable the relationship of change in resistance with the ...
• The volume of blood within the dialyzer is known as ___________ A. a) secondary volume ...
• A metal with temperature coefficient of resistance has a value 200, its initial resistance is ...
• A dermatologist treats ...... A. skin problems B. dental problems
• Which one cannot be an advice for obesity? A. You shoudn't eat fast food ...
• Have you ........... sprained your ankle? A. yet B. ever C. never D. for
• To heal means ...... A. seeing the doctor again B. becoming well again after an ...
• What is the matter? A. He has sprained his ankle ...
• What should you do if you have the flu? A. drink cold water B. drink ...
• nosebleed A. burun kanaması B. burun akıntısı
• A nutritionist is a person ...... A. who cooks healthy food B. who gives advice ...
• What does 'prescription' mean? A. hazırlık B. diyetisyen C. reçete D. ilaç
• What does 'feeling under the weather' mean? A. feel sick and tired B. feel happy ...
• Which one is not an illness? A. sore throat B. stomach ache C. cold ...
• killing A. ölüm B. öldürücü
• The doctor hasn't finished the operation .......... A. just B. for C. since D. yet ...
• sore throat A. boğaz ağrısı B. omuz ağrısı
• To consult means .... A. getting advice from a specialist B. asking questions to a ...
• A: 911. State your .....................? B: My son fell down the stairs. A. injured ...
• What does 'consult' mean? A. danışmak B. öldürücü C. dermatolog D. iyileşmek
• rash A. kızamık B. kızarıklık
• What is the matter with him? A. He has a ...
• A prescription is a piece of paper which ..... A. a pharmacist gives to patients ...
• The study of disease is A. cardiology B. pathology C. endocrinology D. entropy
• When glucose levels in the blood rise, your brain sends a signal to your pancreas. ...
• Pathogenic organisms are not a known mechanism of disease. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What are the 3 necessary components of a homeostatic feedback loop? A. Receptor, regulator, thermostat ...
• a body system that controls growth and homeostasis by secreting hormones from glands. A. skeletal ...
• a body system that controls and coordinates all body activities through electric impulses/messages between brain, ...
• Poor diet, too much sun exposure and unprotected sex are considered Lifestyle risk factors. ...
• Stress is a risk factor for disease. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• A patient must tell an examiner a sign. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Incubation is the period of time between being infected by a pathogen and the appearance ...
• The study of the occurrence, distribution and transmission of diseases in human populations (disease detectives) ...
• A sensor that monitors and responds to changes in the environmental is called the _________________________. ...
• A disease that we are not sure of its cause is termed A. communicable ...
• Which would be a symptom? A. headache B. cool clammy skin C. high pulse rate ...
• What is the evaporation of a liquid to cool the body? A. Shivering B. Sweating ...
• A patient must tell an examiner a symptom. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• An example of a positive feedback loop is ____________. A. Childbirth B. Blood Pressure regulation ...
• Genetic mechanisms can be a mechanism of disease. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What is homeostasis? A. The maintenance of a constant internal environment B. The maintenance of ...
• What is another word that can be used to describe homeostasis? A. dynamic balance ...
• Which type of feedback is involved in blood clotting? A. positive B. negative C. mutual ...
• An endemic is a disease that covers a large geographical area like the whole united ...
• Which of these would be a chronic condition? A. sprained ankle B. tendonitis C. twisted ...
• The study of all the factors in causing a disease, like how you get a ...
• Shivering is an attempt by the body to A. lower body temperature B. increase circulation ...
• What 2 systems are the major regulators of homeostasis? A. nervous and circulatory B. endocrine ...
• Conversion of T4 to T3 takes mainly in the liver and _____ A. Kidneys ...
• Minimum daily requirement of Iodine in the diet A. 75 mcg B. 15 mg ...
• Which of the following produces Calcitonin? A. Parafollicular cells B. Colloid C. Parathyroid gland ...
• Secreted in endocrine cells and remains in relation to plasma membrane; acts on immediately adjacent ...
• The major constituent of colloid is the large glycoprotein called ________ A. Thyroglobulin B. Albumin ...
• A system in which an increased in the product decreases the activity of the system ...
• Are lipid molecules that have cholesterol as a common precursor A. Steroids B. Amines ...
• Confirmatory test for Acromegaly A. Glucose Suppression Test B. Arginine Stimulation Test C. Insulin Tolerance ...
• They are water insoluble (hydrophobic) and circulate bound to a carrier protein A. Steroids ...
• Gold standard for diagnosing Growth Hormone deficiency A. Insulin Tolerance Test B. Arginine Stimulation Test ...
• Secreted in one location and release into blood circulation; binds to specific receptor to elicit ...
• Secreted in the neurons and released into extracellular space; binds to receptor in nearby cell ...
• Peripheral monodeiodination of T4 produces how much additional T3? A. 25 mg B. 25 mcg ...
• Which of the following inactivates thyroid hormone? A. D1 B. D2 C. D3 D. D4 ...
• Decreased thyroid secretion greatly increases the plasma levels of cholesterol, phospholipids, and triglycerides A. TRUE ...
• Screening test for growth hormone deficiency A. Physical activity test/Exercise B. Insulin Tolerance Test ...
• Synthesized and stored within the cell in the form of secretory granules and are cleaved ...
• Major stimulus of growth hormone secretion A. Sleep B. Somatostatin C. Fasting and High protein ...
• Lack of thyroid hormone during development results in short stature and mental deficits A. Cretinism ...
• Amount of T4 the thyroid secrete per day A. 80 mg B. 80 mcg ...
• Process wherein tyrosine residues are iodinated by iodine A. Organification B. Iodide trapping C. Deiodinization ...
• Transthyretin is also called as A. Pre Albumin B. Thyroxine binding globulin C. Albumin ...
• Increased thyroid hormone decreases the levels of cholesterol, phospholipids, and triglycerides in the plasma, and ...
• A system in which an increased in the product also increased the activity of the ...
• The basal membrane of the thyroid cell has the specific ability to pump the iodide ...
• _________________ artery carries deoxygenated blood. A. aortic B. pulmonary C. renal D. inferior
• In anaerobic respiration the amount of ATP produced overall is A. 2 ATP B. 38 ...
• The process by which food is changed into a form the body can use. ...
• Blood is pumped from the heart to the entire body by A. Aoarta B. Pulmonary ...
• The trachea divides into two smaller tubes called ______. A. ...
• Normal systolic pressure in humans is- A. 80mmHg B. 120mmHg C. 150mmHg D. 40mmHg
• Which life process is shown in the picture? A. Growth ...
• Which of the following structure is where cellular respiration occurs in the cell?
• One of the following is not an enzyme of digestive system. A. PEPSIN B. LIPASE C. TRYPSIN ...
• Name the enzyme present in saliva? A. Pepsin B. Amylase C. Lipase D. Trypsin ...
• A person sweats to keep body temperature at a safe level A. Nutrition B. Digestion ...
• This is referred to as the energy currency of the cell A. ADP B. ATP ...
• It is the site of gaseous exchange in human lungs. A. villi B. alveoli ...
• The action of bile can be termed as: A. Esterification B. Hydrogenation C. Emulsification ...
• Storage form of glucose molecules (C6H12O6) in plant is- A. ...
• The blood leaving the tissues becomes richer in A. Carbon dioxide B. Water C. Heamoglobin ...
• Plants and  animals releases carbon dioxide as a form of ... A. Respiration B. Excretion ...
• The continuous contractions and relaxations of the digestive organs is called A. peristalsis B. photosynthesis ...
• The basic functional unit of human kidney is- A. NEPHRON ...
• What is digestion? A. Breaking down food into molecules usable by cells B. Taking in ...
• In unicellular organisms like amoeba gaseous exchange takes place through the process of ____________. ...
• The molars teeth are use to A. tear food B. cut food C. grind food ...
• What tooth is this? A. premolars B. incisors ...
• There is no harm in sharing your toothbrush with your friend A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• What is the maximum number of teeth in an adult ? A. 34 B. 37 ...
• What is the meaning of Healthy Food? A. food that can harm us B. food ...
• Which food is not good for our teeth A. Fruits B. Vegetables C. Chocolates ...
• Teeth help in A. tasting food B. chewing food C. breathing D. drinking water
• What are front four teeth on each jaw called ? A. Canines B. Molars ...
• Who takes care of our teeth? A. firemen B. dentist C. plumber D. carpenter
• How many types of teeth we have ? A. 4 B. 1 C. 6 ...
• A hole in a tooth is called A. Enamel B. Cavity C. Cementum D. Nerves ...
• The first set of teeth are called ? A. Milk teeth B. Loose teeth ...
• To pump and circulate blood is the work of which organ? A. lungs B. liver ...
• What is the daily value of total fat? A. 8g ...
• Promotes repairing and rebuilding of muscle tissue A. Protein B. vitamins C. minerals D. fats ...
• The body uses this to dissolve and transport materials. A. Fats B. Water C. Minerals ...
• Organic compounds that help our body to work properly. e.g. A, C, B, K, D ...
• How much sodium is in this product? A. 160 mg B. 7% ...
• Elements essential for good health. e.g. Calcium, Iron, Potassium  A. Protein B. Fat C. Minerals ...
• How many calories are in this item? A. 230 ...
• Identify the structure pointed by the arrow A. Left atrium ...
• Which nutrient supplies the most energy per gram?  A. carbohydrates B. fats C. protein ...
• When looking at the heart, which side is the right? A. my right B. my ...
• The purpose of carbohydrates is: A. to provide a layer of insulation for protection. ...
• This nutrient helps in digestion, removes waste, and regulates body temperature. A. Fats B. Water ...
• Which of the following nutrients is important for body, cell, and muscle growth and repair? ...
• The cells in the blood that help fight germs like bacteria and viruses A. ...
• This nutrient makes up 75% of your body: A. water B. vitamin A C. carbohydrates  ...
• How many calories are in this item? A. 230 ...
• The job of the heart is to . . . A. pump blood around the ...
• This nutrient helps keep your bones and teeth strong A. vitamins B. carbohydrates C. Minerals ...
• How many valves are in the heart? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 ...
• The lower chambers of the heart are known as... A. valves B. ventricles C. atria ...
• These cells, in the blood, carry oxygen and give the blood its color.
• Which of the following nutrients provides energy to the body? A. carbohydrates B. vitamins ...
• What is the circulatory system made up of? A. Lungs, ...
• How many types of blood vessels are in our body? A. 1 B. 2 ...
• What is a serving size? A. 2/3 cup ...
• A combatant in Judo is called a karateka A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Maybe ...
• Which of the following is a communicable disease? A. Head ache B. Stomach pains ...
• Swimming can be done in any 9f the following except A. Rivers B. Swimming pool ...
• To win a game in Judo, you must be able to make your opponent fall ...
• Which of these is not a skill in Judo? A. Gripping B. Scoring C. Movement ...
• Which of the following is not a nutritional deficiency disease? A. Strong bones and teeth ...
• Margarine, butter and groundnuts belong to the class of food called A. Minerals B. Vitamins ...
• Which of these class of food provide the body with energy? A. Carbohydrates B. Vitamins ...
• ____________ help us to recover quickly from illness and protect us from sickness. A. Fats ...
• Inadequate diet such as lack of vitamin A mineral in foods can result in a ...
• __________ is a martial arts exercise. A. Judo B. Ludo game C. Distance race ...
• Taking enough sleep everyday can help prevent sicknesses. A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Maybe ...
• The state of not being well is known as A. Sickness B. Wellness C. Hygiene ...
• Scurvy is a disease caused by deficiency 8n A. Vitamin C B. Protein C. Fats ...
• Soft bones in children is caused by a deficiency in A. Proteins B. Fats and ...
• Which of the following is not a cause of sickness? A. Viruses B. Bacteria ...
• __________ insulates us from cold. A. Fats and oil B. Minerals C. Proteins D. Carbohydrates ...
• Kwashiokor is a communicable disease A. FALSE B. TRUE C. Not sure D. Maybe
• What is the function of the muscular system? A. The function is movement of the ...
• How many chambers are in the heart? A. 4 B. 2 C. 6 D. 8 ...
• What are the three main parts of the circulatory system? A. Blood, Heart, and Lungs ...
• Your heart, blood vessels, red blood cells and white blood cells make up your.... ...
• What organ system in the human body is responsible for the intake of oxygen and ...
• What organ system in the human body is responsible for the breakdown of food and ...
• What bone protects the brain? A. Rib Cage B. Skull C. Femur D. Face ...
• What is the largest bone in the body? A. Skull B. Ribs C. Femur ...
• Where is ball and socket joint placed in our body? A. Shoulder B. Knee ...
• What system provides framework and structure for the body? A. Digestive Sysem B. Skeletal System ...
• How many bones are there in an Adult and a Baby's body? A. Adult - ...
• Vertebrae ( SINGLE VERTEBRAE ) is made up of how many bones ? A. 44 ...
• Muscles are only found in the arms and legs A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Which organ pumps blood? A. Kidney B. lungs C. Heart D. Veins
• What is the smallest bone in a human body? A. Radius B. Staples C. Skull ...
• Which of the following describes a diaphragm? A. Primary muscle used in respiration, which is ...
• It refers to a condition that causes shortness of breath, caused by damage in the ...
• Spasmatic contractions of the bronchiole muscles that constrict airways in the lungs during an asthma ...
• What is another name for the windpipe? A. Lungs B. Trachea C. Larynx D. Esophagus ...
• Which of the following structure connects the larynx to the bronchi of the lungs? ...
• Which sequence correctly indicates the branching pattern of the human respiratory system? A. trachea -> ...
• Which of the following statements is not TRUE about COVID-19? A. It can cause respiratory ...
• Which of the following refers to a condition in which your airways narrow and swell ...
• Which of the body produces thick and sticky mucus that can clog the lungs and ...
• Which of the following is an infection causes inflammation in the alveoli due to formation ...
• Which of the following is TRUE about Pleural Effusion? A. Inflammatory disease that affects mostly ...
• A highly contagious bacterial infection cause by the bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It most commonly attacks ...
• These numbers provide critical information (hence the name vital) about a patient's state of health. ...
• The term apnea is a condition in which patients stop breathing for short period during ...
• Your patient has diabetes and you have been treating them for over 20 years. This ...
• A 65 year old woman is present in the ER, C/O SOB. Patient displays visible ...
• Certain situations can cause changes in ones respiration rate. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Preventive Care A. Routine health care that includes screenings, check-ups, and patient counseling to prevent ...
• An indication of how much pressure you blood is exerting against your artery walls when ...
• The act or process of breathing : the inhaling of oxygen and the exhaling of ...
• Recently, you have developed severe Pneumonia, this would be considered which type of condition? ...
• What is the definition of disease? A. Having an illness persisting for a long time ...
• A 48 old male comes to your clinic c/o chest pain and dizziness. Upon observations, ...
• A major artery that carries blood from the heart to the head A. Brachial Artery ...
• A measure of how hot or cold something is; specifically, a measure of the average ...
• The food component present in sugar is _________ A. Fat B. Carbohydrate C. Protein ...
• Deficiency diseases can be prevented by eating balanced diet A. TRUE B. FALSE
• A food sample is taken in a test-tube and a drop of iodine solution was ...
• A person takes more food than his requirement. He is too fat. He may be ...
• Eggs are rich source of A. Vitamin B. Carbohydrate C. Protein D. Water
• Nails, hair are made up of A. Fats B. Proteins
• The energy-giving nutrient is called A. Mineral B. Protein C. Carbohydrate D. Vitamin
• Material required for preapring a dish A. Nutrients B. Substance C. Ingredients D. Minerals
• The disease caused by deficiency of nutrients is called A. Infectious disease B. Deficiency disease ...
• _____ Is a bodybuilding nutrient A. Proteins B. Carbohydrates
• The essential components of our food are called ______ A. Fats B. Nutrients C. Minerals ...
• The most common argument in support of using genetic engineering is? A. Preventing disease ...
• What is the theory about Yao Ming, the Chinese basketball player, that he disagrees with? ...
• desecration A. develop or grow B. an action that causes others to be angry ...
• displace A. a threat or danger B. forced to move homes, usually because of war ...
• What is the part of the cell that scientists are interested in modifying? A. Nucleolus ...
• augmentation A. break B. refresh C. renew D. upgrade
• modify A. prevent bad things from happening B. throw away C. change D. not predicted ...
• eugenics A. theory to try to eliminate disease B. theory to try to improve a ...
• regularly A. constant pattern B. every week C. every month D. randomly
• What is censorship? A. controlling diet B. controlling communication C. controlling politics D. controlling newspapers ...
• incite A. dead B. not religious or spiritual C. reduce D. encourage or start some ...
• In Bangladesh, many religious militants celebrated killings on : A. Twitter B. Facebook C. Discord ...
• India believes that _______________ should censor their content: A. the government B. ISIS C. social ...
• What is a central reason that China has become so competitive in terms of educating ...
• implications A. consequences B. raise a child C. guess D. how weak you are to ...
• Internet theories that the South Korean government didn't like were: A. South Korea planted mines ...
• Most people disagree that: A. We should genetically modify babies to reduce the risk of ...
• If someone in your family has had Cancer in the past you have what doctors ...
• Using drugs or medicines to destroy cancer cells. A. chemotherapy B. radiation therapy C. cancer ...
• Which type of tumor is being described: Slow growing Not dangerous Does not spread ...
• What is a mutation? A. A mistake in DNA which can lead to cancer ...
• Which type of tumor is being described below: Spreads Dangerous Grows quickly A. Benign ...
• What is a mutation? A. A mistake in DNA which can lead to cancer ...
• The diploid chromosome compliment of human somatic cell consists of how many chromosomes? A. 14 ...
• Metastasis is A. the spread of cancer from one part of the body to another. ...
• Cancer creates abnormal cells by disrupting A. the cell cycle B. red blood cell formation ...
• Which of the following can lead to uncontrolled cell growth (cancer)?  A. Proto-oncogene  B. Oncogene ...
• Cancer is caused due to A. Controlled mitosis B. Uncontrolled mitosis C. Controlled meiosis ...
• Which of the following is a way that your body defends itself against cancer? ...
• Activities or choices that will affect your health. A. lifestyle factors B. biogenetics C. healthy ...
• A benign tumor differs from a malignant tumor in that a benign tumor A. is ...
• In situ breast cancer refers to A. cancer that has spread throughout the body ...
• A mammogram is a A. x-ray of breast tissue B. a surgery to remove tumors ...
• An abnormal mass of cancer cells is called a  A. tumor B. cyst C. lesion ...
• Any substance that is known to cause cancer is called a A. carcinogen B. nicolyte ...
• A diagnostic procedure that involves removing a tissue sample from a patient. A. biopsy ...
• The cell cycle control system A. receives messages from the outside of the cell that ...
• ........... has performed experiments to support the third principle of the Cell theory. A. Louis ...
• It refers to the maintenance of a constant internal environment. For example, an organism may ...
• The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is an extensive network of tubules or channels that extends most ...
• Prokaryotic cells divide by a very simple process called .........?...... .
• What kind of cell is in the picture? A. Plant ...
• It is the science that studies the cell. A. Cytology B. Genetics C. Bacteriology ...
• What is the function of the VACULOES? A. They produce ...
• It is an isolated region where the DNA resides in eukaryotic cells. It is bordered ...
• Who first described cells in 1665 ? A. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek B. Louis Pasteur ...
• It is the unique cell organelle in prokaryotes and synthesizes Protein.
• It occurs only in algae and plant cells. It contains a double membrane and is ...
• it consists of a pair of centrioles at right angles to one another. These centrioles ...
• These cell organelles are sacs bounded by a single membrane that contain as many as ...
• Which of the following is Not a principle of cell theory? A. all cells come ...
• Which one is an example for a prokaryotic cell? A. Fungi cell B. Animal cel ...
• There are populations of cells within organisms that retain their ability to divide and differentiate ...
• It produces Energy (ATP) for the eukaryotic cells. Which cell organelle is on the ...
• What type of water should you use to wash your hands? A. Cold water ...
• What is the name of this bacteria? A. Bacillus ...
• Following simple medical equipment to avoid yourself from a virus attack ... A. Syringe, thermometer, ...
• What bacteria is rod shaped and moves by sliding forward? A. Bacillus B. Coccus ...
• Identify the microbe? A. bacteria B. virus ...
• What is the name of pandemic in this time A. Corona B. Thypoid C. Pest ...
• What shape is bacteria? A. Round B. Straight C. Twisted D. All of these
• What is the type of covid-19 in classification A. Fungi B. Bacterial C. Virus ...
• What makes fungi different from plants? A. Their chloroplasts are located on the cap rather ...
• What has a flagella, and get their food by either going through photosynthesis OR hunting ...
• What is the name of this bacteria? A. Bacillus ...
• What can yeast be used for? A. Making eggs B. Wax for candles C. Making ...
• The study of covid-19 is ... A. Pathology B. Morphology C. Virology D. Bacteriology
• 4th line agent of eczema A. Biologicals B. Prednisolone C. Phototherapy D. Dexamethasone
• Identify the clinical signs of Atopic eczema A. Palmar hyperlinearity ...
• True or false: Wet wrap method helps in relieving eczema and persisting topical agents ...
• Adjuvant therapy of eczema includes Except A. Phototherapy B. Antibiotics C. Antihistamine D. MTX
• True or false: The irritant contact dermatitis is not related to immunological mechanism A. TRUE ...
• Duration of corticosteroid therapy for eczema A. 2 weeks B. 1 month C. Lifelong ...
• Patient with Discoid eczema lesions are looks like A. Coin shaped B. Malar C. Coil ...
• Identify the clinical manifestation of eczema A. Ichthysosis ...
• First line agent of eczema A. Topical calcineurin inhibitors B. Corticosteroid C. Emollients D. MTX ...
• Identify the eczema type A. Stasis eczema B. ...
• Venous insufficiency can leads to A. Atopic dermatitis B. Statsis eczema C. Discoid eczema ...
• Mandatory diagnostic criterion of Atopic dermatitis according to United Kingdom working party A. Hyperparakeratosis ...
• What is the acronym for stroke symptoms? A. FAST B. FIND C. FATE D. FEAR ...
• During endovascular thrombectomy blood clot is A. removed B. dissolved
• What fraction of people will experience a stroke at some point in their lives ...
• How often a heart attack occurs in the world? A. every 2 seconds B. every ...
• What is the first line of stroke treatment A. giving TPA B. endovascular thrombectomy
• What is a ischemic stroke? A. it occurs when the blood supply is stopped because ...
• How many percent of your body weight is the brain? A. 2% B. 4% ...
• Which arteries supply the front of the brain? A. carotid arteries B. vertebral arteries
• How much percentage of oxygen does the brain consume? A. 20% B. 10% C. 15% ...
• During endovascular thrombectomy doctor insert catheter into: A. artery in in the leg B. artery ...
• Which word does not represent the letter of the FAST abbreviation? A. Fast B. Arteries ...
• What procedure doctors perform when TPA cannot be given? A. thrombolytic therapy B. endovascular thrombectomy ...
• What is a hemorrhagic stroke? A. when a perforated vessel allows blood to leak out ...
• Which symptom is not a typical stroke symptom A. Facial drooping B. not crooked mouth ...
• One of the unique things about the stratum basale layer of the epidermis is ...
• True or False: The brain is the largest organ in the body. A. TRUE ...
• What layer of skin connects to muscle and bone? A. callus B. epidermis C. dermis ...
• What is the oily substance that protects the skin against water called? A. seaweed ...
• The layer of the dermis that houses the nerve endings which provide the body with ...
• What layer is represented by letter B? A. Stratum Corneum ...
• What is the oily substance that protects the skin against water called? A. seaweed ...
• The stratum germinativum is composed of several layers with special cells that produce a dark ...
• Which of the following does NOT cause acne? A. bacteria in the pores B. eating ...
• The dermis layer is made up of two layers, which are the: A. papillary and ...
• First degree burns are not very serious because they only affect... A. the epidermis. ...
• The epidermis layer of the skin is also known as the: A. dermis layer ...
• The deeper layer of the dermis that supplies the skin with oxygen and nutrients is ...
• Fatty tissue found below the dermis is: A. papillae B. papillary layer C. tactile  ...
• The top of the papillary layer where it joins the epidermis is the:  A. epidermal-dermal ...
• The largest organ of the human body is the: A. liver B. skin C. lungs ...
• Which is NOT a function of the skin? A. Insulation B. Movement C. Excretion ...
• The coloring in the skin; found in the epidermis. A. Melanin B. Oil C. Perspiration ...
• Which of the following is NOT a type of acne? A. whitehead B. blackhead ...
• a structure out of which strands of hair grow A. Follicles B. Pores C. Head ...
• What layer of skin senses pain? A. callus B. epidermis C. dermis D. hypodermis
• The clear, transparent layer just under the stratum corneum that consists of small cells through ...
• flat and scale like - make up most of the cells in the outer layer ...
• What layer of skin senses pain? A. callus B. epidermis C. dermis D. hypodermis
• The tiny grains of pigment deposited in cells that provide skin with its color are:  ...
• What is the top layer of skin called? A. callus B. epidermis C. dermis ...
• What is the integumentary system made up of? A. skin, nails, and hair B. ribs, ...
• What is the top layer of skin called? A. callus B. epidermis C. dermis ...
• What are the basic functions of the Integumentary system? A. protection, regulation of body temperature, ...
• These structures are considered part of the DERMIS LAYER - the middle layer of your ...
• The outermost and thinnest layer of the skin is the: A. surface B. epidermis ...
• The layer of skin that we see and is treated by the practitioner is the: ...
• Because Ms. Robinson rock climbs and applies friction to her hands frequently, she has... ...
• The underlying or inner layer of the skin, which is also called the derma corium, ...
• The deepest layer of the epidermis, the basal cell layer, is also known as the:  ...
• The medical branch of science that deals with the study of the skin, its functions ...
• The sweat gland that produces sticky sweat is the A. Apocrine gland B. Eccrine gland ...
• What is the name of tube that our hair grows from? A. Follicle B. Root ...
• The deepest layer of the epidermis, the basal cell layer, is also known as the:  ...
• This type of Skin Cancer is the most dangerous A. Basal Cell Carcinoma B. Squamous ...
• The medical branch of science that deals with the study of the skin, its functions ...
• All of the following are appendages of the skin EXCEPT? A. pineal gland B. nails ...
• What causes acne? A. clogged sebaceous glands B. clogged apocrine glands C. clogged merocrine glands ...
• Auto-immune disease where the body attacks it's own tissues and forms scar tissue on the ...
• Condition where melanin is destroyed and white patches appear in dark skin tone areas. ...
• The dermis layer is made up of two layers, which are the: A. papillary and ...
• Noncontagious skin disease, may be hereditary, thick red area covered with white or silver scales ...
• The surface of healthy skin is slightly? A. yellow ...
• Oil glands that are connected to hair follicles are also called?
• Which layer contains accessory structures such as sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and hair follicles? ...
• The tiny grains of pigment deposited in cells that provide skin with its color are? ...
• Which of the following drugs does not cause hypoglycemia? A. Glipizide B. Acarbose C. Insulin ...
• A 45-year-old female was started on Alendronate for osteoporosis and was advised to take large ...
• Aldosterone is known to cause sodium retention. The Na+ retaining action is exerted on which ...
• A 26-year-old female with thyrotoxicosis is planning to undergo a hemithyroidectomy. Before surgery the size ...
• Which of the following anti-diabetic drugs can cause Vitamin B12 deficiency? A. Glipizide B. Acarbose ...
• A 23-year-old woman desires a combined oral contraceptive for preventing pregnancy. Which of the following ...
• 5-α reductase mediated conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone is not required for which of the ...
• Which of the following is a Selective Progesterone Receptor Modulator (SPRM)? A. Mifespristone B. Ulipristal ...
• A patient is receiving Insulin & Acarbose for diabetes & develops hypoglycemia. Which of the ...
• In the treatment of hypothyroidism, thyroxine is preferred over liothyronine because thyroxine is A. faster ...
• The most common adverse effect of Dapagliflozin is A. Fournier's gangrene B. Urinary tract infection ...
• The drug of choice for the treatment of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy is A. Methimazole ...
• A 7-year-old boy was prescribed testosterone therapy that is to be continued till puberty. This ...
• Continuous adminstration of a GnRH agonist causes A. Increased secretion of FSH & LH ...
• The antithyroid drug with fastest onset of action is A. Methimazole B. I131 C. Propylthiouracil ...
• A patient with hypothyroidism has been started on Thyroxine. Which of the following tests is ...
• A 47-year-old male exhibited signs & symptoms of acromegaly. Radiologic studies revealed the presence of ...
• Which of the following is true of adrenal suppression due to steroid therapy? A. It ...
• Prolactin secretion is controlled by A. Serotonin B. Dopamine C. Noradrenaline D. GABA
• Which of the following is not used in the treatment of prostate cancer? A. Finasteride ...
• All of the following are tocolytics except A. Ritodrine B. Nifedipine C. Isoxsuprine D. Carboprost ...
• Steroids are contraindicated in which of the following forms of tuberculosis? A. Meningeal B. Pericardial ...
• A 24-year-old female with amenorrhoea, infertility & galactorrhoea was treated with a drug that successfully ...
• Which of the following is the longest acting insulin? A. Lispro B. Aspart C. Glargine ...
• Pegvisomant is useful in A. Dwarfism B. Acromegaly C. Grave's disease D. Crohn's disease
• All are used in the treatment of hot flushes except A. Tamoxifen B. Venlafaxine ...
• Which of the following is not an indication for the use of Bromocriptine? A. Stimulation ...
• Which of the following drugs used in the treatment of Cushing's sydrome acts by inhibiting ...
• Which of the following is an Oxytocin antagonist A. Ritodrine B. Atosiban C. Gemeprost ...
• Conversion of T4 to T3 is inhibited by all except A. Propranolol B. Propylthiouracil ...
• The estrogen that is used most commonly in Oral Contraceptive Pills is A. Clomiphene ...
• Which of the following Oral Hypoglycemic agents acts by preventing absorption of glucose from small ...
• The important difference between Leuprolide & Ganirelix is that Leuprolide A. Can be given orally ...
• Glucocorticoids have proved useful in the treatment of A. Chemotherapy induced nausea & vomiting ...
• Which of the following is approved for use in Type 1 diabetes A. Exenatide ...
• Naferelin is a A. GnRH analog B. GnRH antagonist C. GH analogue D. GH antagonist ...
• Which of the following patients is likely to be treated with IV Glucagon? A. A ...
• All of the statements are true about Exenatide except A. It is a GLP-1 analogue ...
• Which of the following has an intracellular receptor? A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Coritcosteroid ...
• The only indication where triiodothyronine is preferred over thyroxine is A. Endemic goiter B. Cretinism ...
• Protein can be divided into two types. Which type does the food in the diagram ...
• What is the end product of the food shown in the figure?
• Which of the following minerals help in strengthening the bones and teeth of a human? ...
• Faiqah is diagnosed with anaemia when she was a baby. As a dietician, what would ...
• Arman would like to host a birthday party for his sister who is highly concerned ...
• Food pyramid guides us on the energy content of the food. Which food class will ...
• Which of the following components build up protein? A. carbon, hydrogen and oxygen B. fatty ...
• The valves between left auricle and left ventricle is called A. Tricuspid valves B. Septum ...
• In fish, the blood that leaves the heart will travel to which part of the ...
• How many chambers does the heart consist of? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 ...
• The bottom part of the heart is divided into two chambers called what? A. Ventricles ...
• Oxygenated blood and deoxygenated blood of amphibians are mixed together in the heart. A. TRUE ...
• A fish's heart has ___ chambers. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
• What is the purpose of blood circulatory system in vertebrates? A. digest nutrients B. transmit ...
• Name part N. A. Right atrium B. left ...
• The upper part of the heart is made up of two chambers called what? ...
• Structure(s) that keep the blood flowing in one direction. A. Valve(s) B. Septum(s) C. Neuron(s) ...
• The left side of heart comprises of deoxygenated blood A. TRUE B. FALSE
• This blood vessel has valves to prevent the back flow of blood.  A. veins ...
• How many chambers in the heart of an amphibian? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 ...
• Identify A. Left atrium B. Right atrium ...
• Carbon dioxide is considered a _________________ A. food B. waste C. energy D. fun party ...
• How many chambers in the amphibians' heart? A. one B. two C. three D. four ...
• What does Deoxygenated mean? A. Oxygen-rich B. Blood ...
• Values are A. Important and lasting beliefs. B. Goals you have for yourself. C. Things ...
• How would you reduce stress? A. Read a book B. Go for a walk ...
• What is the definition of Wellness? A. Combination of physical, mental/emotional and social wellbeing. ...
• Teens often give in to peer pressure because they... A. are afraid of someone ...
• Moderate levels of stress can increase concentration A. TRUE B. FALSE
• During this pandemic, what are 3 actions we are responsible of doing to prevent the ...
• How can you describe physical health? A. Our interaction with others B. How we think ...
• How can stress affect your health? A. stomachaches B. asthma C. headaches D. lower resistance ...
• Is all peer pressure negative? A. Yes B. No
• What is an unhealthy way to manage stress? A. Start destructive behavior. B. Talk to ...
• Why do 14-year-olds face more peer pressure than 8-year-olds? A. 8-year-olds don't have groups of ...
• Mindful or Unmindful You stop to notice the little things in life, like the ...
• How can we describe social health? A. Condition of our body B. How we relate ...
• An example of mental/emotional health... A. Managing stress B. Getting 8-10 hours of sleep ...
• Resilience is... A. focusing on the negative and expecting the worst B. the ability to ...
• What is positive stress?  A. A type of stress that is not THAT bad ...
• When you are under pressure you should... A. Stay Calm & Be Confident B. Make ...
• Are you being responsible when you turn in your COMPLETED assignment AFTER the due date? ...
• When you change how you THINK about stress, you can change the way your body ...
• People react differently to stress. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What is the definition of 'Responsibility'? A. The ability to understand and share the feelings ...
• What is mental/emotional health? A. How we relate to others B. The condition of our ...
• Responsibility is being accountable for your.... A. Actions. B. Decisions. C. Behaviour. D. All of ...
• Peer Pressure can be... A. Positive B. Negative C. Neither D.  Postive or Negative ...
• Your friends want you to go to a party where no parents will be supervising. ...
• What are refusal skills? A.  ways that you can refuse or say no when you ...
• Which one of these people best fits your group of peers? A. Your baby sister ...
• Mindfulness can be practiced anywhere A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What is another name for Peer Pressure? A. Manipulation B. Aggressive Behavior C. Circle of ...
• You should pick your best friends based on: A. How long they've attended school with ...
• If the height of the P wave is X, then the height of the R ...
• Which wave detection is used to differentiate between a Sinus Rhythm and a Supraventricular Rhythm? ...
• A model of the normal QRS complex, called ___________ A. a) ECG model B. b) ...
• The heart rate is computed by averaging the most recent _________________ A. a) 12 P ...
• Which of the following quantities are sensitive to electromechanical flow meters? A. a) Viscosity ...
• nterruption or interference with normal physiological and developmental processes or structures is called _________ ...
• Who gave the ST/AR algorithm in 1999? A. a) Hewlett Packard B. b) Jen and ...
• What should be CMRR of preamplifier upto 5 Khz? A. a) 10 dB B. b) ...
• he area of the P wave is ______ wide and ends ______ before the R ...
• In order to detect the QRS, the detection threshold is kept as ________ to prevent ...
• What is used to display EMG waveforms? A. a) Cathode Ray Oscilloscope B. b) Analog ...
• Electromechanical system can be used for measuring vibration. A. a) True B. b) False
• n artificial limb, a sensory substitution system, or an augmentative communication aid is prosthetic devices ...
• For how much time period, the weighting factors are updated to allow for quick adaptation ...
• Which of the following is not a soft tissue? A. a) ligament B. b) bone ...
• What is the typical range of EMG signals? A. a) 0.025 to 0.050 mV ...
• Which of the following is used for measuring emf between plates of transducers? A. a) ...
• Whose measurements are important for myoelectric control of prosthetic devices? A. a) VCG B. b) ...
• Aesthetics of appearance is called ____________ A. a) orthosis B. b) cosmesis C. c) lymphosis ...
• EMG instrument contain frequency component extending up to ____________ Khz. A. a) 1 B. b) ...
• Which of the following instrument is used for recording the electrical activity of the muscles? ...
• What is the value of the refractory period from the previously identified QRS complex? ...
• EMG is recorded by using surface electrodes. A. a) True B. b) False
• Electrodynamic vibration transducers are based on _____________ A. a) Magnetostriction B. b) Electromagnetic induction ...
• Which of the following can be measured using tachometers? A. a) Angular speed B. b) ...
• Liver affected by fatty change is characterized by A. Shows signet ring cells B. Shows ...
• Fibrinoid necrosis is seen in A. Lung infarction B. Cerebral infarction C. Pulmonary tuberculosis ...
• Enzymatic fat necrosis is characteristic of A. Tuberculous peritonitis B. Pyogenic abscess C. Acute hemorrhagic ...
• A skin biopsy from an anorexic 16-year-old girl showed cellular atrophy. During atrophy A. The ...
• A 65-year-old man suffered a massive myocardial infarction that was complicated by shock and prolonged ...
• which of the following is a reversible change A. karyorrhexis B. pyknosis C. karyolysis ...
• Irreversible cell injury includes A. Necrosis B. Cloudy swelling C. Hydropic swelling D. Fatty change ...
• Cloudy swelling is characterized by A. Cloudy swelling is characterized by B. Irreversible injury ...
• localized area of ischemic necrosis is mostly associated with A. ascites B. petechiae C. infraction ...
• The major mechanism of plasma membrane damage in ischaemia is A. . Reduced aerobic respiration ...
• Type of necrosis present in tuberculosis A. Fat necrosis B. Coagulative necrosis C. Caseous necrosis ...
• Influx of which of the following ions plays a major role in irreversible cell injury ...
• Enzymatic fat necrosis is characteristic of A. Acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis B. Tuberculous peritonitis ...
• Apoptosis is brought by a group of enzymes called A. Lipases B. Proteases C. Caspases ...
• Coagulative necrosis is involved in A. Cerebral infarction B. Acute pancreatitis C. Renal infarction ...
• Cell death is a sign of A. General response to cellular stress B. Irreversible cell ...
• In hypoxic cell injury, cell swelling occurs because of increased intracellular A. lipid B. lipid ...
• Regarding apoptosis, which of the following is FALSE? A. It is the responsible for programmed ...
• 55-year-old man with history of uncontrolled diabetes and hypertension presented to the emergency department with ...
• An incomplete glucose metabolism produces what type of acid? A. ketoacids B. carbonic acid ...
• Your body is compensating by excreting HCO3- out from the body. What is the condition ...
• A serum pH of more than 7.45 is considered: A. Acidic B. Alkalinic
• What is the condition when you compensate by hyperventilating? A. Respiratory Acidosis B. Metabolic Acidosis ...
• What is the primary goal for a patient with ARDS? A. increase respiratory rate ...
• The nurse suspects respiratory failure secondary to hypoventilation in a patient with which condition? ...
• The main pathology in respiratory acidosis is A. a) Increase in bicarbonate concentration. B. b) ...
• Your body is compensating by excreting HCO3- out from the body. What is the condition ...
• The main compensatory mechanism in respiratory alkalosis is A. a) Retention of CO2. B. b) ...
• What is the body's compensation when having Respiratory Acidosis? A. The kidney's excretes HCO3- ...
• The respiratory system compensates for changes in the pH level by responding to changes in ...
• What is the major cause of metabolic acidosis? A. hyperventilation B. hypoventilation C. ketoacidosis ...
• The patient whose blood that is most alkalotic would be the one with a pH ...
• You are reviewing the results of an ABG. When the pH and the PaCO2 values ...
• Refers to the pathologic process causing a relative excess of acid in the body ...
• A student is nervous for a big exam and is breathing rapidly, what do you ...
• Which condition manifest with hypoventilation? A. Respiratory acidosis B. respiratory alkalosis C. metabolic acidosis ...
• This is a condition where there is loss of acid and lungs excrete excessive amounts ...
• The normal pH range for blood is: A. 7.0 - 7.25 B. 7.30 - 7.40 ...
• What Acid-Base imbalance condition is usually from hyperventilation? A. Respiratory acidosis B. Respiratory alkalosis ...
• What term describes making lots of the same type of cell? A. Clonal lymphocytes ...
• What type of bacteria is this? A. Gram Positive B. Gram Negative
• What is the name of the area marked A? A. Variable region B. Constant region ...
• What is the name of the area marked C? A. Variable region B. Constant region ...
• The active stage of a virus's life cycle is called the... A. Lysogenic phase ...
• Once a macrophage engulfs a pathogen, it can become what type of cell? A. Antibody ...
• Creating your own antibodies following vaccination is what type of immunity? A. Passive natural ...
• Which number shows the lag phase? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
• What cell is most responsible for the response seen at stage 4? A. Memory Cells ...
• The chemical markers on the surfaces of cells are called... A. Antibodies B. Antigens ...
• What type of bacteria is this? A. Gram positive B. Gram negative
• Receiving antibodies via the placenta or breast milk is what type of immunity? A. Passive ...
• What type of cell produces antibodies? A. T Killer B. Memory Cell C. Plasma Cell ...
• Creating your own antibodies following infection is what type of immunity? A. Passive natural ...
• Which number shows the response following the second infection of pathogen A? A. 1 ...
• Which number shows the time when most of pathogen A has been killed? A. 1 ...
• What is the name of the area marked B? A. Variable region B. Constant region ...
• How could you describe the individual with relation to pathogen A at stage 4? ...
• Which type of antibiotic kills bacteria? A. Bacteriostatic B. Bactericidal C. Pathogenic D. Antigenic
• Endemic means... A. A significant increase in the numbers of infections in one location ...
• What is the name of the area marked D? A. Variable region B. Constant region ...
• A vector is... A. A sudden and significant increase in the prevalence of a disease. ...
• What term describes how antibodies are able to bind to multiple antigens? A. Termination ...
• If the trachea and esophagus were completely separate in humans, which of the following would ...
• Which structure initiates a heartbeat? A. AV node B. SA node C. left ventricle ...
• Which of the following bring blood into the right atrium A. aorta B. pulmonary artery ...
• Two muscular structures control air pressure inside the lungs. Changes in air pressure cause air ...
• Which structure prevents the backflow of blood from the ventricles to the atria? A. AV ...
• The voice box is also known as the A. pharynx B. larynx C. epiglottis ...
• Which of the following is required from a terrestrial mammals respiratory system? A. thin permeable ...
• Inhaled air passes through which of the following structures last? A. bronchus B. trachea ...
• Blood is a type of A. connective tissue B. epithelial tissue C. vascular tissue ...
• Which of the following transport oxygen in humans A. hemoglobin B. melanin C. keratin ...
• Two thin membranes surround the lungs. What are these membranes called? A. pericardial membranes ...
• A heart attack will result from the lack of nutrients and oxygen of the heart ...
• What is the term for the area at the back of the throat that is ...
• What causes the semilunar valves to open? A. contraction of the ventricles B. contraction of ...
• Which of the following initiate the blood clotting process? A. red blood cells B. plasma ...
• Mammals have a _____________ chambered heart. The top two chambers are called ________________. A. 3; ...
• Which of the following is a correct match? A. superior vena cava; oxygenated blood ...
• Anemia can result from A. an iron-rich diet B. an increase in red blood cell ...
• The lub, or first heart sound , is produced by the closing of ...
• Which of the following occurs during diastole? A. The atria fill with blood B. Blood ...
• Which of the below structures acts to convert sound waves to vibrations? A. cochlea ...
• The malleus, incus, and stapes are collectively called the A. maculae B. otoliths C. semicircular ...
• What is the importance of ear wax? A. Collects dust and dirt B. Help the ...
• What is in the Semi-Circular canals? A. Cilia (Tiny Hairs) B. Liquid C. Thin Skin ...
• What shouldn't you do to help in the classroom for a student with a hearing ...
• Hearing Impairment can be assessed using A. Loud speaker B. Drums C. Tuning Forks
• Which of the following is NOT in the INNER ear? A. Cochlea B. Semicircular canals ...
• Which of the following locations and receptors are correct for DYNAMIC EQUILIBRIUM? A. Vestibule, Maculae, ...
• The impulse is generated and is transmitted to the temporal lobe when what happens? ...
• The damage in transmission of impulses through auditory nerve will lead to A. Conductive Hearing ...
• What is the function of the ridges on your outer ear? A. They prevent germs ...
• If your inner ear lacked nerve fibers, what might happen? A. Sound would be unable ...
• An adult will be consider as having Hearing impairment if he cant hear the sound ...
• Symptoms of Speech impairment is A. Being dumb B. Being deaf C. Stuttering D. Speaking ...
• Conductive Hearing loss A. can not be treated B. can be treated using surgery/Medication ...
• Hearing Impairment, according to IDEA is A. is a decreased ability to see to a ...
• What turns the sound waves into neural signals ? A. Cochlea B. The movement of ...
• Where is the tympanic membrane located? A. The Outer ear B. The Inner Ear ...
• Which of the following is NOT in the OUTER EAR? A. Auricle B. Eustachian tube ...
• Which of the following is NOT in the MIDDLE EAR? A. Auricle B. Eustachian tube ...
• Voice Disorders were due to the problem in A. Tongue B. Ear C. Larynx ...
• What comprehend the neural signals A. Our Nerves B. The cochlea C. The ears ...
• Constant ringing in the ears A. Tinnitus B. Vertigo C. Sensorineural Hearing Loss D. Conductive ...
• Small hair cells detect A. High Pitch B. Low Pitch C. rolling Otoliths D. dynamic ...
• Chelsea, a student with a mild hearing loss, often has difficulty following the teacher’s directions ...
• Which of the following is a characteristic hearing impairment? A. Dimentia B. Mixed hearing ...
• Hearing loss due to damaged Cochlea or nerve? A. Conductive Hearing Loss B. Sensorineural Hearing ...
• What do the sound waves vibrate? A. Ear canal, eardrum, ossicles B. Ossicles, Eardrum ...
• Where is the Eustachian Tube connected to? A. The back of the head B. The ...
• Which is profound hearing loss? A. Over 80 dB B. 26-40 dB C. 61-80 dB ...
• If a student uses tactile or auditory resources as their primary channel of learning, he ...
• A visual impairment that interferes with the ability to perform daily activities and in which ...
• Campimetry techniques are used to measure A. Visual acuity B. Visual field C. The two ...
• Cataract affects................................ A. cor nea B. retina C. lens D. optic nerve
• The surgery done to treat glaucoma is..................... A. keratoplasty B. iridotomy C. occuloplasty D. gonioscopy ...
• True or False: Intellectual capabilities are similar to those of their sighted peers A. TRUE ...
• What is complete blindness? A. Legal blindness B. Partially blind C. Blind at one eye ...
• Name of the eye test chart is called? A. None ...
• Which acuity is considered near total blindness? A. 20/30 to 20/60 B. 20/70 to 20/160 ...
• A visual acuity of 20/200 or less in the better eye with correction or a ...
• What is clouding in the Lens of the eye? A. Short sightedess B. Long sightedness ...
• The deficiency of vitamin........... can result in blindness A. A B. B C. C ...
• What is the definition for low vision? A. visual acuity is 20/70 or poorer in ...
• The iris is responsible for... A. filtering light that enters the eye. B. defining color. ...
• What is low vision? A. Can read by being close B. Partially blind C. None ...
• The vision impairment in glaucoma occurs due to damage to.............. A. iris B. lens ...
• Hiddendigit test forms the basis for test for........ A. near vision B. farvision C. astigmatism ...
• What is chromatopsia? A. hearing impairment B. causes colorblindness C. visual impairment
• What is a visual impairment? A. a problem with or damage to one or more ...
• The process by which the vertebrate eye changes optical power to maintain a clear image ...
• Which eye condition is described: a condition of increased pressure within the eyeball, causing gradual ...
• It is recommended that children with nistagmus are: A. allowed to adopt the position needed ...
• Instructional Strategies for students with VI include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Classroom organization ...
• The transplantation of cornea is called.......... A. corneoplasty B. keratectomy C. keratoplasty D. gonioscpy
• A person who can perceive at 6 meters a stimuli that people without visual impairments ...
• An educational description when the primary channel of learning is through tactile and auditory means ...
• Visual impairment directly influences development and learning in each of the following areas EXCEPT: ...
• Arteriovenous fistula ( AVF ) maturity can be assessed by A. jerking of venous line ...
• The management of air embolism during hemodialysis is A. stop dialysis B. return blood to ...
• The advantages of sequential ultrafiltration are A. alter organ function B. no removal of electrolytes ...
• An air detector is attached to the extra corporeal circuit to detect the presence of ...
• Frequency of microbial testing for a newly installed water treatment system are A. daily ...
• Diffusion is increase in hemodialysis by A. high blood flow rate B. low calcium dialysate ...
• Client on injection erythropoietin should closely be monitored for A. hypotension B. haemorrhage C. flu ...
• The purpose of priming the extracorporeal circuit with saline during set up is to ...
• Post dialysis blood sampling procedure as in blood sampling for KT/V measurement A. ensure 4 ...
• Rotating needling sites during cannulation is important to prevent: A. stenosis B. infiltration C. aneurysm ...
• The criteria to achieves dry weight include A. target HB 11 to12 gm B. can ...
• Factors favouring clotting of the extracorporeal circuit is A. high blood flow B. low hematocrit ...
• Dialysis Disequilibrium Synsdrome can be prevented by A. slow gentle dialysis B. using of highlux ...
• Mr. T’s undergoing haemodialysis, his haemoglobin was 15 g/dl. He has a high risk of ...
• During hemodialysis, Ultrafiltration occurs when A. fluid inside the cell is shifted B. surface area ...
• The visual sign of haemolysis in the extracorporeal circuit during hemodialysis include A. extremely bright ...
• When assessing a fistula, the following need to be felt prior to starting dialysis ...
• What pathogen causes the common cold? A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Fungi D. Protista
• Following a vaccination, the white cells produce . . . A. antibiotics B. antibodies ...
• A vaccination A. Is a type of white blood cell that eats bacteria B. Protects ...
• What do memory cells do? A. Kills the virus B. Eats the virus C. Patrol ...
• What is the best definition of antibodies? A. antibiotics that help you when you are ...
• Which one is a way the body defends against a pathogen? A. Fever B. Stomach ...
• What is the scientific term for spreading a disease? A. Passing B. Catching C. Transmitting ...
• Active immunity lasts for a ____________ time. Passive immunity lasts for a ___________ time. ...
• __________ immunity is when the bodies makes its own antibodies. A. passive B. active ...
• Skin protects a person from pathogens by _______________. A. being thin and easy to allow ...
• First line defenses include A. skin B. hair C. mucus D. all of the above ...
• Doctors sometimes use a vaccine to prepare the body to defend itself against future infections. ...
• Bacteria are smaller than viruses. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• An infectious disease from an animal passed to a human that causes illness is a ...
• Disease causing agents such as bacteria and viruses are called _______________. A. pathogens B. antibodies ...
• A toxin or other foreign substance which creates an immune response and the production of ...
• Cholera is spread through A. polluted air B. contaminated food and water C. insect bites ...
• Active immunity is when A. You produce your own antibodies to a disease B. You ...
• Anything that triggers an immune response is a/n A. lymph cell B. antigen C. antibody ...
• Name this process A. eating B. ...
• Antibiotics do not work on  A. bacteria B. viruses C. fungi D. children
• What is the primary function of your immune system? A. to create organelles B. to ...
• What do we call a disease that can spread between living things in close contact? ...
• Viruses are A. easily killed B. ...
• What type of disease pattern spreads rapidly over countries and continents? A. Outbreak B. Pandemic ...
• A living cell that a virus infects is called a ________ cell. A. mast ...
• TRUE or FALSE. When child B is administered these vaccines, child B will form ...
• Y shaped proteins that may mark pathogens for destruction are A. antigens B. T cells ...
• Most bacterial diseases can be treated with _______________. A. antibiotics B. carcinogens C. pathogens ...
• Name the system that will directly respond to these vaccines.
• Passive immunity is when A. You produce your own antibodies to a disease B. You ...
• Which is an example of passive immunity? A. people being vaccinated against disease B. people ...
• A new vaccine was developed and then tested on a large sample of individuals. This ...
• Controls what enters/leaves a cell A. cell membrane B. Nuclear membrane C. cell wall ...
• Identify: A. Simple squamous B. Stratified squamous ...
• Epithelium with more than one layer of cells A. Stratified epithelium B. Simple epithelium
• Where would you find simple squamous epithelium in the body? A. Alveoli (Air Sacs in ...
• Used in places needing protection from scrapes and abrasions such as the skin and esophagus ...
• What type of cell has a nucleus?  A. eukaryotic B. prokaryotic 
• Identify: A. Smooth Muscle B. Columnar ...
• Which of the following is not one of the four tissue types?  A. Blood ...
• The study of tissue is called _______. A. Epidemiology B. Histology C. Cardiology D. Osteology ...
• Identify: A. Simple Columnar B. Simple Cuboidal ...
• Where is epithelial tissue found? A. glands B. covering body surfaces C. lines organs ...
• control, read, and direct the cell using DNA instructions A. nucleus B. mitochondria C. endoplasmic ...
• jello-like material, fills the space between cell organelles, is where many chemical reactions occur ...
• All living things are made of... A. atoms  B. cells  C. bacteria  D. plants 
• The structure shown is the cells ... A. nucleus ...
• The structure shown is the cells ... A. cell wall ...
• Identify: A. Smooth Muscle B. Columnar ...
• Identify: A. Pseudostratified B. Simple cuboidal ...
• Identify: A. Smooth Muscle B. Simple Columnar ...
• Name the tissue A. Pseudostratified B. Smooth Muscle ...
• The structure shown is the cells... A. nucleus ...
• Name the tissue type A. Cardiac Muscle ...
• Lines ducts and glands A. Simple Columnar B. Simple Cuboidal C. Simple Squamous D. Stratified ...
• Identify: A. Pseudostratified B. Smooth Muscle ...
• The cuticle is the outer layer of the hair shaft, TRUE or FALSE? A. TRUE ...
• The outer covering of the hair shaft made up of overlapping layers of transparent scaled ...
• Which of the following helps protect the hair and skin from becoming too dry? ...
• The resting state of hair growth when the hair bulb has no attached root sheath ...
• The process of hair turning grey is usually caused by: A. the natural aging process ...
• Which o the following refers to the ability of hair to stretch and return to ...
• The study of hair is called? A. Dermatology B. Chiropody C. Trichology
• Human hair on average, grows about: A. 1/4 per month B. 1/2 per month ...
• The muscle that causes hair to stand on end when a person is scared or ...
• Hair is made up of a protein, what is this protein called? A. Coronin ...
• The number of active hair follicles per square inch on the scalp refers to: ...
• The pigment that gives hair its color is found primarily in the: A. cortex ...
• Which of the following is the hard, resistant layer of protein that protects the hair ...
• What is the lack of pigmentation in the hair andskin called? A. lanugo B. anagen ...
• Which of the following steps would occur last when performing a wet hair service inclusive ...
• The amount of moisture (or liquids and chemicals) able to be absorbed by hair is ...
• The pigment that gives hair its color is found primarily in the: A. cortex ...
• The lips, soles of the eet, palms of the hands, and eyelids do not have: ...
• Does your hair grow faster in the summer or winter? A. No idea B. Summer ...
• Choose the best answer for each question. Dengue Fever is caused by which mosquito? ...
• Consuming coconut water is good because it has essential minerals and electrolytes which is good ...
• Sequence the life cycle of the mosquito. A. Adult mosquito, Eggs, Larva, Pupa B. Adult ...
• What does nauseous mean? A. feeling sick B. having fever C. feeling like vomitting ...
• How many eggs can a mosquito produce at one time? A. about 50 eggs ...
• Which of these diseases are not transmitted by mosquitoes? A. Zika B. Orange Fever ...
• Papaya has medicinal properties to increase __________ production. A. blood production B. platelet C. immune ...
• The mosquito can lay eggs about _________ times in its life cycle. A. 5 times ...
• The life cycle of a mosquito to develop fully takes approximately __________ days. A. 3-5 ...
• This part of the eye carries the message from your eye to the part of ...
• What type of lens is used in the shown instrument?
• Which parts of your eye are transparent? A. retina ...
• The person who is suffering from the following disease cannot donate eyes. A. diabetes ...
• The image formed on the retina of the human eye is A. virtual and inverted ...
• Band of color in a rainbow, or from a light passing through a prism. ...
• The part of your eye that gives it its color. It is a muscle that ...
• The first part of the eye that light hits.
• What is it called when light bends as it moves from one substance to ...
• The person who is suffering from _____________ requires bi-focal lens. A. (a) Hypermetropia B. (b) ...
• The defect of vision in which the person is able to see distant object distinctly ...
• The lens of your eye is convex. Because of this, what happens to light ...
• Following is far-sightedness A. Myopia B. Hypermetropia C. Presbyopia D. All of the above
• In bright light, your pupil will be A. larger B. smaller
• minimum focal length of eye is....................... A. 2.25cm B. 2.27cm C. 2.25mm D. 2.27mm
• The shape of eye-ball is nearly _________________ A. Elliptical B. Oval C. Circular D. Spherical ...
• phenomena observed in formation of rainbow is........................ A. dispersion, relection B. dispersion, refraction, reflection ...
• Myopia and Hypermetropia can be corrected by A. Concave and plano-convex lens B. Concave and ...
• What type of lens creates the image seen in the eyeglasses?
• In dim light, your pupil will be A. larger B. smaller
• Which of the following vessels has thin muscle wall and a large lumen? A. Vein ...
• Figure below shows one type of blood cell. What is the name of the ...
• Which of the following statement is true? A. Blood is a fluid organ, consisting of ...
• Carbon dioxide is transported from __________________.  A. lungs to body cells B. body cells to ...
• Figure below shows four components of blood. Which component helps carry oxygen throughout the body? ...
• During a Science lesson, the teacher told the students that unicellular organisms do not have ...
• Which of the following is not a function of plasma? A. To transport digested food ...
• What is the function of a white blood cell?
• What does the human circulatory system consist of? A. lungs and heart B. heart, blood ...
• Which blood vessel is shown in the middle of the image?
• Which of the following disease causes continuous coughing? A. asthma B. chronic bronchitis C. emphysema ...
• Oxygen diffuses from A. Trachea to lung B. Alveolus to blood capillary C. Blood capillary ...
• Which of the following is not correct about alveolus? A. Thick wall B. Thin wall ...
• An asthmatic patient's bronchiole walls become ............ and thick. A. big B. swollen C. soft ...
• In ......... , bronchiole becomes inflamed, swollen and blocked. A. asthma B. chronic bronchitis ...
• Gaseous exchange is by process of A. respiration B. diffusion
• Tiny air sacs for gaseous exchange . It looks like grape A. Alveolus B. Blood ...
• Which of the following is NOT the structure of haemoglobin? A. Each haemoglobin molecule contains ...
• Why the gaseous exchange becomes less efficient for an emphysema patient? A. alveolus wall is ...
• Name A A. Trachea B. Lung ...
• Which of the following helps an asthmatic patient to breathe? A. inhaler B. medicine ...
• Carbonic anhydrase in the erythrocytes … A. Catalyzes the removal of oxygen from the erythrocytes. ...
• Carbon dioxide diffuses from ________ to alveolus A. trachea B. lung C. blood capillary ...
• Oxyhaemoglobin gives up O2 when … A. CO2 concentrations are high. B. Body temperature is ...
• Most of the carbon dioxide produced by the body tissue is transported to the lungs ...
• In ......... , the alveolus loses its elasticity and increases in size. A. asthma ...
• A maximum of ___ oxygen molecules can be transported by one molecule of haemoglobin. ...
• Describe the nature of movement of oxygen within the blood and surrounding tissues A. Moves ...
• Which of the following is not Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)? A. asthma B. chronic ...
• The bronchiole walls in an asthmatic patient becomes swollen and thick which leads to the ...
• Name B A. Trachea B. Lung ...
• The total types of striated muscles is A. 2 B. 3 C. 1 D. 5 ...
• ------------- are formed when sarcolemma of two adjacent muscle fibres fuse. It helps to bond ...
• The cytoplasm in muscle cells is called A. hyaloplasm B. nucleoplasm C. sarcoplasm D. cytoplasm ...
• Who is the father of histology? A. Marie François Xavier Bichat B. Theodor Schwann ...
• ----------------- muscle is multinucleated whereas---------------- muscle is branched. A. Striated, Cardiac B. Cardiac, Striated ...
• Muscles that produce connective tissue proteins are A. striated muscles B. unstriated muscles C. cardiac ...
• Muscles which constitute 50% of body weight is A. Unstriated muscles B. Striated muscles ...
• Myofibrils are made up of A. neurolemmocytes B. osteocytes C. chondrocytes D. sarcomeres
• This is a __________________cast A. hyaline ...
• Immunity provided by T lymphocytes; A. Humoral B. Cell mediated C. innate D. auto immune ...
• When you see trichomonas in a urine microscopic you must report them as the number/hpf. ...
• The__________________top tube is collected for the ______________department. A. red/hematology B. gray/immunology C. red/ immunology ...
• All of these are Immune organs in our body except; A. Thymus B. Peyers Patches ...
• Children are born with _______________immunity that they receive from their________________. A. passive/ father B. acquired/mother ...
• A bilirubin urine test is found in the; A. Physical Examination B. Chemical Examination ...
• ----------------are foreign substances that induce an immune response causing the body to produce ________________ ...
• The Specific Immune Response involves these three steps in the correct order; A. Memory.Specificity, Recognition ...
• The________________are in the _________________category A. rbc/cell ...
• The immune system makes all antibodies and they can be used on any foreign antigen ...
• The larger picture is __________________ ___________________and it is a ___________________
• _____________________are made up of protein and are usually created in the Loop of Henle. ...
• The crystal is __________________and the cells around it are__________________
• If the patient has a positive nitrite and positive leukocyte esterase test then you are ...
• Trichamonas are placed in this category of identification. A. cells B. cast C. artifacts ...
• The ability to remember an antigen long after the initial exposure is called the; ...
• A. Ammonium biurate/crystal B. hair/artifact ...
• All of the following are granulocytes except; A. neutrophils B. lymphocytes C. eosinophils D. basophils ...
• When the red top tube is spun down in a centrifuge the liquid portion of ...
• Urine is spun down and the supernatant is pipetted and placed on a _____________for the_________________of ...
• If you know the ph of a urine sample you will be able to better ...
• The liquid portion of blood collected in a tube with an anticoagulant is called; ...
• Disease caused when the immune response is directed at ones own tissues. A. Innate ...
• If an individual is given a vaccine for a disease then that individual now has_______________immunity ...
• These cells are; A. Caudate B. ...
• A differentiated B lymphocyte that produces antibodies; A. monocyte B. neutrophil C. eosinophil D. plasma ...
• Immunity provided by B lymphocytes; A. Humoral B. Cell mediated C. auto immune D. innate ...
• If you see hyaline cast in a urine sample this is always considered abnormal. ...
• This is _______________________and it is a __________________' A. ...
• The major categories of things found in a microscopic urine include all except; A. microorganisms ...
• The____________ which is_largest organ in our bodies provides us with; A. antibodies B. antigens ...
• The __________________top tube is collected for the ____________________department. A. grey/immunology B. red/urinalysis C. red/immunology ...
• The primary immune organs are; A. Thymus/Bone Marrow B. Bone marrow/ Tonsils C. Tonsils/ appendix ...
• The chemical examination of the urine was positive for blood so these are ________________. ...
• A synonym for prone to, is A. susceptible to B. easy to C. translate to ...
• Side effects of a vaccine are A. an additional benefit patients have when being vaccinated ...
• A droplet infection is A. an infection that occurs when it is raining cats and ...
• The virus mutations are more contagious, because A. they attack people B. they spread more ...
• A sickness is defined as A. a medically defined pathology B. the social role involved ...
• When you are susceptible to severe reactions then A. you do not trust these reactions ...
• A synonym for people are vaccinated is A. people are shot B. people are inoculated ...
• A disease is defined as A. a condition that needs to be cured B. a ...
• An underlying health issue is A. a comfortable position for sleeping well B. a medical ...
• An illness is definded as A. as a medical condition a patient suffers from ...
• To roll out vaccines means A. to launch a vaccination campaign B. to be vaccinated ...
• A patient is compliant when A. he/she follows recommendations for health care management B. he/she ...
• Which of the following landmarks are not found on the scapula? A. Xiphoid process ...
• A sign of a humerus fracture that has damaged a nerve is A. Pain with ...
• Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of a clavicle fracture? ...
• A glenohumeral joint sprain is caused by all of the following except A. Overuse ...
• The pectoralis minor A. Internally rotates the shoulder B. Protracts the shoulder C. Adducts the ...
• The ribs articulate with which part of the sternum? A. Manubrium B. Body C. Xiphoid ...
• Thoracic outlet syndrome is caused by compression of A. The subdeltoid bursa B. The brachial ...
• The humerus articulates with the A. Coracoid process B. Greater tubercle C. Glenoid fossa ...
• An athlete comes up to you and tells you that he was lifting a very ...
• Which of the following muscles perform shoulder extension? A. Coracobrachialis B. Latissimus dorsi C. Pectoralis ...
• Downward rotation of the scapula is associated with A. Shoulder abduction B. Shoulder external rotation ...
• The __________ joint is not a true joint, but movement between these bones is critical ...
• Forced abduction and internal rotation of the glenohumeral joint results in A. A posterior dislocation ...
• Which of the following muscles do “ceiling punches?” A. Serratus anterior B. Coracobrachialis C. Levator ...
• The most commonly inflamed bursa in the shoulder is the A. Subdeltoid bursa B. Subcoracoid ...
• The trapezoid and conoid ligaments make up the _______ ligament A. Sternoclavicular B. Coracoclavicular ...
• Who discovered the ABO and Rh blood groups? A. Oliver B. Decastello C. Landsteiner ...
• what is the most common of the ABO blood types? A. Type A B. Type ...
• Blood Typing is considered what type of evidence? A. Individual B. Trace C. Class ...
• Which test is used to detect invisible blood stains? A. Kastle-Meyer B. Precipitin C. Luminol ...
• A protein that stimulates the body to produce antibodies is called.. A. Antigen B. Antiserum ...
• Help clot blood A. Erythrocytes B. Leukocytes C. Platelets D. Lymphocytes
• Red blood cells are also called? A. Leukocytes B. Erythrocytes C. Platelets D. Lymphocytes
• The study of blood applied to crime is called A. FORENSIC ANATOMY B. FORENSIC PATHOLOGY ...
• What part of blood is 90% water? A. White blood cells B. Red blood cells ...
• What blood type is the universal donor because it can be donated to anyone? ...
• What are the two types of tests used to determine if an evidence sample is ...
• What blood type is called the universal receiver? A. AB+ B. O+ C. AB- ...
• A protein that simulates the production of an antibody is called: A. Red blood cell ...
• Proteins on the surface of the red blood cells that account for blood type ...
• What types of antigens are present in a person with O blood? A. A and ...
• Which test is used to determine if a blood sample is human? A. Kastle-Meyer ...
• What is suspect 3's Blood Type? A. AB+ ...
• _______ means the physical trait whereas _______ is the genetic make-up (the allele combinations). ...
• What is suspect 1's Blood Type? A. A+ ...
• Woman with type A blood is claiming that a man with type AB blood is ...
• A man with type AB blood is married to a woman with type O blood. ...
• A woman with type O blood is claiming that a man with type AB blood ...
• There are how many blood types in the ABO system? A. 2 B. 4 ...
• Blood cells that have A antigen proteins are called A. Type A B. Type AB ...
• What antigens are present in a person with type B blood? A. B, only ...
• What is clumping of Red Blood Cells Called? A. Agglutination B. Antibody C. Antigen ...
• A person produces antibodies to influenza after vaccination. This is an example of: A. Natural ...
• The blood cells that fight pathogens. A. Leukocytes B. Red blood cells C. Plasma ...
• A host is: A. An organism that harbors a pathogen B. Grant Denyer on Family ...
• What is Penicillin (medicine) made from? A. Water B. Sugar C. Mold D. Algae
• This microorganism has whip-like flagella, that help them move. A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Algae ...
• Bacteria is known as ______________ in an ecosystem when feeding on dead organisms. A. decomposers ...
• Beneficial or Harmful? fungus causes ringworm or athlete's foot on the skin A. beneficial ...
• Mold helps dead things (plants, animals)... A. Grow B. Decay C. Sleep D. Reproduce
• Select the disease which can be treated with antibiotics. A. Swine Flu B. Influenza ...
• A fungus that causes skin disease. A. Ring Worm B. Salmonella C. Yeast D. Athletes ...
• Which observation supports the claim that microorganisms are helpful to ecosystems? A. Microorganism are to ...
• The flu is caused by A. bacteria B. virus
• ____________ single celled organism which cause diseases such as malaria, and sleeping sickness. They are ...
• A disease causing organism A. Pathogen B. Poison C. Vaccine D. Prokaryote
• Beneficial or Harmful? bacteria weakens teeth enamel A. beneficial B. harmful