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• The largest part of the brain is the __________ . A. medulla B. cerebrum ...
• Another name for afferent nerves A. motor B. mixed C. synapse D. sensory
• The study of the nervous system structure and function is... A. psychology B. physiology ...
• Thinking and voluntary muscles are controlled by the _________ lobe of the cerebrum. A. occipital ...
• Part of the autonomic system that controls “fight or flight” A. spinal B. somatic ...
• The main passageway for messages from all parts of body is the... A. nerves ...
• The largest cranial nerve is the _________ nerve. A. Trigeminal B. Sciatic C. Facial ...
• Type of nerve that carries messages from the brain to muscles, organs and glands ...
• Doctors who study the nervous system are ... A. psychiatrists B. psychologists C. neurologists ...
• The control center of the nervous system is found here A. CNS B. CSF ...
• Part of the neuron that is gray matter A. axon B. cell body C. dendrite ...
• These nerves carry impulses to and from the brain A. cranial B. spinal C. somatic ...
• What foods are especially helpful for healthy bones? A. Broccoli B. Yogurt C. Ice cream ...
• Where are new blood cells produced? A. In the heart B. Spongy Bone C. Compact ...
• What does an Orthopedic Surgeon do? A. Is a nurse in the Operating Room ...
• What do Red Blood Cells do? A. Transport Oxygen? B. Help with the Immune System ...
• From the video clip we watched in class, how long will a baby live who ...
• There are 206 of these in your entire body, what are they? A. Nerves ...
• What part of your skeleton is the vertebral column? A. Appendicular Skeleton B. Axial Skeleton ...
• What are the side effects of Osteogenesis Imperfecta? A. Bones are strong and overgrow ...
• Where is bone marrow? A. On the outside of the bone B. In the blood ...
• What part of your skeleton is the hand bone? A. Appendicular Skeleton B. Axial Skeleton ...
• What does Hematopoiesis mean? A. Mature blood cells B. Blood cell Production C. I don't ...
• What part of your skeleton is the skull? A. Appendicular Skeleton B. Axial Skeleton ...
• What are Vertebrates? A. Animals that have bones on the outside of their bodies ...
• What is the Axial Skeleton? A. Protects organs vital for survival B. Helps the body ...
• What is the Appendicular Skeleton? A. Protects organs vital for survival B. Helps the body ...
• What are Invertebrates? A. Animals that have bones on the outside of their bodies ...
• Which of the following is NOT a main purpose of the skeletal system? A. To ...
• What part of your skeleton is your arm bone? A. Appendicular Skeleton B. Axial Skeleton ...
• What do White Blood Cells do? A. I don't know B. Help blood clot ...
• What part of your skeleton is the sacrum? A. Appendicular Skeleton B. Axial Skeleton
• What happens to bones in space? A. They become stronger B. They lack Calcium ...
• What do Platelets do? A. I don't know B. Help blood clot C. carry Oxygen ...
• What are the two main stages of the cell cycle? A. Prophase and Mitosis ...
• The division of cytoplasm is called.. A. Prophase B. Telophase C. Cytokinesis D. Cyto furrow ...
• Which of these lists presents the stages of the cell cycle in the correct order? ...
• The proccess in which cellular material is divided between two daughter cells A. Cellular division ...
• What structure allows DNA to ravel into chromosomes A. Centromere B. Isosome C. nucleic acid ...
• What name do we give this diagram? ...
• The structure labeled A is a(n) A. ...
• In what phase of mitosis do chromotids move to opposite sides of the cell? ...
• In interphase... A. The cytoplasmic organelles double in size B. The cytoplasmic organelles double in ...
• In what phase of interphase does a cell produce a supply of organelles for its ...
• Before cells can divide, what must be copied? A. Nucleotides B. RNA C. DNA ...
• Chromosomes carry identical sets of genes where? A. Same loci on sister chromatids B. Daughter ...
• Interphase has 3 stages; G1, S, and G2.  What happens during synthesis? A. Cells grow ...
• In what phase of mitosis do chromosomes line up at the center of the cell? ...
• What are the 4 stages of mitosis in order? A. Telophase, Metaphase, Prophase, Anaphase ...
• DNA is packed into __________ A. Chromosomes B. Centrioles C. Spindles D. Chromatids
• What forms to separate plant cells? A. Cell Wall B. Cell Separator C. Cell Cap ...
• The cell spends most of it's life in ________________. A. mitosis B. cytokinesis C. Interphase ...
• The ___________ holds the replicated sister chromatids together. A. centriole B. chromosomes C. centromere ...
• When a cell divides we want that cell to be ________ to the parent cell. ...
• This genetic material can only be found during cell division. A. Chromosomes B. Chromatin ...
• The division of the nucleus is called monisitis A. TRUE B. FALSE
• In what phase of mitosis does the cell pinch to begin to form two cells? ...
• In what phase of Interphase does DNA divide rapidly? A. G1 B. S C. G2 ...
• In what phase of mitosis do spindles form on centrioles? A. Prophase B. Telophase ...
• In what phase of mitosis do pairs of chromatids become attached to the fibers of ...
• Which progressive disease destroys a persons memory and the ability to form new memories ...
• Diagnostic test of down syndrome are done .. A. Week 6-8 during pregnancy B. Week ...
• XYY syndrome affects_____ and is caused by an extra_____ chromosome A. females, Y B. Males, ...
• What causes Alzheimers Disease A. Aducanumab B. fat build up in the body to toxic ...
• Turner syndrome can cause A. personality changes B. mental retardation C. tall stature D. infertility ...
• Is Hemophilia curable? A. Yes B. No
• Which disease is caused by the absence of an enzyme that breaks down fatty substances, ...
• In order to help females who have Turners syndrome with short stature A. stretching therapy ...
• How many typesof Hemophilia are there? A. 1 B. 4 C. 3 D. 2
• Turners syndrome is a result of A. having only 1 X chromosome B. having 3 ...
• Which disease turns bodies into stone A. Cystic Fibrosis B. FOP C. Autism D. Huntingtons ...
• The CFTR gene controls A. The movement of nerve cells in the body B. The ...
• What is Hemophilia? A. a genetic disorder affecting bloods ability to clot B. a genetic ...
• Down Syndrome is also called .. A. Trisomy 20 B. Trisomy 22 C. Trisomy 23 ...
• Diabetes Type 1 A. Affects Adults B. Affects Kids
• Signs and symptoms of Hemophilia A. spontaneous bleeding , hyperventilation, jaundice B. hypoventilation, bruising, hypertension ...
• What is replacemet therapy? A. Where a doctor takes all the blood out of someone ...
• Which disease is caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene and causes sticky thick ...
• the genetic disease that causes personality changes at the age of 40+ is A. Polycystic ...
• Diabetes Type 1 deals with not producing enough A. insulin B. fats C. sugar ...
• Huntington's Disease is caused by A. a breakdown of nerve cells in the brain due ...
• Huntington's Disease is A. Autosomal Dominant B. Autosomal recessive C. Sex-linked Dominant D. Sex- linked ...
• Because neurons are electrically active, they are referred to as A. excitable B. amitotic ...
• Receives information A. dendrites B. cell body C. axon D. axon terminals
• A. dendrites B. cell body C. ...
• White matter mostly consists of A. dendrites B. cell bodies C. axons D. axon terminals ...
• Releases neurotransmitters A. dendrites B. cell body C. axon D. axon terminals
• May receive neurotransmitters A. dendrites B. cell body C. axon D. axon terminals
• Carries action potentials over potentially long distances A. dendrites B. cell body C. axon ...
• Humans breathe in ______ and breathe out _______. A. Carbon dioxide; oxygen B. Oxygen; carbon ...
• When the blood leaves from the pulmonary artery, where is it going? A. Left ventricle ...
• Which is considered to be Mechanical Digestion? A. Chewing B. Saliva C. Gastric juice ...
• I receive stimuli from inside and outside of the body, interpret the stimuli, and initiate ...
• This organ carries air from the mouth, to the throat to reach the bronchi. ...
• This organ is a secondary organ that produces bile that digest fat and filter blood. ...
• This type of muscle is involuntary and found in the heart. A. Smooth muscle ...
• Which organ system provides gas exchange between your blood and the air? A. Musculoskeletal system ...
• Where is the first place in the heart that blood flows through? A. Superior and ...
• I am flat, but blow up like a balloon when I'm filled up with urine. ...
• Which organ system provides movement and support for the body? A. Musculoskeletal system B. Circulatory ...
• This part of your brain gives you balance and coordination. A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum ...
• Digestion begins where? A. Mouth B. Stomach C. Small intestine D. Large intestines
• Blood is composed of red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, and plasma. Which part ...
• The two organs that are a part of the Central Nervous system are what? ...
• Which two systems are a part of getting rid of solid waste? A. Respiratory and ...
• I am the largest organ in your body. What am I? A. Skin B. Lungs ...
• When a virus enters a cell and it immediately makes copies of itself this is ...
• What is the name of this virus ...
• rod-shaped bacteria A. cocci B. flagella C. spirilla D. bacilla
• What is a vaccine? A. a girl's name. B. something that helps the body fight ...
• A weakened form of a virus used to prevent viral infection for a specific disease. ...
• A virus that attacks and infects a bacterium. A. Host Cell B. Bacteriophage C. Replication ...
• A viruses are considered A. Living B. Non-living
• Antibiotics work to cure viruses? A. TRUE B. FALSE
• When new viruses burst out of a host cell. A. Attachment B. Entry C. Replication ...
• hairlike parts that help bacteria move A. flagelle B. bacilli C. cocci D. spirilla ...
• spherical bacteria A. cocci B. flagella C. spirilla D. bacilla
• What process splits one single-celled organism into two single-celled organisms? A. binary fission B. binary ...
• A viral life cycle that begins like the lytic cycle, but forms proviruses and can ...
• Which processes allows for the viruses DNA to lay dormant or hide in the host ...
• A virus acts like a... A. leukocyte B. parasite C. parachute D. paramedic
• a virus is __________ a cell. A. bigger than B. smaller than C. the same ...
• Disease causing agents are called... A. Bad Things B. Antibodies C. Pathogens D. Antibiotics
• Protein coat surrounding a virus. A. Capsid B. DNA C. Provirus D. Vaccine
• Viruses require a host cell to A. Breathe and eat B. Replicate C. Move and ...
• What process is this? A. phagocytosis ...
• long and spiral-shaped bacteria A. cocci B. flagella C. spirilla D. bacilla
• What is the job of the cell wall in bacteria? A. To provide protection ...
• Which viral life cycle kills its host cell by breaking it open? A. lytic ...
• Immunity is A. an organism's ability to go through gene therapy B. the process of ...
• The organism that a virus enters and uses is called a  A. host B. parasite ...
• Poisoning that you can get from certain types of food is called A. Botulism ...
• When a virus binds to the cell membrane of a host cell. A. Attachment ...
• Hypersecretion of GH in adult A. Acromegaly B. Gigantism C. Dwarfism
• Cushing’s disease is an Adrenal gland disorder of… A. Hypersecretion of cortisol B. High blood ...
• Hypersecretion GH in children A. Gigantism B. Acromegaly C. Dwarfism
• Lymphatic Filariasis caused by ….. A. Parasite B. Virus C. Bacteria
• Babies with diminished mental ability as their mom had a lack of Iodine A. Cretinism ...
• The stage of Filaria worm that circulated in human bloodstream A. Adult filaria worm ...
• Adrenal gland disorder of Hypersecretion of cortisol with high blood glucose and high blood pressure ...
• The largest pure endocrine gland A. Thyroid B. Pituitary C. Adrenal
• The only cells affected by the hormones are ……… A. Target cells B. Epithelial cells ...
• Adult onset disease in female and cause masculinizationذكوره including facial hair and thicker jaw ...
• The vector ناقل of Filariasis is ….. A. Dogs B. Cats C. Mosquitoes
• Autoimmune disorder of hyperthyroidism A. Grave’s Disease B. Hashimoto’s
• Adult Filaria worm live in …. A. Lymph B. Blood C. Liver
• Decrease metabolism and causes obesity A. Hypothyroidism B. Hyperthyroidism
• Too little Iodine in diet causes A. Goiter B. Grave’s Disease C. Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
• Treatment of Filariasis is A. Preventive chemotherapy and MDA B. Antibiotic C. Antiviral anti inflammatory ...
• A system of ductless glands secrete messenger molecule called hormones A. Endocrine B. Respiratory ...
• What foods are high in Vitamin A? A. Sweet potatoes, Carrots, & Spinnach B. Spinach, ...
• The B vitamin family is made up of, how many B vitamins? A. 10 ...
• What are some dangers of consuming too many vitamins? A. It can cause a buildup ...
• A diet lacking in ___________ leads to the development of a disease known as scurvy. ...
• Ascorbic Acid is needed for the manufacture of Collagen, helps the body fight infections and ...
• It is most commonly known for its role in fetal health and development as it ...
• What does the term enrichment mean in terms of nutrition? A. The body has taken ...
• What are the Vitamin B required to maintain healthy nervous and neural systems. A. vitamins ...
• Where can people get Vitamin D? A. Sweet potatoes, Carrots, & Spinnach B. Spinach, broccoli, ...
• It supports carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism and may help support healthy hair, skin and ...
• What is the main role of vitamin D in the body? A. Helps form new ...
• What is the main difference between the subgroups of vitamins? A. There aren't any subgroups ...
• What is the main role of vitamin C in the body? A. Helps form new ...
• What are vitamins used for in the body? A. A quick useful source of energy ...
• In a normal functioning nervous system, how long does all the signaling through the sensory ...
• Which part of the brain helps control our balance and skeletal muscle activity? A. Cerebrum ...
• What is the primary function of the blood brain barrier? A. to separate blood circulating ...
• Which part of the brain helps regulate body temperature, metabolism, and emotions? A. Hypothalamus ...
• Which part of the brain attaches to the spinal cord and includes the midbrain, pons, ...
• Which area of the brain is responsible for learning, memory, and comprehension? A. Diencephalon ...
• Which part of the brain stem is the reflex center for vision and hearing? ...
• Which area of the brain is involved in our ability to speak? A. Somatic area ...
• This forms a watery cushion to protect the brain from blows and trauma and is ...
• Which part of the brain stem is the lowest and controls heart rate, blood pressure, ...
• A rapid, predictable, and involuntary response to a stimuli describes a _____. A. response ...
• Which region of the brain sits on top of the brain stem and is made ...
• Which region of the brain includes more than half of the brain mass? A. Diencephalon ...
• Sensory receptors and nerves make up the: A. Peripheral nervous system B. Enteric nervous system ...
• A hemostat is an instrument that: A. is like a pair of scissors B. is ...
• A medicine that is administered in the lungs is an: A. injection B. inhalant ...
• If an ear infection is bilateral, what does that mean? A. one sided B. underneath ...
• electrocautery is: A. A physical therapy tool B. A tool that burns skin and tissue ...
• A form of anesthesia is: A. Local B. Topical C. Regional D. All the above ...
• A word that mean inside the vein is: A. intraabdominal B. intraarterial C. intravenous ...
• When someone vomits and inhales their own vomit, this is an example of: A. indigestion ...
• Analgesic is a medical term that means A. surgical procedure B. medicine that relieves pain ...
• Subcutaneous means: A. under the skin B. on top of the skin C. in between ...
• A medical term that means around surgery or around the time of surgery is: ...
• Which of the following hormones stimulates the kidneys to excrete more sodium decreasing blood pressure? ...
• T4 is the most potent thyroid hormone A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Which of the following is associated with gonadal development? A. Oxytocin B. Prolactin C. FSH ...
• What is produced by beta cells of the pancreas? A. Insulin B. Glucagon C. Angiotensin ...
• Aldosterone is secreted by which endocrine gland? A. Adrenal cortex B. Adrenal medulla C. Thyroid ...
• What statement below about hormones is true? A. Hormones are enzymes that catalyze reactions ...
• Aldosterone causes which of these actions? A. Decreased renal tubular resorption of protein B. Decreased ...
• Which of the following is synthesized in the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary? ...
• Which of the following are hydrophilic? A. Peptide hormones B. Steroid hormones
• The hypophyseal portal system transports releasing and inhibiting hormones to which of the following? ...
• What is the function of parathyroid hormones? A. Decrease plasma calcium levels B. Increase plasma ...
• Increase number or production of alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans will result in ...
• Which of the following activates genes to promote synthesis of new proteins? A. Steroid hormones ...
• What is produced by Leydig cells? A. Epinephrine B. Norepinephrine C. Testosterone D. Cortisol
• Epinephrine is released from the adrenal cortex A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Positive feedback prevents the over secretion of hormones A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The length of fall of the top of the colun of erythrocytes in agiven interval ...
• Which of the following hemoglobin is present in sickle cell disease? A. Hb Zurich ...
• Another name of target cell A. Echinocyte B. Leptocyte C. Ovalocyte D. Drepanocyte
• in severe infections, this finding is seen in neutrophils A. Glycogen vacuoles B. Auer Rods ...
• It is the ratio of the volume of erythrocytes to that of the whole blood ...
• The most important factors influencing the ESR are A. Lipids B. Plasma proteins C. Minerals ...
• The MCV below 80 cubic microns is indicative of A. Microcytosis B. Macrocytosis C. Pleocytosis ...
• Which of the following conditions is associated with the presence of hypersegmented neutrophils in the ...
• A derivative of hemoglobin in which the ferrous iron is oxidized to the ferric state ...
• If anticoagulated blood is centrifuged, it separates into 3 main layers, EXCEPT: A. Cell mass ...
• Which of the following protein is not present in serum? A. Fibrinogen B. Globulin ...
• Heinz body is usually seen in: A. Leukocytes B. Thrombocytes C. Erythrocytes D. Lymphocytes ...
• Arrangement of red cells with their flat surfaces facing, so that they resemble stacks of ...
• Heparin inhibits the clotting of blood by neutralizing the effect of? A. Calcium B. Platelets ...
• Fragmented red cells frequently seen in hemolytic anemias that are burn or prosthesis or microangiopathic ...
• The body’s defense against infectious diseases A. Endocrine system B. Circulatory system C. Immune system ...
• When the doctor checks for your lymph nodes in ...
• The combination of the skeletal and muscular system that provides support, movement, strength, and balance. ...
• After food is digested in the stomach, it goes to ____________________. A. the esophagus ...
• Filters, collects, and removes excess fluid and wastes from the bloodstream A. Muscular system ...
• It is your body’s central framework.  It consists of bones and connective tissue, including cartilage, ...
• Largest organ of the body; it includes the skin, glands, hair and nails A. Endocrine ...
• The group of organs that work together to break food down by physical and chemical ...
• Breathing that supplies oxygen to the blood and gets rid of carbon dioxide A. Circulatory ...
• Acne is an infection of the: A. Immune system B. Cardiovascular system C. Integumentary system ...
• If something goes wrong with the thyroid in this ...
• Moves blood through the body, supplies oxygen and nutrients, and removes wastes A. Digestive system ...
• Glands and organs that release hormones to control your body A. Digestive system B. Circulatory ...
• Where would you find the trachea and the bronchioles? A. Respiratory system B. Reproductive system ...
• The system that controls movement through smooth, cardiac, and skeletal muscles A. Skeletal system ...
• Which system consists of ligaments and tendons? A. Skeletal system B. Connective system C. Integumentary ...
• Male and female systems used to produce offspring A. Nervous system B. Respiratory system ...
• Functions as the control center, coordinating all actions and reactions A. Integumentary system B. Nervous ...
• The ability to move smoothly and quickly A. stamina B. dexterity C. agility D. coordination ...
• Low expectations for older adults lead to a low level or _____ focus in care ...
• _____ exercise helps to improve muscle strength, muscle tone, and joint mobility. A. Isometric ...
• the first change noticed by most people is a decrease in the rate or speed ...
• Arthritic joint pain inhibits motion and makes a person more likely to exercise. A. TRUE ...
• Normal aging does not interfere with the transmission of nerve impulses, but does slow the ...
• Changes to joints and the musculoskeletal system appear quickly and suddenly forcing individuals to adapt ...
• _____ exercises do not affect the joints. A. Isometric B. Isotonic C. Isothermic D. Isotropic ...
• _____ is anything that requires the expenditure of energy. A. Articulation B. Activity C. Breathing ...
• Increased stamina is seen with aging A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Ligaments and tendons become stiff, contributing to decreased joint flexability A. TRUE B. FALSE
• _____ is an exercise that improves joint movement and provides support A. Resistance training ...
• Daily exercise for 30 minutes is more beneficial than strenuous exercise done infrequently. A. TRUE ...
• regular, planned exercise is a benefit of all ages A. TRUE B. FALSE
• High expectations of older adults lead to a high level or _______ focus A. custodial ...
• First Aid Antibiotics: A. Treat infected wounds B. Pain relief C. Prevent infections D. Reduce ...
• Which of the following only involves only the epidermis? A. Superficial skin injury B. Superficial ...
• What do we call the first step of skin repair, also knows as a blood ...
• What is the important structural protein that Ella and other Butterfly children with epidermolysis bullosa ...
• Your fingerprints are formed in this layer of skin. A. Papillary Dermis B. Epidermis ...
• Which of the following phases is responsible for producing an immediate response to injury? ...
• A freckle is an example of A. bulla B. papule C. macule D. tubercle
• A. First Degree Burn B. Second Degree Burn ...
• Which of the following only involves the epidermis and superficial dermis? A. Superficial skin injury ...
• An acute wound should approximately take within how many days to heal? A. 7 ...
• Which of the following would be an appropriate use of skin protectant ointments? A. Skin ...
• Which of the following extends through the epidermis and dermis and into the subcutaneous tissue ...
• Which of the following terms is a minor wound resulting from a sharp-edged object cutting ...
• Which of the following terms is a minor wound resulting from rubbing or friction to ...
• Which of the following phases is responsible for filling the wound with new connective tissue? ...
• Which type of muscle controls our heart? A. Smooth B. Cardiac C. Digestive D. skeletal ...
• Which type of muscle controls our digestive system? A. Smooth B. cardiac C. digestive ...
• When muscles are attached in three tendons of origin they are called ____ A. quadriceps ...
• _____ refers to muscles attached to immovable bone. A. Place B. Origin C. N/A ...
• The heart muscle is A. Voluntary B. involuntary C. N/A D. N/A
• The muscular system works directly with the ____ system to allow the body to move. ...
• Muscle shaped like a triangle are called A. Deltoid B. Fragmoid C. N/A D. Helmoid ...
• Which of the diseases would you get if you played too much tennis A. Muscular ...
• Which of these muscles is voluntary A. Smooth B. Cardiac C. Skeletal D. Stomach muscles ...
• The muscular system's main function includes all of this except A. allows movement in body ...
• Smooth muscles are A. Voluntary B. Involuntary C. N/A D. N/A
• Which of these is not a voluntary muscle movement? A. Speaking B. Walking C. Writing ...
• What is the purpose of tendons A. attach to our internal organs to control breathing ...
• Many bones get their name from the bone they are A. near B. attached to ...
• gluteus maximus is an example of how muscles get their name because of its ...
• Oblique muscle fibers run diagonal to the body midline and are an example of how ...
• D? A. Neutrophil B. Basophil ...
• Drabkin reagent has a weak solutions called A. potassium cyanide B. potassium cyanide (KCN) and ...
• A? A. Erythrocyte B. Neutrophil ...
• A low platelet count is called A. Leukocytopenia B. Anemia C. Bulemia D. Thrombocytopenia
• _______ is an immature macrophage passing through blood from bone marrow to it's targeted tissue ...
• Joseph and Wallace of Chicago invented the first electronic automated cell counter, which is still ...
• Invented the microscope and wrote the first RBC account. A. Athanasius Kircher B. Anton van ...
• What are the precursors to platelets? A. Myeloids B. Erythroids C. Megakaroyocytes
• An INCREASED RBC count reflecting increased circulating RBC mass, a condition that leads to hyperviscocity. ...
• G? A. Monocyte B. Lymphocyte ...
• A increase WBC count is called ______; An decrease WBC count is called______ ...
• A. Thrombocyte B. Erythrocyte C. Leukocyte ...
• Lifespan of platelets? A. 3-5 days B. 120 days C. 7-10 days D. 3weeks
• Young RBC contains? A. RNA B. DNA
• A decrease in oxygen-carrying capacity and Decreased RBC count or RBC hemoglobin concentration are common ...
• Another term for thrombocytes? A. RBC B. WBC C. Leukocytes D. Platelets
• Hematocrit is also known as? A. MCV (mean corpuscular volume) B. (PCV) Packed ...
• What is the common substance found in blood plasma? ...
• Stain that are used to differentiate and count young RBCs A. Nucleic Acid Stains ...
• A tool used for manual cell counting (glass counting chamber) A. hemacytometer B. centrifuge ...
• the ratio of the volume of packed RBCs to the volume of whole blood and ...
• C? A. polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN) ...
• B? A. Band B. Monocyte ...
• H? A. Bacteria B. Lymphocyte ...
• Who is the 1st scientist who described ''worms'' in the blood? A. Giulio Bizzozero ...
• ECG is an abbreviation for: A. echocardial graph B. enterocardiac Ganglion C. electrocardiograph D. endocardial ...
• the medical term meaning softening of the heart is: A. cardiopulshosis B. cardiosclerosis C. cardiomalacia ...
• the medical term meaning inflammation of the heart is A. parasynthosis B. pericardial centesis ...
• the medical term meaning falling or dropping of the heart: A. cardiosaosis B. cardioplegia ...
• the medical term meaning pain in the heart is: A. Cardiodynia B. cardiopathy C. cardialgia ...
• Hyperkalemia is: A. low potassium B. elevated potassium C. elevated calcium D. low calcium
• The medical term cardiology means: A. study of the heart B. study of the vessels ...
• the medical term cardiovalvulitis means inflammation of the: A. heart's conductive system B. hearts valves ...
• Hypokalemia is: A. low potassium B. elevated potassium C. elevated calcium D. low calcium ...
• hypocalcemia is: A. low potassium B. elevated potassium C. elevated calcium D. low calcium
• which of the following is the abbreviation for fasting? A. OPN B. PNO C. NPO ...
• Polarized is a term that refers to: A. change of polarity B. restoring the cell ...
• depolarization is a term that refers to: A. change of polarity B. restoring the cell ...
• the medical term meaning relation to the heart and lungs is: A. cardiopulmunary B. cardiovascular ...
• PVC is an abbreviation for: A. Prolapsed Valve Chondriasis B. Premature Ventricular Contraction C. Polymer ...
• RBBB is an abbreviation for: A. Right Bundle Branch Block B. Rotational Brokenoff's Branches ...
• The time during the cardiac cycle when the ventricular cells are partially repolarized by not ...
• STAT is an abbreviation for: A. immediately B. transmitting to EKG signals via radio waves ...
• Ischemia is: A. the fascicles become blocked B. little bundles C. an impulse that takes ...
• which of the following is the abbreviation for congestive heart failure? A. CCF B. CHF ...
• The medical term for cardiovavulotomy means surgical: A. removal of one heart valve B. opening ...
• repolarization is the term that refers to: A. change of polarity B. restoring to cell ...
• BBB is an abbreviation for: A. Bundle branch block B. blocked brokenoff's branches C. bundle ...
• the medical term meaning paralysis of the heart is: A. paralysisocargial B. paracardium C. cardioparalysis ...
• LBBB is an abbreviation for A. Levin's Bundle Branch Block B. Little Bundle Branch Block ...
• Ectopic beat is a beat that refers to: A. immediately B. transmitting EKG signals via ...
• which of the following are the abbreviations for electrocardiogram? A. EKG B. ECG C. EDG ...
• the medical term meaning doctor who studies the heart A. cardiology B. cardiopulmonologist C. cardiovasculogist ...
• the medical term cardiorrhaphy means A. suturing of the heart muscles B. fixation of the ...
• PAC is an abbreviation for: A. Partial Advanced contraction B. premature atrial contraction C. patent ...
• telemery is a term that refers to A. immediately B. transmitting EKG signals via radio ...
• hypercalcemia is: A. low potassium B. elevated potassium C. elevated calcium D. low calcium
• AF is an abbreviation for A. after the fact B. after fasting C. application fax ...
• WPW is an abbreviation for A. Wenckebach B. Wolf-Parkinson-White Syndrome C. Bundle Brakenoff's branches ...
• PAT is an abbreviation for: A. Pulmonary Atrial Tearing B. Paraxysmal Auricular tamponade C. partial ...
• In mammals, an important role of excretion is played by _____: A. Lungs B. Liver ...
• Which organ is the main digester and absorber of food? A. Colon B. Stomach ...
• What is the use of Rhizobium? A. fix large amounts of atmospheric nitrogen B. used ...
• What type of respiration occurs in all higher organisms? A. Aerobic Respiration B. Anaerobic Respiration ...
• Deficiency of which of the following nutrients is the most common cause of goiters? ...
• In which part of the human body Thymus gland is located? A. Between both cerebrum ...
• Which gland is helpful in increasing blood calcium levels? A. Thymus gland B. Thyroid gland ...
• Which of the following is the lens of the eye? A. Concave B. Convex ...
• Which type of plants have the hard stem branching out near the base? A. Shrubs ...
• Name the gland that controls the functioning of other endocrine glands A. Pituitary gland ...
• Branch of science dealing with the medicinal plants is known as__? A. Pharmacognosy B. Pharmacology ...
• Normal range of breathing rate per minute in an average adult person at rest is ...
• Which of the following is not caused by bacteria? A. Typhoid B. Tetanus C. Plague ...
• Herpetology is the branch of science that deals with the study of__? A. Fishes ...
• Name the thinnest bone in the human body? A. Stapes B. Malleus C. Incus ...
• Is a chronic inflammatory disease of the joints of the Axial skeleton, manifested by pain ...
• The most important destructive element in Rheumatoid Arthritis is: A. Callus formation B. Bony erosion ...
• A metabolic disease characterized by recurrent attack of acute inflammatory arthritis caused by elevated levels ...
• a rounded bowing of the thoracic area of the back A. ruptured disc B. kyphosis ...
• It is an ongoing (chronic) disease that causes abnormal growth of connective tissue. A. Scleroderma ...
• Weight loss is a sign and symptoms of RA. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Bamboo Spine in X-ray shows the patient has ______. A. Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis B. Rheumatic ...
• Type of arthritis due to the destruction of articular cartilage is called? A. Rheumatoid arthritis ...
• The patient has a butterfly-shaped rash on the nose and cheeks of the face. ...
• Which allele predisposes patients to Ankylosing Spondylitis? A. QRS-T22 B. HLA-B27 C. H1N1-99 D. BRU-H47 ...
• What side of the body does RA occur at? A. both sides B. one side ...
• What is Rheumatoid Arthritis? A. inflammation of the joints B. inflammation of the muscles ...
• What is the definition of a Pathogen? A. an organism causing disease to its host ...
• Herd immunity means that A. Nobody in the population will get the disease B. Individuals ...
• Which of these Pathogens causes COVID 19? A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Fungus D. Prion ...
• Can diseases be caused by Genetic and Lifestyle factors? A. Yes B. No
• A person can contract HIV by: A. Sharing needles with an infected person B. Kissing ...
• Which of the following is NOT an example of a vector A. Pigs B. Mosquitoes ...
• Antibiotics can help treat A. Bacteria B. Viruses C. Fungal disease D. Parasites
• Which of the following is NOT an infectious disease A. Malaria B. Obesity C. HIV/AIDS ...
• What is the main Mode of Transmission for COVID 19? A. Vehicle B. Contact ...
• Devised the simple microscope. A. Robert Hooke B. Leeuwenhoek C. Robert Brown D. Von Mohl ...
• Science of the origin and development of living organisms. A. Histology B. Pathology C. Physiology ...
• Study of minute cells and tissues A. Histology B. Pathology C. Embryology D. Physiology
• He discovered the tiny boxes or comparments which he called cells. A. Robert Hooke ...
• Defined the structure of DNA A. Schleiden and Schwann B. Watson and Crick C. Leeuwenhoek ...
• Study of functions of cells and organs A. Physiology B. Pathology C. Embryology
• Referred the protoplasm as the physical basis of life. A. Robert Brown B. Schleiden and ...
• Recognition of the nucleus. A. Robert Hooke B. Leeuwenhoek C. Robert Brown D. Schleiden and ...
• Stated that all living things are made up of cells and the complexity of living ...
• Recognized protoplasm as the living material composing the cell. A. Leeuwenhoek B. Robert Brown ...
• Study of abnormal structure and function that characterizes disease. A. Histology B. Physiology C. Pathology ...
• He examined a thinly sliced piece of cork using lenses A. Robert Hooke B. Leeuwenhoek ...
• Which of the following biological molecules stores genetic information? A. protein B. carbohydrate C. lipids ...
• The bond that joins amino acids are called: A. Peptide Bonds B. Ester Bonds ...
• This macromolecule plays an important role in the structure and function of the cell membrane. ...
• The monomers of proteins are A. nucleotides B. amino acids C. monosaccharides D. fatty acids ...
• Many simple sugars have either 5 or 6 carbon atoms like glucose and fructose. These ...
• Which of the following biological molecules creates things such as enzymes, organelles, and structures in ...
• Amino acids all have the same general structure except for the: A. Amino Group ...
• Which of the following could make one protein different to another protein? I. the ...
• A group of organic molecules that includes sugars, starch, and cellulose care called... A. proteins ...
• A large molecule made of subunits called monomers. A. isomer B. polymer ...
• Where do most of the carbon based compounds of earth come from? A. The stars ...
• Which of the following biological molecules contains the elements carbon, hydrogen and oxygen? I. ...
• Which type of bond is found in lipids? A. Glycosydic B. Ester C. Peptide
• What is a monomer? A. The repeated section of the same sets of atoms ...
• How are carbon based molecules bonded? A. Ionic Bonds B. Covalent Bonds C. Hydrogen Bonds ...
• This molecule provides the primary energy for the cells. A. carbohydrates B. lipids C. proteins ...
• Three fatty acids bonded to glycerol A. glycogen B. polypeptide C. protein D. triglyceride ...
• Which answer below correctly identifies the uses for the types of carbohydrates I. Glucose ...
• What is the function of protein in the body? A. cell structure formation and repair ...
• My monomer is nucleotide. A. carbohydrates B. lipids C. proteins D. nucleic acids
• What capacity of the lungs depends on the normal functioning of the perfusion, number of ...
• Obstructive respiratory failure develops when: A. get into of foreign bodies into the respiratory tract ...
• Indicate the reasons leading to the development of RDS-syndrome in adults: A. direct damage to ...
• Specify the type of respiratory failure in case of damage to the upper respiratory tract: ...
• In what pathology does a decrease in the total area of membranes lead to disruption ...
• What is the name of the state of the body in which the preservation of ...
• A restrictive form of respiratory failure develops with the following pathologies: A. compression of the ...
• The main factor in the pathogenesis of RDS syndrome in newborns is: A. impaired lung ...
• Indicate the indicators of respiratory failure: A. acidosis, hypoxemia, hypercapnia B. acidosis, hypoxia, hypocapnia ...
• What is the pathology that leads to restrictive alveolar hypoventilation? A. edema of the medulla ...
• Regional discrepancy between alveolar ventilation and capillary blood flow leads to a violation; A. diffusion ...
• In what pathology does impairment of lung perfusion play a major role in development of ...
• Under what pathology can death occur from asphyxia: A. 2 sides. pneumothorax B. pneumonia ...
• What type of breathing with an excess of excitatory afferentation (stress, hysteria, skin burn, etc.): ...
• Failure of breathing of the obstructive form develops: A. stagnation in the pulmonary circulation ...
• Under what pathology is the diffusion capacity of the lungs impaired: A. pulmonary embolism ...
• Increased airiness of the lung tissue is noted when: A. pneumonia B. lung abscess ...
• Terminal types of breathing include: A. Kussmaul breathing, gasping-breathing B. apnea, Kussmaul breathing, bradypnoe ...
• Maintaining a normal blood gas composition is ensured by: A. ventilation of the alveoli, diffusion, ...
• Under what pathological processes does lung perfusion decrease: A. impaired contractility of the right ventricle ...
• Indicate the reasons for the development of alveolar hyperventilation lungs: A. lung tumor B. silicosis, ...
• Occurs when the ventricles of the heart are unable to contract effectively and blood pools ...
• Chest pain may cause? A. permanent damage to the heart muscle B. Heart ...
• It is the medical term used for heart attack. A. Myocardial Infection B. Myocardial Infarction ...
• A condition where an embolus is carried by the bloodstream until it reaches an artery ...
• A cancerous or malignant conditions in which there is a great increase in the number ...
• It happens when when there is a clogged arteries called plaque. A. Asthma B. Atherosclerosis ...
• Do you think Atherosclerosis is a chronic or an acute disease? A. Chronic B. Acute ...
• Which of these are problems associated with the cardio-vascular system? A. COPD, DVT and angina ...
• Which of the following disorders could be treated with chemotherapy, radiation, and/or bone marrow transplant? ...
• Atrial fibrillation is when inappropriate contractions of a dilated atrium do not push blood from ...
• Caused by blockage of the arteries, usually in the legs. A. Peripheral Vascular Disease ...
• Term used for rapid heart rate (more than 100 beats per minute) A. Bradycardia ...
• What circulatory disorder could be diagnosed with an electrocardiogram (ECG)? A. anemia B. fibrillation ...
• Its symptoms may include sudden difficulty in speaking or understanding words, paralysis of the face ...
• What is Atherosclerosis? A. It's a disease that affects the arteries B. It's a disease ...
• A localized clotted mass of blood found in an organ, tissue or space. It is ...
• It is triggered by irritants like pollutants, dirt or pollen. A. Asthma B. Hypertension ...
• A hereditary disease in which the blood clots slowly or abnormally. This causes prolonged bleeding ...
• Commonly referred to as chest pains, the heart is receiving an insufficient amount of blood ...
• The nurse is going to assist a child to perform incentive Spirometry. The nurse position ...
• Which condition would be caused by an embolism that blocks a vein in the leg? ...
• Term used to discuss any change or deviation from the normal rate or rhythm of ...
• term for slow heart rate (less than 60 beats per minute) A. Bradycardia B. Tachycardia ...
• COPD is a term to describe a group of breathing condition such as... A. Chronic ...
• Bleeding from blood vessels within the brain A. Myocardial Infarction B. Cerebral Hemorrhage C. Arrhythmia ...
• A specific blood test to confirm an acute myocardial infarction is? A. Lipid profile ...
• Disease that occurs when deposits of fatty substances form along the walls of the arteries. ...
• It is caused by a rupture on a blood vessel on the brain. A. COVID-19 ...
• High Blood pressure is known as A. hypersomnia B. hyperventilation C. hypertension D. hypoxia ...
• Anterior Rhinoscopy is preferred over anterior or posterior rhinoscopy for examination of the middle and ...
• Nasal endoscopy should be used as the first diagnostic step for identifying nasal polyps; however, ...
• Nasal polyposis and asthma often occur together, reflecting common underlying inflammatory mechanisms. A. TRUE ...
• Nasal Polyp is caused by acute inflammation of the nasal mucosa, characterized by multiple and ...
• Patients with nasal polyposis, microbial colonization and accumulation of immune cells can result in __________, ...
• Defined as semi translucent, pale gray, benign, grape like lesions arising from the lining of ...
• Asthmatics with nasal polyposis have higher scores for nasal obstruction and loss of sense of ...
• t was observed among healthy adults that this bacteria have higher rates of colonization that ...
• MRI is commonly used for visualization of the paranasal sinuses A. TRUE B. FALSE
• A symptom that is often associated with CRSwNP. A. Facial Pain/Pressure B. Facial Congestion/ Fullness ...
• Generally, rhinitis and sinusitis co-exist. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Rhinosinusitis is defined as the presence of one or two or more symptoms, one of ...
• Nasal biopsy , although not generally considered a useful diagnostic tool, may be used in ...
• MRI may be used for the diagnosis of unilateral polyps, particularly for investigating serious conditions ...
• Multiple pathways are involved with pathophysiology of nasal polyposis A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Generally, rhinitis and sinusitis co-exist. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Chronic Rhinosinusitis is classified based on the presence or absence of polyps. A. TRUE ...
• 7-39% of patients with nasal polyposis have asthma, whereas 30-70% of patients with asthma have ...
• Which of the following is Not the phase of physiological tooth movement? A. Post-eruptive movement ...
• The space of incisal edge of the teeth during opening phase is A. 12 to ...
• What are the Features of serous acini? A. Watery consistency and rich with protein ...
• How much force generated during the routine mastication of food? A. 20N to 50N ...
• Which of the following is the type of bone presents in the furcation (interradicular area)? ...
• A patient presented with 8mm overjet and 10% overbite. He also has a convex profile. ...
• The periodontal ligament A. Derives its blood primarily from the branches of vessels entering the ...
• Non Oral manifestations in insulin deficiency      A. pulpal calcification B. xerostomia C. periodontal ...
• What are the highest bacteria population at dorsum of tongue? A. S.oralis B. S.sangius ...
• What is the Characteristic of parotid glands? A. Mixed 60% B. Mucous 5% C. Serous ...
• There are the early colonizers at our tooth surface, except A. S.oralis B. P.intermedia ...
• which of the following bones immediately surrounding to roots and giving support for insertion of ...
• Which of the following occurs during the early stage of eruption of the tooth ...
• The predominant micro-organism in the first 24 hours of plaque formation are : A. Vibrious ...
• “Local increase in tissue fluid pressure in the periapical region of the tooth cause the ...
• What is the largest portion in ductal system A. Parotid B. Submandibular C. Sublingual
• Mechanism of tooth shedding due to force mastication is all true EXCEPT A. Force of ...
• Choose the correct statement about dental follicle theory I. Giving rise to periodontal ligament ...
• A patient presented with a full permanent dentition, except for the third molars. On the ...
• Which of the following is not the principal fiber group of the periodontal ligament ...
• During remineralisation, there will be an increase in: A. acidic environment in the mouth. ...
• Tooth shedding is predominantly the A. Physiologic loss of impacted teeth B. Pathologic loss of ...
• Hormone changes that will cause periodontal problem in menopause patients A. Leptin B. Androgen ...
• Which of the following cells are the predominant connective tissue cells of the periodontal ligament? ...
• Which layer is exposed if the tooth is sensitive to thermal stimulus? A. Enamel ...
• Pulpitis is the inflammation of the pulp. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Dental plaque is the main cause of the dental diseases. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• More toothpaste = cleaner teeth A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Wisdom tooth erupts around the age of 17-21. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Based on the graph, which patient has a higher ...
• Bleeding during toothbrushing is normal. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What types of tooth are absent in a primary dentition? A. Incisor B. Canine ...
• Crown:root ratio is a factor in treatment planning for a tooth, especially when it comes ...
• Hard bristle toothbrush can clean teeth better. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Hardest tissue in the human body? A. Enamel B. Dentine C. Bone D. Muscle
• Dental caries is the demineralization of tooth due to acid produced by bacteria. A. TRUE ...
• Scaling should be done every 6-12 months. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Toothbrushing frequency and duration is more important than toothbrushing technique. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Typically, root development is halted in a tooth with pulp necrosis (dead tooth). A. TRUE ...
• ___________ focus exclusively on mental health. A. Cardiologist B. Psychiatrists C. Ophthalmologist D. None of ...
• A _______________ is a doctor who treats diseases related to skin.  A. Gynaecologists B. dermatologist ...
• Radiologists work with ___________ A. MRIs B. CT scans C. X-rays D. All of these ...
• Pulmonologist is a doctor who treats diseases of the__________. A. heart B. lungs C. bones ...
• ______________ are doctors who treat hearing disorders. A. Orthopaedic doctors B. Radiologists C. Audiologists ...
• A _____________ is a doctor that specializes in childhood medicine. A. Psychiatrists B. paediatrician ...
• Cardiologists treat and diagnose problems with the _____________ A. lungs B. kidney C. heart ...
• Otolaryngologist  has special training in diagnosing and treating diseases of the _____________. A. ear ...
• The doctor whom the entire family counsels when sick becomes their _____________. A. Cardiologists ...
• When a person has a medical concern, they may turn to a __________ for help. ...
• A ________________ treats disorders of the nerves and nervous systems. A. cardiologist B. neurologist ...
• Once an antigen presenting macrophage has engulfed a pathogen and is displaying its antigens, where ...
• Cell Mediated Immunity is better suited to dealing with: A. Intracellular infections B. extracellular infections ...
• Humoral Immunity involves mainly: A. T Cells B. Phagocytes C. B Cells D. Fever and ...
• Which of the following is NOT a function of an antibody? A. Attach to pathogens ...
• Once a B cell has been selected via a T Helper cell, it undergoes clonal ...
• An antibody is: A. A tertiary structure with 4 proteins, including a constant and variable ...
• Which of the of the following molecules are not part of the adaptive immune system? ...
• The bonds that hold together antibodies are: A. Polypeptide Bonds B. Hydrogen Bonds C. Phosphodiester ...
• What is a naive B or T Cell? A. A cell that has been selected ...
• Which of the 3 phagocytes is not a professional antigen presenter? A. Macrophages B. Neutrophils ...
• Which of the following statements is true? A. Plasma cells produce antibodies that can exist ...
• What is the role of a T Helper Cell? A. To recognise a particular antigen ...
• The variable region within an antibody is: A. Different with each arm able to bind ...
• a statement that is the opposite of the original hypothesis. Research must be compared to ...
• the perception of a relationship where none exist A. Independent variable B. Illusory correlation ...
• When the researcher himself alters or changes the result of the study. For example, a ...
• a simulated or otherwise medically ineffectual (fake) treatment for a disease or other medical condition ...
• a statement of procedures (operations) used to define research variables. For example, human intelligence may ...
• the middle score in a distribution, half the scores are above it and half are ...
• a testable prediction, often implied by a theory A. Naturalistic observations B. Median C. Hypothesis ...
• an observation technique in which one person is studied in depth in the hope of ...
• established by the A.P.A, guidelines that outline what s acceptable and unacceptable for treatment of ...
• observing and recording behavior in naturally occurring situations without trying to manipulate and control the ...
• techniques that allow researchers to make generalizations (or to infer) about the populations from which ...
• the tendency to overestimate how easy something might be or how long a task might ...
• a factory other than the independent variable that might produce an effect in an experiment ...
• a measure of the extent to which two factors vary together, and thus of how ...
• an ethical principle that research participants be told enough to enable them to choose whether ...
• the arithmetic average of a distribution, obtained by adding the scores then dividing by the ...
• in an experiment when neither the participants nor the researchers know who belongs to the ...
• a research method in which an investigator manipulates one or more factors (independent variables) to ...
• the outcome factor; the variable that may change in response t manipulations of the independent ...
• when patients given a placebo treatment will have a perceived or actual improvement in a ...
• a statistical index of the relationship between two things (from -1 to +1) A. Experimental ...
• All the cases in a group being studied, from which samples may be drawn ...
• a phenomenon in which participants alter their behavior as a result of being part of ...
• the most frequently occurring score(s), in a distribution A. mean B. median C. mode ...
• (normal curve) a symmetrical, bell-shaped curve that describes the distribution of many types of data; ...
• in an experiment, the group that is exposed to the treatment, that is, to one ...
• a graph that shows the frequency between two things A. Histogram B. Hypothesis C. Mode ...
• an ethical principle the research participants’ identity and information remain private in any research study ...
• type of descriptive statistic that is a single value that attempts to describe a set ...
• the experimental factor that is manipulated; the variable whose effect is being studied A. Informed ...
• the post experimental explanation of a study, including its purpose and any deceptions, to its ...
• refers to how spread apart the scores of the distribution are or how much the ...
• in an experiment, the group that is not exposed to the treatment: contrast with the ...
• a group of procedures that summarize or describe a set of data. These procedures include ...
• Based on the report, melanoma may be found on parts of the body not normally ...
• This classification includes everything on the surface of the body. A. Dermatosis B. Intergumentary System ...
• True or False: Many skin conditions share common symptoms, and it can be easily ...
• The most common form of skin cancer that strikes in the top layer of the ...
• Skin conditions that involve inflammation. A. Dermatitis B. Derma C. Dermatosis D. Dermatologist
• A cell in the skin and eyes that produces and contains the pigment called melanin . ...
• When chemotherapy is taken by mouth or injected into a vein or muscle. A. Regional ...
• Based on the report, the following are common causes of dermatosis except: A. Autoimmune disorders ...
• We are having new skin every… A. 2 weeks B. quarterly C. 30 days ...
• Refers to diseases of the intergumentary system (does not involve inflammation). A. Dermatitis ...
• Primary treatment of all stages of melanoma. A. Targeted Therapy B. Radiation therapy C. Surgery ...
• A geriatric skin condition that is characterized by pruritic, dry, ...
• _____________ studies illnesses and analyses samples. A. Pathology B. Cardiology C. Neurology D. Haematology
• _____________ studies blood disorders. A. Obstetrics B. Paediatrics C. Physiotherapy D. Haematology
• _____________ specializes in the heart A. Pathology B. Cardiology C. Neurology D. Orthopaedics
• _____________ treats disorders of the nervous system. A. Pathology B. Cardiology C. Neurology D. Orthopaedics ...
• _____________ treats bones. A. Pathology B. Cardiology C. Neurology D. Orthopaedics
• _____________ deals with sick children. A. Obstetrics B. Paediatrics C. Physiotherapy D. Haematology
• _____________ dispenses medicines. A. Pharmacy B. Pathology C. Physiotherapy D. Orthopaedics
• _____________ designs special exercises for patients A. Obstetrics B. Paediatrics C. Physiotherapy D. Haematology
• _____________ performs operations on patients. A. Surgery B. Cardiology C. Dermatology D. Orthopaedics
• _____________ specializes in pregnancy and birth. A. Obstetrics B. Paediatrics C. Orthopaedics D. Haematology
• _____________ treats kidney diseases A. Renal Unit B. Pathology C. Physiotherapy D. Orthopaedics
• _____________ treats diseases of the skin. A. Surgery B. Cardiology C. Dermatology D. Orthopaedics
• What is the term given for substances that the body needs and uses to function ...
• Made up of amino acids A. Carbohydrates B. Protein C. Fats
• The primary purpose is to provide energy A. Carbohydrates B. Protein C. Fats
• Though it is not a main source of energy, it helps supply your body with ...
• Which type of nutrient provides us with the energy for body processes and functions? ...
• What type of nutrient like vitamins and supplements, when missing, your fingernails may split, lose ...
• This solid type is often found in animal products A. Carbohydrates B. Protein C. Fats ...
• A fat like substance that is found in animal products and is a necessary part ...
• Used in repair and growth of your body A. Carbohydrates B. Protein C. Fats ...
• Known as sugars A. Carbohydrates B. Protein C. Fats
• It helps form your cells phospholipid bilayer A. Carbohydrates B. Protein C. Fats
• What is the term for the process by which your body takes in and uses ...
• A patient loses trust in a phlebotomists when they A. brushes off the patient's concerns ...
• Basic metabolic panels (BMPs) are performed in which department? A. chemistry B. hematology C. microbiology ...
• Which of the following is an ancient bloodletting instrument has a counterpart in a modern-day ...
• A phlebotomist who appears knowledgeable, honest, and sincere is creating in the patient a sense ...
• The phlebotomist is asked to collect a specimen from a patient in the nephrology department. ...
• The medical specialty treats patients with tumors? A. Geriatrics B. Oncology C. Ophthalmology ...
• Which of the following is a chemistry test? A. Hemoglobin A1c B. hematocrit C. Platelet ...
• Which of the following is the name or abbreviation of the federal law that established ...
• Which of the following situations allows patients to feel in control? A. agreeing with patients ...
• Which laboratory department performs tests to identify abnormalities of the blood and bloodforming tissues? ...
• Which of the following tests is performed in the coagulation department? A. BUN B. CBC ...
• A phlebotomist is told to take procedural shortcuts to save time in collecting specimens during ...
• Which of the following departments performs blood cultures? A. chemistry B. hematology C. microbiology ...
• The primary duty of a phlebotomist? A. access all specimens B. Collect blood specimens ...
• Blood typing and compatibility testing are performed in this department: A. chemistry B. hematology ...
• Phlebotomy is used as a therapeutic treatment for: A. diabetes B. hypothyroidism C. phlebitis ...
• Another name for the blood bank is: A. Immunohematology B. Immunology C. microbiology D. serology ...
• Which of the following is a confirming response to a patient? A. I am on ...
• optimum growth temperature of of bacteria A. 25c to 45c B. 24c to 46c ...
• common diseases caused by bacteria in hospital are ? A. blood stream infection B. hospital ...
• what of the following is true about methylene blue ? A. involves only one step ...
• identify this A. acid fasting ...
• crystal violet during gram staining of bacteria is retained in ? A. gram positive ...
• identify ? A. acid fasting staning ...
• identify the image A. bacteria ...
• identify which is exotoxin and which is endotoxin ? ...
• what is the term (bacterial growth curve) used for the phase in which bacteria die ...
• which phase refers to maturation of individual bacteria without division ? A. lag phase ...
• what is the purpose of staining of bacteria? A. to increase visibility B. enhance morphological ...
• management of bacterial infection includes ? A. antibiotics B. antiviral C. antipyrectic D. antiemitic
• bacteria are mostly A. mesophiles B. thermophiles C. psychrophiles D. neutrophiles
• Example of aerobic bacteria ? A. bacillus cereus B. clostridium perfringens C. clostridium botulinum ...
• what is binary fission ? A. increase in size of bacteria B. increase ...
• ziehl-neelson stain is an example of ? A. methylene blue B. gram staining C. acid ...
• what do you understand by stationary phase of bacteria growth curve ? A. bacteria grow ...
• gram staining is done on which of the following ? A. cell wall difference ...
• which of the following is false about differential staining method of bacteria ? A. allows ...
• what is the bacterial staining method in which only one die is used ? ...
• optimum PH of for bacterial growth is which of the following ? A. 4.0 ...
• To identify mycobacterium , which stain is used ? A. ziehl neelsen stain B. romanowsky ...
• As we look at a flower, the intensity of the color we see is related ...
• Tamika hates the bitter taste of her cough syrup. Which of the following would she ...
• What receptor allows humans to see better in low or dim light? A. Rods ...
• Problems with the vestibular system would likely cause a person to A. not recognize shapes ...
• Which of the following scenarios most clearly describes the effects of a strong kinesthetic sense? ...
• Most color-deficient people will probably: A. Lack functioning red-or-green-sensitive cones B. See the world in ...
• What is the first part of the eye that light hits? A. lens B. cornea ...
• In vision, transduction occurs within the A. Optic nerve B. Visual cortex C. Retina ...
• The size of the pupil is controlled by the: A. Lens B. Retina C. Cornea ...
• Our sense of smell may be a powerful trigger for memories because A. olfaction messages ...
• The theory that the retina contains three different color receptors- Red, Green, and Blue- is ...
• Experiencing a green afterimage of a red object is most easily explained by A. the ...
• If we did not have cones in our eyes, we would not see A. colors ...
• What three primary colors of light are detected by your cones? A. Green, red, and ...
• Diamond went swimming with friends who did not want to get into the water because ...
• Which of the following is not a taste profile? A. Umami B. Spicy C. Sweet ...
• What is Sensation? A. Process of neuronal activity traveling from our fingers to our brain. ...
• The eye’s “blind spot” is related to: A. light rays focusing too far in front ...
• A short wavelength would most likely produce what color? A. Red B. Yellow C. Green ...
• Olfaction refers to which sense? A. Smell B. Taste C. Touch D. Sight
• The effect of beta2 stimulation caused bronchial: A. Spasms B. Dilation C. Constriction D. Secretions ...
• The term that is synonymous with ventricular contraction is: A. Systole B. Heart rate ...
• The _______ is directly affected by the exact volume of blood that returns to the ...
• The effect of alpha stimulation causes: A. Increased Bronchial Dilation B. Decreased Heart Rate ...
• Acetylcholine is the chemical neurotransmitter for the ________ nervous system. A. Peripheral B. Parasympathetic ...
• The valve between the right ventricle and the pulmonary arteries is termed the: A. Pulmonic ...
• The valve between the right atrium and the right ventricle is the: A. Tricuspid Semilunar ...
• The amount of opposition to blood flow offered by the arterioles is known as: ...
• The result of the release of norepinephrine is the: A. Decrease in heart rate and ...
• The valve located between the left atrium and the left ventricle is the: A. Pulmonic ...
• When acetylcholine is released, it causes the heart rate to: A. Increase and atrioventricular conduction ...
• The formula for cardiac output is stroke volume X ________. A. Respiratory Rate B. Blood ...
• The effect of beta1 stimulation causes: A. Decreased contractility B. Vasodilation C. Decreased heart rate ...
• The only artery that carries unoxygenated blood is the: A. Left Coronary Artery B. Brachial ...
• The term that defines the volume of blood pumped out of one ventricle of the ...
• Norepinephrine is the chemical neurotransmitter for the: A. Parasympathetic Nervous System B. Peripheral Semilunar Valve ...
• All of the following are signs of inadequate cardiac output EXCEPT: A. Low Blood Pressure ...
• The term that is synonymous with ventricular relaxation is: A. Afterload B. Diastole C. Stroke ...
• The system that is responsible for regulating the calmer functions of our existence is the: ...
• The autonomic nervous system is divided into ________ major divisions. A. 6 B. 4 ...
• The system that is responsible for the preparation of the body for physical activity is ...
• The resistance against which the heart must pump is termed: A. Preload B. Heartload ...
• A concept known as Starling's Law of the heart is a result of the ________ ...
• The only vein that carries oxygenated blood is the: A. Lateral Marginal Vein B. Inferior ...
• Blood pressure is affected by peripheral vascular resistance and cardiac: A. Input B. Preload ...
• Neoplasms that are confined to a local area and do not spread are called ...
• _________ is the spread of the neoplasms to a distant site A. angiogenesis B. necrosis ...
• Atypical cells that just sit in the epithelial layer of tissue and have not broken ...
• Removing a small piece of tissue for microscopic examination is known as a(n) A. biopsy ...
• The examination of cells is known as A. physiology B. cytology C. oncology D. pharmacology ...
• A _________ or large bruise may be called a tumor A. Lymphoma B. Carcinoma ...
• Cancer-causing agents known as A. carcinomas B. carcinogens C. hyperplasias D. dysplasias
• considers the degree of spreading A. Staging B. Testing C. Identifying D. Grading
• As long as abnormal cells are not firmly established, the are considered preneoplastic or ...
• Cancer cells are metastasized through the ______ system or the blood A. immune B. lymphatic ...
• determines the degree of abnormality A. Staging B. Investigating C. Grading D. Developing
• Grade __ tumors are the most aggressive tumors. A. I B. III C. IV ...
• Continued exposure to a ________ can increase or promote the abnormality of a cell ...
• Neoplasms are commonly called A. lymphoma B. carcinomas C. tumor D. hematomas
• What is the system in our gut that is also known as our second brain? ...
• Which of these foods is considered one of the most nutrient dense foods you can ...
• High levels of vitamin C can help with which aspect of our mental health? ...
• What is not a macronutrient? A. Carbohydrates B. Protein C. Minerals D. Good fats
• Which of these combinations produces healthy levels of vitamin C? A. Eggs and meat ...
• How many people will experience a mental health problem of some kind each year in ...
• Green beans are high in vitamin K. What does vitamin K help reduce? A. Depression ...
• In Spain, how many people over the age of 15 have been diagnosed with a ...
• Our guts and brain are physically linked and communicate via which nerve? A. Nagus Nerve ...
• Which of these hormones is not a 'happy hormone?' It does not promote a good ...
• Antivenom injection contains performed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into body contain ...
• To which type of barriers under innate immunity do saliva from mouth and tears from ...
• Which of the following is an autoimmune disorder? A. Myasthenia gravis B. Osteoporosis ...
• Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations? ...
• A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by giving A. Weakened germs ...
• Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease ? A. Which of the ...
• Which one is not property of cancer cells  A. They show contact inhibition ...
• Use of antihistamines and steroids give a quick relief from A. Allergy B. Nausea C. Cough D. Headache
• MALT constitutes about ___________ of the lymphoid tissue in human body. A. 50% ...
• If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following ...
• ADA deficiency results in A. Increased risk of infertility B. Inability of the ...
• What are the main functions of globulins found in human blood plasma? A. Body's ...
• For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. ...
• The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to A. Thymus B. Thyroid C. ...
• Which of the following immunoglobulins constitute the largest percentage in human milk? A. IgM ...
• The role of an active immune system is that : A. It recruits many ...
• Cell mediated immunity is provided by A. B-Lymphocytes B. Plasma cells C. ...
• The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by mammary glands of mother during the initial days of ...
• The yellowish fluid colostrum has abundant antibodies to protect infant is A. Ig A ...
• Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity? A. Active immunity is quick and ...
• Which of the following immune responses is responsible for rejection of kidney graft? A. ...
• It is a combination of electrophoresis and double immunodiffusion. A. Complement Fixation B. ...
• It is the primary assay used in Clinical Chemistry. A. Complement Fixation B. ...
• In the Ouchterlony method, this formation of the precipitin line indicates that the antigens are ...
• In Rocket Electrophoresis, a higher antigen concentration is proportional to: A. The time of ...
• It is the method for single linear diffusion. A. Fahey and Mancini B. ...
• The following are assays that involve the primary manifestation of immunologic reactions except: A. ...
• The following are disadvantages of chemiluminescent assays except: A. Detection systems basically consist of ...
• In the precipitin curve, the zone where there is maximum antibody bound to the least ...
• It is an agglutination reaction where the antibodies are attached to a carrier molecule instead ...
• In the precipitin curve, the zone of antigen excess is known as: A. Ozone ...
• In the precipitin curve, the zone of antibody excess is known as: A. Zone ...
• This occurs when antigens are found naturally on the surface of a particle, where the ...
• This employs the use of antigens not normally found on the surface of a particle, ...
• In agglutination reactions such as in the case of ABO blood typing, a +4 reaction ...
• It is the simplest method for detection of antigen-antibody reactions. A. Chemiluminescene Assay ...
• +2 Grading refers to: A. All cells free, no agglutination B. Many fairly ...
• It is an agglutination reaction where the positive result is the lack of agglutination. ...
• The Mancini technique of single radial diffusion is also known as the: A. Kinetic ...
• The following are commonly used chemiluminescent labels except: A. Acridinium esters B. Dioxetane ...
• It is an agglutination reaction that makes use of a bacteria as inert particles to ...
• True or False, there are two kinds of carbohydrates; starches and sugars A. TRUE ...
• This nutrient is the main source of energy for your body A. fat ...
• How much sleep do you need every night? A. 4 - 5 hours ...
• This nutrient provides energy and gives food flavor A. vitamin B. carbohydrate ...
• Nutrients that help your body use carbohydrates, fats and proteins A. minerals B. ...
• How many glasses of water does your body need in one day? A. 0 ...
• This nutrient is needed to build, grow, and repair body cells. A. protein ...
• A substance in food the body uses for energy. A. fat B. nutrient ...
• The part of grains and plant foods that your body doesn't digest is A. ...
• True or False, you need water to help regulate your body temperature, remove waste and ...
• Why should you eat a healthy breakfast? A. Fuel to start my day ...
• True or False - Your body can function well if you only get 3 - ...
• What is the most important meal of the day? A. dinner B. supper ...
• Nutrients are substances in food that the body needs for growth, repair, and energy. ...
• A good source of complex carbohydrates is... A. Fruit B. Honey C. ...
• Emotions have no influence on when or what a person eats. A. TRUE ...
• Eating a variety of healthful foods can lower your risk of cardiovascular disease. A. ...
• Which type of nutrient is NOT a source of energy? A. Protein B. ...
• Calories are the units that measure the fat in food. A. TRUE B. ...
• Compounds found in food that help regulate many body processes... A. Carbohydrates B. ...
• A waxy, fat like substance found in the blood... A. Amino acid B. ...
• Nutrient-dense foods have a high ratio of nutrients to calories. A. TRUE B. ...
• The five major food groups are... A. Grains, Vegetables, Milk, Meat, and Beans ...
• Nutrition is the process by which your body takes in and uses food. A. ...
• Children who eat breakfast are more likely to be overweight. A. TRUE B. ...
• The number of calories you need each day depends on... A. Your age ...
• Nutrition affects your health only while you are still growing. A. TRUE B. ...
• A tough, complex carbohydrate that the body cannot digest... A. Fructose B. Cholesterol ...
• Hunger occurs when the body sends a signal that it is time to eat. ...
• Which nutrient is necessary for healthy bones? A. Fiber B. Calcium C. ...
• Culture is an external influence on food decisions. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Starches and sugars in food that provide most of the body's energy... A. Vitamins ...
• Nutrients the body uses to build and maintain its cells and tissues... A. Protein ...
• Which type of fats may help lower your risk of heart disease? A. Saturated ...
• Teens should be physically active for 30 minutes every day for good health A. ...
• Hunger is the psychological desire for food. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Foods that contain all nine essential amino acids include... A. Grains B. Nuts ...
• What you eat is unlikely to be affected by your environment. A. TRUE ...
• what kind of muscle is found in the intestines, bladder, and blood vessels? A. ...
• Name the joint that makes up elbow, knee and fingers A. Ball-and-socket joints ...
• what kind of muscle is found only in the heart? A. valentine muscle ...
• What are the 3 types of muscles? A. Skeletal, muscular, ligament B. Skeletal, ...
• Based on the picture, which sentence correctly explains how ...
• What are the ends of bones covered with that helps reduce friction when to bones ...
• What is the function of the bone marrow? A. To make protein B. ...
• What happens to biceps and triceps when you bend your arm? A. The biceps ...
• what is a smooth slippery flexible tissue that cushions bone? A. cartilage B. ...
• what tissue attaches muscle to bone? A. ligaments B. tendons C. cartilage ...
• what is a disease in which joints become irritated or inflamed? A. jointitis ...
• Which of the following is a Ball and Socket joint A. Ankle joint ...
• what is a strong tissue that connects bone to bone? A. ligament B. ...
• When a muscle contracts, it _______ A. gets longer B. gets shorter ...
• A ______________________ attach bones to each other at joints. A. Ligament B. Bone ...
• what kind of system involves all the bones of the body? A. circulatory system ...
• What happens to biceps and triceps when you straighten your arm? A. The biceps ...
• Movement of arm/leg toward the midline A. flexion B. extension C. adduction ...
• Movement to straighten a joint A. extension B. flexion C. dorsiflexion ...
• In the diagram of a motor unit, what is ...
• When actin is pulled past the myosin filament the.. A. Sarcomere shortens B. ...
• Which of the following statements is true about the sliding filament theory? A. During ...
• Thick filaments are in a myofibril are A. ATPase B. Sarcoplasmic reticulum ...
• Which number represents myosin filament? A. ...
• Which types of movement are permitted by the hip joint? A. flexion and extension ...
• Calcium: A. causes ATP binding to ...
• What is cholinesterase? A. It's an enzyme B. It's a mineral C. ...
• What state is the sarcomere in #1 ...
• ___ and ___ are regulatory proteins bound to actin.  A. Troponin and tropomyosin ...
• What is the definition of atrophy? A. Reduction in size or wasting away of ...
• What is the name of the gap between two neurons? A. Synapse B. ...
• When a muscle contracts A. both actin and myosin become shorter in length ...
• What two chemicals are necessary for muscle contraction to occur? A. Niacin and Potassium ...
• What is the neurotransmitter involved in stimulating muscle contraction? A. Tropomysosin B. Acetylcholine ...
• Region where a motor neuron comes in close contact with a muscle cell. A. ...
• Skeletal Muscle contraction is initiated when the ________ sends a message to the muscle cell. ...
• Which types of movement are permitted by the elbow joint? A. flexion and extension ...
• What structural component separates each sarcomere? ...
• Movement of the hand/foot so that the thumb/big toe moves toward the midline A. ...
• Movement of the arm/leg away from the midline A. adduction B. eversion ...
• Movement of hand/foot so that the thumb/big toe moves away from the midline A. ...
• Contractile unit of a muscle which is also the functional unit of a muscle is ...
• What is the structure that stores the Calcium in the muscle cell.   A. ...
• The organelle that contains actin and myosin. A. Tendon B. myofilament C. ...
• Movement to bend a joint A. extension B. circumduction C. eversion ...
• Thin filaments in a myofibril are A. Sarcomeres B. Sarcoplasm C. Actin ...
• What is a crossbridge? A. Where myosin binds to actin B. Where the ...
• The part of the neuron that insulates the axon and increases the speed of the ...
• All the parts of the nervous system except the ...
• Which two types of glial cells produce myelin coverings ...
• Which type of glial cells are found in the ...
• If we did not have this type of cell, ...
• The brain A. Central Nervous System (CNS) B. Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) ...
• This is made up of the brain and spinal ...
• What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system? A. central and peripheral ...
• Fight or flight A. Parasympathetic B. Sympathetic
• Which glial cell is responsible for cleaning up and ...
• Cardiac muscles A. Somatic B. Autonomic
• Rest & digest A. Parasympathetic B. Sympathetic
• Myelin would be which color of structure? ...
• Smooth muscles A. Somatic B. Autonomic
• What is the name of the part of the ...
• The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are two arms of the ________. A. central nervous ...
• Which type of cell is located between neurons and ...
• Which part of the peripheral nervous system deals with involuntary activities? A. somatic ...
• Skeletal muscles A. Somatic B. Autonomic
• Spinal cord A. Central Nervous System (CNS) B. Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)
• What is the name of the blue structure ...
• Nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord A. Central Nervous System (CNS) ...
• Which is the correct sequence in the transmission of ...
• _____ neurons carry messages to the central nervous system A. Motor B. Inter ...
• An axon conducts nerve impulses _________ the cell body. A. away from B. ...
• Which part of the peripheral nervous system deals with activities that we can control? ...
• What is the name of the part of the ...
• Which type of blood vessel exchanges solutes and water with body cells? A. vein ...
• Letter D is pointing to A. ...
• Identify A. Pulmonary veins ...
• The left atrioventricular valve (AV) is also know as the ___ or ___ valve ...
• The right atrioventricular valve (AV) is also know as the ___ valve A. Mitral ...
• This part of the heart separates the left and right heart chambers. A. Mitral ...
• Of the four chambers, which one carries deoxygenated blood? ...
• Which side of the heart pumps blood into the lungs? A. Right B. ...
• Which type of blood vessel is under the most pressure? A. vein B. ...
• Deoxygenated blood travels from the right atrium to the right ventricle through this valve: ...
• What happens to your vascular smooth tissue when you are hot? A. vasoconstriction ...
• The largest artery in the body is the: A. Aorta B. Pulmonary Artery ...
• Which side of the heart has oxygen rich blood? A. Left Side B. ...
• Letter G is pointing to A. ...
• Which does NOT describe an artery? A. thick walls for high pressure B. ...
• Reaction rate means... A. amount of product formed B. speed of reaction ...
• Decreasing the particle size increases the reaction rate because A. It makes particles move ...
• To slow down a chemical reaction you will do one of the following: A. ...
• More collisions correspond to a:  A. Faster reaction rate   B. Slower reaction ...
• Which of the following increase the reaction rate? A. less surface area B. ...
• What is activation energy? A. The maximum amount of energy used B. The ...
• Grinding a seltzer tablet into powder increases the rate of reaction due to... A. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting reaction rate? A. temperature ...
• Under the collision theory, the particles must collide with  ____ and ____ for a reaction ...
• More collisions correspond to a:  A. Faster reaction rate   B. Slower reaction ...
• Why does a higher temperature increase the rate of a reaction? A. it increases ...
• What is a haversian canal? A. channels lying at right angles to the central ...
• The organic matrix is produced by ____________. A. Osteoblasts B. Osteoclasts C. ...
• ______________ are needlelike structures that are arranged along stress lines. A. Osteons B. ...
• The function of the matrix is to provide the bone with ____________. A. Strength ...
• The __________ is also referred to as the organic matrix. A. Osteocyte B. ...
• Identify C: A. lamella ...
• What is osseous tissue? A. mature bone cell B. bone tissue C. ...
• Identify A: A. lamella ...
• Identify B: A. lamella ...
• ___________ permit the exchange of materials. A. Channels B. Osteons C. Osteocytes ...
• What is periosteum? A. mature bone cell B. bone tissue C. dense ...
• What is an osteocyte? A. mature bone cell B. bone tissue C. ...
• Identify G: A. Blood vessels ...
• Identify D: A. Blood vessels ...
• Identify F: A. Blood vessels ...
• What is lacunae? A. mature bone cell B. bone tissue C. dense ...
• Which part of the diencephalon is an important autonomic nervous system center, houses the limbic ...
• What is the term for the fiber tract that connects and allows communication between the ...
• Which protection of the brain forms a watery cushion to protect fragile nervous tissue from ...
• What is a slight brain injury where, typically, little permanent brain damage occurs A. ...
• Which part of the cerebral cortex allows us to consciously move skeletal muscles? A. ...
• Which cerebral hemisphere controls the left side of the body? A. right B. ...
• ​The ______ horns of the spinal corn house interneurons that receive information from sensory neurons.​ ...
• In which lobe of the cerebrum is auditory input interpreted? A. frontal B. ...
• What is meningitis? A. inflammation of brain B. inflammation of protective wrapping of ...
• Which layer of the meninges is the fibrous double layered outer covering? A. dura ...
• In which lobe of the cerebrum is visual input interpreted? A. frontal B. ...
• What is the term for the raised ridges on the cerebral hemispheres? A. gyri ...
• What are the shallow grooves on the cerebral hemispheres? A. gyri B. sulci ...
• What results when blood circulation to a brain area is blocked and brain tissue dies? ...
• T/F: The basal nuclei of the cerebrum regulate voluntary motor activities by modifying instructions sent ...
• T/F: The sensory (afferent) tracts of the spinal cord conduct impulses toward brain A. TRUE ...
• Which part of the diencephalon is the relay station for sensory impulses passing upward to ...
• What are the deep grooves on the cerebral hemispheres that separate the halves and lobes? ...
• Which subfield is illustrated: decreased levels of dopamine in the brain potentially causes Parkinson's disease. ...
• The point at which a change in sensory stimulation is detected is called the ...
• Which of the following is considered the fundamental building block of the nervous system? ...
• Neurotransmitters are_____that travel across the _____to another cell. A. electrical signals; receptors B. ...
• These tests attempt to predict the test takers future performance.   A. Aptitude ...
• Although Nicole scored well above average on the SAT, she frequently loses her temper and ...
• Researchers assess the correlation between scores obtained on two halves of a single test in ...
• A researcher presents two lights of varying brightness to a subject who is asked to ...
• The ability to control one's impulses and delay immediate pleasures in pursuit of long-term goals ...
• Group A received progressive relaxation training prior to test taking, while Group B received no ...
• 96% of people fall within 30 points of what IQ score? A. 80 ...
• When a person's test performance can be compared with that of a representative and pretested ...
• Which of the following processes has begun as soon as special receptor cells for the ...
• Contemporary psychology is best defined as the scientific study of A. thoughts, feelings, and ...
• Which subfield is illustrated: children learn to roll over, sit up, crawl, and walk in ...
• Which perspective can be described: everyone has an unconscious and conscious mind. It is the ...
• The main function of the peripheral nervous system is to A. relay messages between ...
• The smallest difference between two stimuli that can be detected 50% of the time is ...
• Chemical messengers produced by the endocrine glands are called___. A. antagonists B. neurotransmitters ...
• The two major divisions of the nervous system are the A. brain and spinal ...
• Multiple sclerosis is a disease in which the immune system mistakenly destroys some of the ...
• Those who score above average on tests of mathematical aptitude are also likely to score ...
• Scientists conducted a study involving two variables. Their research indicated a strong positive correlation between ...
• Nothing by mouth abbreviation means: A. nothing to wear B. nothing by mouth ...
• A patient feels faint, remove the tourniquet & withdraw the needle as quickly as possible. ...
• Which venipuncture system should be used & which gauge needle for a 3-month-old. A. ...
• Clot activators __ coagulation. A. provide a barrier for B. prevent C. ...
• The first thing a Phlebotomist should do when entering a patient's room is: A. ...
• Anticoagulants ___ blood from clotting. A. loosen B. enhance C. prevent ...
• The Phlebotomist knows to apply pressure for a routine venipuncture for: A. 1 minute ...
• The __ of children & adults & the __ in newborns is used for capillary ...
• If a patient begins to bleed profusely during a venipuncture, you should: A. wrap ...
• Do not use the tip of the finger or center of the finger. A. ...
• The doctor ordered a CBC with Diff, PT/INR, PTT, & HgbA1C. The correct order of ...
• SW is a 66-year-old postmenopausal woman with newly diagnosed metastatic breast cancer to the lung ...
• For patients with moderate-to-severe renal dysfunction, the bone modifying agent of choice is A. ...
• What is the best treatment option for a 49-year-old woman who is chemotherapy naïve and ...
• Which of the following Gleason scores is considered the most aggressive? A. 3+3 ...
• A patient presents to your clinic with new onset metastatic castrate-resistant prostate cancer with bone ...
• Which of the following factors is associated with an increased risk of developing colorectal cancer? ...
• Which of the following agents is considered a second-generation antiandrogen? A. Bicalutamide B. ...
• GS is a newly diagnosed prostate cancer patient being treated with androgen deprivation. Which of ...
• Which of the following patients with small cell lung cancer should receive prophylactic cranial irradiation? ...
• An average risk 55-year-old premenopausal woman with no smoking history should not be counseled regarding ...
• Which of the following medications should be taken on an empty stomach due to an ...
• GB is a 72-year-old male with a past medical history of seizures. He is a ...
• Which of the following hormonal therapies is most appropriate for adjuvant treatment in a premenopausal ...
• Which of the following adjuvant treatment regimens for stage III colon cancer is most appropriate? ...
• The patient will receive oxaliplatin, fluorouracil, and leucovorin. Leucovorin is included in the chemotherapy regimen ...
• As a shift leader making out patient assignments for the oncoming shift, how would you ...
• The nurse instructs a client on self-care after having a mastectomy with lymph node removal. ...
• A group of nursing students is reviewing information about palliative care. The students demonstrate a ...
• A 33-year-old female client is recovering from a modified radical mastectomy with immediate reconstruction. This ...
• A client has undergone a transverse rectus abdominis myocutaneous (TRAM) flap procedure for breast reconstruction ...
• The home health nurse is performing a home visit for an oncology client discharged three ...
• A patient authorizes a son to make medical decisions and brings the completed forms for ...
• The nurse is assessing the surgical site of a client who has had a mastectomy. ...
• A client with a diagnosis of gastric cancer has been unable to tolerate oral food ...
• The nurse is caring for a client with breast cancer and removal of axillary lymph ...
• The client who had a right modified radical mastectomy 4 years before is being admitted ...
• Brand name for Tamoxifen A. Arimidex B. Trexall C. Cytoxan D. ...
• May cause abdominal pain, diarrhea, mucositis and stomatitis is a counseling point for what medication ...
• treatment to relieve or reduce intensity of uncomfortable symptoms, but not to produce a cure ...
• Tumors are either __________ or __________ A. Neoplasm & Metasize B. Benign & ...
• What is the 2nd stage of the cell cycle called? A. Mitosis B. ...