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• What is an example of your body maintaining homeostasis?  A. Your internal body temperature is ...
• What is an example of homeostasis? A. Your feet pulling away when being tickled.  ...
• What is stimuli? A. A major organ in the brain that is a part of ...
• On a monthly basis, blood transfusions are required for rbc A. Acute Hemorrhagic anemia ...
• The erythrocytes that are produced are fragile and break easily. A. Renal anemia B. Hemolytic ...
• it is also known as lacking blood because of it's low ability to support the ...
• A kind of anemia that the damaged shape of the red blood cells clogs the ...
• A kind of anemia that is a complication of kidney disease and caused by the ...
• It is a result from inadequate intake of iron, increased loss of blood, and inability ...
• Over acquisition of red blood cells in the blood cells A. Polycythemia B. Iron-deficiency anemia ...
• It increases the amount of hemoglobin in the bloodstream A. Acute Hemorrhagic anemia B. Renal ...
• It is a type of anemia disease caused by too few hematopoietic progenitor cells (cells ...
• If there is a massive bleeding from a wound that may lose a lot of ...
• It is blood disorder that the body is inability to properly utilize Vitamin B12. ...
• Mostly used by the athletes to improve their stamina and performance A. Blood doping ...
• The client with continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) has cloudy dialysate. Which of the following ...
• What are the goals of hemodialysis? SATA A. Removal of waste products B. Regulation of ...
• The nurse is caring for a client receiving peritoneal dialysis. The nurse notes that a ...
• The client newly diagnosed with chronic renal failure recently has begun hemodialysis. Knowing that the ...
• A 40 y.o. male patient is undergoing hemodialysis with an internal AV fistula in place. ...
• The client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis this morning is due to ...
• During hemodialysis, wastes are removed from the patient's blood by: A. Osmosis B. Diffusion ...
• The nurse recognizes that which of the following is an indication to begin dialysis? ...
• During hemodialysis, excess fluid is removed by: A. Osmosis B. Diffusion C. Filtration D. Ultrafiltration ...
• The nurse is reviewing a list of components contained in the peritoneal dialysis solution with ...
• Which part of the human respiratory system is correctly paired with a description of its ...
• In humans, the thin, moist membranes of the alveoli are surrounded by A. bronchi ...
• In humans, what happens when the breathing rate increases? A. Additional oxygen will diffuse into ...
• Which part of the human respiratory system is a thin, moist membranous structure where gas ...
• What is the main function of gas exchange A. To remove carbon dioxide and supply ...
• A man develops a severe infection in his lungs. This would impact the man's ability ...
• Which statement best describes the function of the respiratory passageways of a human? A. They ...
• Which respiratory structure is supported by rings of cartilage? A. trachea B. alveolus C. bronchiole ...
• An increase in breathing rate can be triggered by an increase in the A. carbon ...
• The cellular process which uses oxygen and sugar to produce energy is called A. photosynthesis ...
• In the human respiratory system, bronchioles directly connect the A. trachea and pharynx B. bronchi ...
• TCA are recommended as first line treatment in neuropathic pain as per NeuSPIG guideline. State ...
• Relief and Beyond is punchline for _____ brand A. PREBRIS - MNT B. TRUGABA NT ...
• As per visual aid - combination (Gabapentin+ NT) therapy reduces pain intensity by ___ % ...
• Reduces Pain A. Antiemetics B. Analgesics C. Thrombolytics D. Antipyretics
• Which of the following is involved in methylation of homocysteine to methionine? A. Pyridoxal phosphate ...
• Which of the following association is NOT related to guidelines for Pain management A. NeuPSIG ...
• Nortriptyline is Particularly useful in older people who are more likely to experience adverse effects ...
• ______selectively blocks/binds alpha2delta calcium channel A. Gabapentin only B. pregabalin only C. Gabapentin & Pregabalin ...
• GABAPIN NT is brand from ______ company A. INTAS B. ARISTO C. ALKEM D. TORRENT ...
• NSAIDs such as ibuprofen or naproxen, are important in the management of pain, fever, and ...
• Homocystein is an amino acid, formed by demethylation of dietary ______________. A. methionine B. carbohydrate ...
• MAXGALIN is a brand from _____company A. SUN B. PFIZER C. TORRENT D. INTAS
• The type of neuropathy, which damages nerves in the arms and legs, is called ...
• Maximum dose of Gabapentin is _____mg/day A. 2400 B. 3600 C. 600 D. 1200
• Pregabalin is not approved in________ A. Fibromyalgia B. Post herpetic neuralgia C. Diabetic Neuropathy ...
• The first chat bot to give information about Chronic Pain Management is ________(as per VA) ...
• Identify the incorrect match a. GABANTIN - SUN b. GABAPIN - INTAS ...
• Methyl-cobalamine supplies ______ to methionine and in-turn to neuron A. Carbonyl B. Methyl C. Ketone ...
• Adherance is degree to which ______________ A. Disease occurs for long time B. Patient correctly ...
• Combined effect of two molecules is more than the sum of their individual effect - ...
• In order to keep teeth strong and healthy you should always brush your teeth with ...
• What is the function of canines? A. Tearing B. Cutting C. Grinding D. All of ...
• These teeth are big and strong to help you grind food so it can be ...
• The pulp at your teeth contains ______, which send messages to the brain if your ...
• What is the function of incisors? A. For cutting B. For grinding C. For swallowing ...
• what process did teeth carries out? A. absorption B. assimilation C. mechanical digestion D. chemical ...
• How many adult teeth does a typical human adult have? A. 30 B. 32 ...
• which one of these is pulp cavity A. ...
• What hard, tough, and shiny substance covers the teeth? A. wax B. diamond C. keratin ...
• what is the function of premolar A. bitting off pieces of food B. similar function ...
• what is the best way to prevent tooth decay A. visit the dentist every 6 ...
• what happen when bacteria get into space between teeth A. tooth decay B. periodontal disease ...
• where did the process of mechanical digestion occurs? A. occurs in stomach B. occurs in ...
• ______ is the pink area around my teeth. ...
• what is pulp cavity A. outer layer of the crown of the tooth B. space ...
• Which number in the diagram represents the cuticle? ...
• Is it possible to determine the species of hair evidence without DNA? A. Yes ...
• What type of medulla pattern is shown here? ...
• What are the three cuticle patterns? A. Coronal, spinous, imbricate B. flowery, circular, triangular ...
• Which number in the diagram represents the cortex? ...
• Can we tell if a hair was forcibly removed? A. Yes B. no
• When processing hair found at a crime scene, we must determine if the origin is: ...
• The growth cycle of human hair ranges from? A. 2 to 6 years B. 1 ...
• Can race origin be determined by hair? A. Yes B. no
• What types of DNA can be found on the hair? A. Mitochondrial B. nuclear ...
• What are the tree stages of hair growth in order from start to end? ...
• Hair is what type of evidence? A. Class B. Individual C. unknown D. all of ...
• How many approximate hair follicles on a human head are there? A. 100, 000 ...
• Is it possible to determine what body part hair evidence came from? A. yes ...
• DNA is never present on hair A. FALSE B. TRUE
• Humans lose approximately how many hair per day? A. 100 B. 1000 C. 50 ...
• Which phase of hair grown cycle does the hair fall out naturally? A. Telogen ...
• The two main categories of human hair are: A. Terminal and vellus B. terminus and ...
• What medullary pattern is represented in the diagram? ...
• Which number in the diagram represents the medulla? ...
• What type of medulla pattern is shown here? ...
• The cushion between the femur and tibia is the ________. A. Ligament B. Meniscus ...
• How many muscles make up the quadriceps? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 ...
• What bone is the knee cap? A. Tibia B. Fibula C. Patella D. Femur
• What four bones make up the knee joint? A. Tibia B. Fibula C. Patella ...
• Is this a bad position to be in?
• A _________ force puts pressure from the lateral side and stresses the medial side of ...
• What does ACL stand for? A. Atlanta Cruciate Ligament B. Anterior Cruciate Ligament C. Anterior ...
• Where are the hamstrings located? A. Anterior B. Posterior C. Inferior D. Lateral
• What injury could this be? A. Patella Strain ...
• What about the meniscus is true? A. There is a medial meniscus and lateral meniscus. ...
• What action occurs with the quads? A. Flexion B. Extension C. Rotation D. Abduction
• What type of joint is the knee joint? A. Hinge B. Ball in socket ...
• The ligament on the inside of the knee is the MCL. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• What two main movements occur at the knee? A. Flexion and Extension B. Rotation and ...
• Where does the patellar tendon insert? A. Tibia plateau B. Tibial shalt C. Tibial tuberosity ...
• Each eyeball is set in a protective cavity in your skull, called _. A. socket ...
• The middle layer of the eye is the _. A. iris B. choroid layer ...
• What part of the eye is the transparent part of the coat of the eyeball, ...
• What part of the eye that attaches to the retina and carries impulses from the ...
• what is the outer white layer of the eye? A. retina B. pupil C. melanin ...
• The _ is a hollow sphere that is divide into two cavities. When you touch ...
• What are the function of eyebrows and eyelashes? A. to moist for the eyelids ...
• The small opening in the middle of the iris is called the _. A. pupil ...
• What is the name of the pigment that gives color to the eye? A. melanin ...
• Which among the following is the one who interprets and corrects the inverted images into ...
• This is an eye condition wherein a person has good near vision but poor distant ...
• Choose the correct term that means:AWAY FROM THE SURFACE BODY A. Deep B. Superficial ...
• Identify the definition of the medical term:ANA- A. Up B. Removal, excision, resection ...
• Choose the correct term that means:PERTAINING TO THE HEAD A. Superior, Cephalic B. Medial ...
• Identify the definition of the medical term:SUPINE A. Lying on the back face up ...
• The human body has how many types of tissue? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 ...
• Identify the definition of the medical term:HISTOLOGIST A. The study of tissue B. The ...
• Identify the definition of the medical term:INGUIN/O A. Groin B. Cartilage C. Skull ...
• Choose the correct term that means:ON THE SURFACE BODY A. Superficial B. Inferior, caudal ...
• Identify the definition of the medical term:EPI- A. Above B. Up C. Removal, ...
• What is the muscular wall separating the abdominal and thoracic cavities? A. Diaphragm ...
• Identify the definition of the medical term:-ECTOMY A. Removal, excision, resection B. Up ...
• Identify the definition of the medical term:HYPO- A. Below B. Up C. Removal, ...
• Choose the correct term that means:PERTAINING TO THE MIDDLE A. Medial B. Superior, Cephalic ...
• Identify the definition of the medical term:CHONDR/O A. Cartilage B. Skull C. Chest ...
• What is the medical term pertaining to?DERMA A. Skin B. Nervous Tissue ...
• Identify the definition of the medical term:VISCERA A. Abdominal organs enclosed within a cavity ...
• Choose the correct term that means:LYING HORIZONTAL FACE DOWN A. Prone B. Transverse ...
• _______ tissue carries messages from the brain to the spinal column. A. Nervous ...
• How many systems does the body have? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 ...
• Choose the correct term that means:PERTAINING TO THE SIDE A. Lateral B. Superior, Cephalic ...
• Identify the definition of the medical term:-TOMY A. Cut into, incision, section B. Up ...
• Identify the definition of the medical term:CRANIOTOMY A. Incision of the skull B. Pertaining ...
• Identify the definition of the medical term:THORAC/O A. Chest B. Cartilage C. Skull ...
• Identify the definition of the medical term:SACR/O A. Sacrum B. Cartilage C. Skull ...
• What is the medical term pertaining to?SARCOMA A. A malignant tumor of connective or bone ...
• Tiny struts or supports in spongy bone that are aligned to resist stress. A. trabeculae ...
• Insects skeletons which are made of the nitrogenous carbohydrate chitin. A. exoskeletons B. endoskeletons ...
• Provides support, store minerals. site of hematopoiesis, store energy as fat, maintain blood calcium homeostasis. ...
• The porous, honeycomb-like bone that fills the inside of short, flat, and irregular bones, and ...
• The space inside a long bone diaphysis filled with yellow marrow in adults. A. medullary ...
• The stuff, found inside areas of spongy bone, which is the primary site of red ...
• Our face has ___ bones. A. 7 bones B. 14 bones C. 21 bones
• In each foot, an adult human have ___ foot bones. A. 25 foot bones ...
• How many bones in the hand do human adults have? A. 27 hand bones ...
• The shape classification of bones that are roughly cube-shaped, like those in the foot's tarsals ...
• The act of breaking down and rebuilding bone to reshape it to better respond to ...
• Skeletons of jellies and worms which are made up of fluid-filled body cavities. A. exoskeletons ...
• How many skull bones do humans have? A. 6 plates B. 7 plates C. 8 ...
• The shape classification of bones that are longer than wide, like those in the limbs ...
• What are the biggest and hardest parts of the human body? A. bones and skin ...
• The shaft of long bones, with an internal cavity without spongy bone called medullary cavity, ...
• Bones are mostly made of this kind of tissue, A. muscular B. connective C. dense ...
• The bones found in the body's core, like the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage ...
• The study of bones is called _______. A. Biology B. Osteology C. Oncology
• Doctors did Ceremonies to drive out evil spirits. Drilled holes in skull to drive out ...
• Royal society and beginning of pharmacies A. Middle ages B. Dark ages C. Renaissance ...
• First to discover blood types A. Landsteiner B. Laennec C. Lister D. Harvey
• Start hand wash at hospital A. Semmelweis B. Murray C. Salk D. Barnard
• Earliest to keep health records A. Egyptians B. romans C. Greeks D. Chinese
• Invented stethoscope A. Laennec B. Blackwell C. Hippocrates D. Freud
• Discovered x-rays A. Roentgen B. Edwards C. Salk D. Murray
• Discovered insulin A. Blackwell B. Banting/Best C. Koch D. Murray
• First female to graduate from med school and established a clinic A. Barton B. Galen ...
• Father of microbiology A. Koch B. Gibbon C. Curie D. Pasteur
• Started modern nursing A. Best B. Blackwell C. Nightingale D. Barton
• Comparative anatomy (dissect animals to learn about humans) A. Romans B. Chinese C. Greeks ...
• Discovered penicillin A. Fleming B. Koch C. Nightingale D. Semmelweis
• Studied and recorded human anatomy through dissection A. Galen B. Da C. Vinci D. Fahrenheit ...
• Small pox vaccine A. Landsteiner B. Gibbon C. Jenner D. Chinese
• Made the first telescope A. Leeuwenhoek B. Franklin C. jenner D. Lister
• Discovered circulatory system and how heart works A. romans B. Vesalius C. Apothecarries D. Harvey ...
• Disease was common A. Renaissance B. Dark and Middle Ages C. 19th century D. 16th ...
• Invention of printing press A. Dark ages B. 18th century C. Renaissance D. 21st century ...
• Made bi-focals A. Franklin B. Frankenstein C. Damadian D. Steptoe
• Beginning of pharmacies A. Apothecaries B. Greeks C. Chinese D. Jenner
• Used antiseptics in operations to prevent infection A. Gibbon B. Lister C. Roentgen D. Landsteiner ...
• small pox vaccine, bi- focal, and mercury thermometer invented A. 16th century B. 17th century ...
• Discovered Micro organisms cause disease and pasteurization of milk A. Laennec B. Purkinje C. Pasteur ...
• First to send medical care with military A. Chinese B. Romans C. Egyptians D. Greeks ...
• Basis of psychology and psychiatry A. Barton B. Best C. Freud D. Banting
• Father of medicine A. Hippocrates B. Barton C. Curie D. Fleming
• Made Red Cross A. Fleming B. Blackwell C. Freud D. Barton
• First women to receive Nobel prize A. Freud B. Curie C. pasteur D. Gibbon
• Code of ethics A. Romans B. Hippocratic oath C. Middle ages D. Greeks
• Discovered Neurons and purkinje fibers A. Alcomaeon B. Purkinje C. Hippocrates D. Aristotle
• Discovered polio vaccine A. Nightingale B. Pasteur C. Lister D. Salk
• First successful heart transplant A. Koch B. Roman C. greek D. Barnard
• Yin yang balance, acupuncture, 5 elements A. Egyptians B. romans C. Greeks D. Chinese
• Common microscopic organisms. A. immune system B. viruses C. bacteria
• An increase in body temperature when sick. A. infection B. fever C. skin
• What can happen when germs invade the body? A. biodiversity B. infection C. eukaryote
• _______________ can make you sick. A. Germs B. Nutrients C. Biodiversity
• Proteins that help get rid of infections. A. antibodies B. skin C. allergies
• A dangerous immune response to a safe substance happens in people with ________________. A. allergies ...
• ________ help fight germs. A. Infection B. Antibodies C. Punnett square
• The outer covering of the body. A. fever B. allergies C. skin
• A body system that works to keep the organism healthy. A. infection B. bacteria ...
• ___________are very small things that often cause infections. A. Vitamins B. Viruses C. Fever
• An ________ occurs when a virus or microorganism enters the body. A. infection B. ATP ...
• The __________system keeps the body healthy. A. musculoskeletal B. hypothesis C. immune
• What is the job of the immune system? A. help us think B. help us ...
• A dangerous immune response to a safe substance. A. viruses B. allergies C. infection
• The organization in the United States that tracks diseases and vaccinations is called the ...
• If a virus only passes its genetic material to the cell without making copies of ...
• Influenza is caused by a ___________________. A. virus B. bacteria C. prion
• As a virus changes over time, it can affect different systems within the organism. This ...
• What disease was brought to the New World and killed over 3, 000, 000 Aztecs? ...
• A vaccine triggers your body to produce _____________ which help fight infections. A. antibiotics ...
• The single deadliest entity on Earth is the ______________. A. bacteria B. bacteriophage C. antibiotic ...
• Viruses can affect which types of organisms? Except: A. plants B. animals C. bacteria ...
• The head of the bacteriophage sits on a long ____________. A. DNA B. tail fibers ...
• There are more bacteriophages on Earth than any other organism combined A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Antibiotics only work against what organisms ? A. viruses B. bacteria C. prions
• When a virus enters a cell and it immediately makes copies of itself this is ...
• ______________________________ doses of the flu vaccine in the United States has been given (October 2019). ...
• ___________________________ develops when a mother passes antibodies to her unborn baby. A. natural immunity ...
• Up to what percentage (%) of bacteria are killed by bacteriophages every day. A. 40% ...
• The body receives information from the environment through the _________ . A. sensory nerves ...
• A ___________ carries instructions to the muscles from the spinal cord. A. motor nerve ...
• What does Neurology involve? A. Anatomy of the Nervous System B. Physiology of the Nervous ...
• True or False? Dendrites receive signals and axons send signals. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Nerves are made up of cells called ___________ . A. axons B. dendrites C. synapses ...
• The peripheral nervous system is made up of all the nerves ________ the brain and ...
• __is when a rapid change in membrane polarity causes a signal to propagate down the ...
• What is the name of the chemical message that travels across the synapse? A. Axon ...
• During the absolute refractory period, a neuron can fire with enough stimuli A. TRUE ...
• Each neuron contains one long trunk called a(n) ________. A. dendrite B. synapse C. brain ...
• Which of the following is the medical term for stroke? A. Cerebrovascular Accident B. Myocardial ...
• Which of the following is the study of disease processes? A. Anatomy B. Physiology ...
• In a basic view, the nervous system is a 2-way communication between the brain & ...
• Which of the following is the medical word for a common headache? A. Encephalitis ...
• The central nervous system is made of the brain and _____ . A. brain stem ...
• The space between two neurons over which chemical messages are passed is called the ________ ...
• Spinal cord injuries make it difficult for ____________ to travel between the brain and rest ...
• Which of the following is NOT part of the brain? A. cerebrum B. atrium ...
• This consists of the spinal cord and brain. A. PNS B. ALS C. CNS ...
• __ is the fact that neurons either fire or not, like flipping a light switch? ...
• Homeotic Gene A. development of cells with specialized functions B. the process where organisms grow ...
• Oncogene A. solid tumors that grow in tissues that form blood cells B. something that ...
• Tumor A. specific DNA sequence within a homeotic gene that regulates patterns of development ...
• Sarcomas A. grow in skin and tissues that line the organs of the bone ...
• Carcinomas A. grow in skin and tissues that line the organs of the bone ...
• Morphogenesis A. development of cells with specialized functions B. the process where organisms grow and ...
• Lymphomas A. solid tumors that grow in tissues that form blood cells B. something that ...
• Carcinogen A. solid tumors that grow in tissues that form blood cells B. something that ...
• Gene Expression A. development of cells with specialized functions B. the process where organisms grow ...
• Bodies try to stop cancer by Proto-Oncogenes and Tumer Suppressing Genes A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Benign Tumor A. specific DNA sequence within a homeotic gene that regulates patterns of development ...
• Cell Differentiation A. development of cells with specialized functions B. the process where organisms grow ...
• Metastasis A. grow in skin and tissues that line the organs of the bone ...
• Cancer A. grow in skin and tissues that line the organs of the bone ...
• Homeobox A. specific DNA sequence within a homeotic gene that regulates patterns of development ...
• Mutagen A. solid tumors that grow in tissues that form blood cells B. something that ...
• Malignant Tumor A. specific DNA sequence within a homeotic gene that regulates patterns of development ...
• Pauline has a conductive hearing loss, which can be caused by: A. auditory nerve damage ...
• What disorder can often be corrected with radial keratotomy (RK)? A. Myopia B. Cataract ...
• When a person looks at an image, light rays pass through the eye and focus ...
• What is the largest structure of the ear? A. Malleus B. Cochlea C. Pinna ...
• What function do the orbits, eye lashes, and lacrimal glands all have in common? ...
• What are the two functions of the lens of the eye? A. Refraction and accomodation ...
• What disorder could be treated by the surgical insertion of an artificial stapes? A. Otosclerosis ...
• What part of the eye is actually a mucous membrane? A. Sclera B. Cornea ...
• How is glaucoma usually treated? A. Medication B. Surgical removal of the lens C. Corrective ...
• What eye condition occurs more frequently in children? A. Cataract B. Glaucoma C. Strabismus ...
• When you cry and your nose runs, what fluid is coming through your nose? ...
• If your ossicles were removed, you would NOT be able to: A. Equalize pressure on ...
• What statement about the sense of taste is true? A. Taste is influences by the ...
• What eye condition can occur in someone with a normally shaped eyeball? A. Myopia ...
• What organ of the inner ear is NOT involved in hearing? A. Vestibule B. Cochlea ...
• Where would you find cerumen? A. Eustachian tube B. External auditory canal C. Semicircular canals ...
• When you look in the mirror, what part of the eye can you NOT see? ...
• Of the following, when a sound is heard, what structure would be the first to ...
• Organisms in the throat can travel up the eustachian tube and cause: A. Otosclerosis ...
• Olfactory receptors can be found: A. on the tongue B. in the nose C. in ...
• What type of paralysis would a patient have if they sustained a spinal cord injury ...
• What is the inner most meningeal layer of the brain? A. Arachnoid B. Dura mater ...
• An elderly woman have tremors and shuffling of her gait might be developing: A. cerebral ...
• When the spinal cord is severed and brain damage occurs, what substance could leak into ...
• What part of the brain deals with appetite and temperature control? A. Cerebellum B. Cerebrum ...
• Which nervous system structure causes someone to have dry mouth and tachycardia after sustaining an ...
• Someone experiencing serve headache, nausea and vomiting might be suffering from what disorder? A. Epilepsy ...
• The brain is covered in a membrane called: A. choroid plexus. B. meninges. C. ventricles. ...
• What part of the nervous system is responsible for slowing down breathing and pulse? ...
• Becoming paralyzed as a result of a fall damages what nervous system? A. Sympathetic ...
• Someone with a spinal cord injury might experience: A. inability to move and respiratory distress ...
• Cranial nerves and spinal nerves are part of the peripheral nervous system. A. TRUE ...
• Voluntary muscle movement is coordinated by what part of the brain? A. Temporal B. Occipital ...
• What is located below the cerebrum? A. The thalamus B. The cerebellum C. The diencephalon ...
• How is bacterial meningitis treated? A. Viatmins B. Nothing C. Oxygen D. Antibiotics
• What is a nerve cell? A. axon B. neuron C. dendrite D. myelin
• Hallucinations, seizures, and temporary loss of consciousness is a symptom of: A. hydorcephalus. B. meningitis. ...
• The cerebrum deals with planning, recalling information, and decision making. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• A rare disease in the US that leads to paralysis is known as: A. West ...
• If something is ..., it is associated with old age, or the treatment of elderly ...
• If something is ..., it is associated with the nervous system and the diseases that ...
• It's a type of illness that affects the brain, which is most common in elderly ...
• A regulated program, especially one designed to improve or maintain health A. geriatric B. outpatient ...
• the combination of biological, psychological, and social processes that affect people as they grow older ...
• This is a serious disease where groups of cells in the body grow in an ...
• This is when a doctor goes to a patient's home or office to provide medical ...
• It is a type of surgery where a damaged joint is taken out of the ...
• It is a type of manual therapy. The aim is to balance the nervous system ...
• A patient who receives medical treatment without being admitted to a hospital. A. geriatric ...
• If something is ..., it is associated with genes. A gene is a pattern of ...
• It is an inherited, neurological disorder that causes problems with the motor and sensory nerves. ...
• It is the system in your body that is made up of the brain, spinal ...
• Which is considered as high glycemic index A. >70 B. >50 C. >30 D. >10 ...
• Which of the following may increase the insulin need of diabetes? A. Isoniazid B. Penicillin ...
• How is the fasting blood glucose test administered? A. The patient fasts for 8 hrs ...
• Insulin is a natural hormone secreted by which organ or gland A. Kidney B. Liver ...
• When a person has type 1 diabetes A. There’s not enough insulin to move glucose ...
• Which type of insulin cannot be manually mixed in a syringe A. Novolog B. Humolog ...
• Insulin is measure in A. MI B. DI C. Units D. Tsp
• Micro vascular complications of uncontrolled diabetes A. Diarrhea B. Delayed gastric emptying C. Glomerular injury ...
• Muscle pain is a sign of diabetes A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The cHO should provide how many calories for a diabetic patient to obtain a balance ...
• Juvenile diabetes is also known as A. Type 1 diabetes B. Type 2 diabetes ...
• Humolog begins to take effect A. 15 mns B. 10-30 mns C. 1-2 hrs ...
• Only children get type 1 diabetes A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The nurse enters a diabetic patients room at 11:30 and notices that the patient is ...
• During pregnancy women with type 1 diabetes need A. The same amount of insulin as ...
• CHO count/choice =Approx -cH0 A. 10-15 B. 25-30 C. 40-50 D. 50-55
• To improve glycemic control the person should be educated about A. Carbohydrates counting B. Protein ...
• One of the functions of the menisci is to: A. Increase friction between joints ...
• The job of the patella is to protect the knee and increase mechanical advanatage of ...
• The double pointed prominence on the proximal surface of the tibia is called the: ...
• The inner portion of the menisci are ____ which makes healing almost impossible. A. Vascular ...
• The menisci are discs of ______ on the tibial plateau. A. Bone B. Fibrous bands ...
• The 2 main motions that occur at the joint are: A. Flexion and Rotation ...
• Genu Valgum, when we have a large Q-angle, is commonly known as: A. Knock kneed ...
• The term used to describe the tibia internally rotating with extension is called what? ...
• The Cruciate ligaments form a ___ inside the A. Cross B. Q C. Square ...
• What ligament attaches to the femur and fibula? A. ACL B. LCL C. MCL ...
• The IT Band (Iliotibial Band) connects the Tensor Fascia Latae to the Fibula and Femur. ...
• The two (2) main joints that make up the knee are the: A. Tibiotalar and ...
• The triangular, true sesamoid bone that protects the knee is called the: A. Tibia ...
• What knee ligament is attached to the femur and tibia on the outside of the ...
• The flat part of the proximal end of the tibia is called the: A. Femoral ...
• The knee is one of the most frequently injured joints in the body. A. TRUE ...
• When there is a small or negative Q-angle it is called: A. Genu Varum (Bow ...
• The patellar tendon attaches to the ____. A. Calcaneus B. Femoral Condyle C. Tibial Plateau ...
• The Q-angle is a measurement from the ____ to the Patella and ____ to Tibial ...
• What ligament, inside the joint prevents forward motion of the tibia. A. LCL B. MCL ...
• Which part of the eye is where images are converted to nerve impulses?   ...
• Regulates the amount of light entering the eye and gives the eye its color. ...
• What is the aqueous humor? A. fibers that hold the lens in place B. thin ...
• What is the black hole at the center of your eye called? A. Macula ...
• What is a cataract? A. Shortening of the eyeball B. Cornea has too little curvature ...
• What is the sclera? A. clear structure that bends light to focus on the retina ...
• Which of the following is the correct order in which light travels through the eye? ...
• Which part of the eye opens in dark places and closes in bright places?   ...
• What is the clear front surface of the eyeball called? A. Macula B. Iris ...
• These are the structures in the eye that perceives color A. Rods B. Cones ...
• What is the thin circular structure of your eye that has color? A. Macula ...
• What transfers the signals from your eyeball to your brain? A. Olfactory nerve B. Auditory ...
• Which part of the eye is just behind the pupil? A. Lens B. Macula ...
• What is the job of the retina? A. Carrying signals to your brain B. Allowing ...
• Which part of the eye is the place where images are inverted?   A. Retina ...
• Which lobe deals with auditory processing and memories? A. Frontal Lobe B. Parietal Lobe ...
• Which part of the brain deals with rational thinking? A. Frontal Lobe B. Parietal Lobe ...
• Which part of the brain sends sensory messages to different parts of the cortex? ...
• Which half of the brain is considered the logical side? A. Left Brain B. Right ...
• Which lobe of the brain process pain and touch? A. Frontal Lobe B. Parietal Lobe ...
• Which lobe of the brain processes vision? A. Frontal Lobe B. Parietal Lobe C. Temporal ...
• Which part of the brain covers the limbic system? A. Hippocampus B. Thalamus C. Hypothalamus ...
• Which part of the brain connects the two halves? A. Brain Stem B. Corpus Callosum ...
• Which part of the neuron sends messages to other neurons? A. Dendrite B. Myelin Sheath ...
• Which part of the brain is responsible for creating new memories? A. Amygdala B. Brain ...
• What part of the neuron receives the impulse? A. Dendrite B. Myelin Sheath C. Axon ...
• Which part of the brain is considered the creative side? A. Left Brain B. Right ...
• Innate immunity response takes at least 12 hours to be activated A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Following are the secondary lymphoid organs, EXCEPT A. Lymph node B. Spleen C. Tonsils ...
• Newborns get their antibodies from mothers milk. This is an example of A. Naturally acquired ...
• Intracellular virus that infect the whole cell are usually killed by................ A. Macrophages B. T ...
• Innate immunity is extensive and has a wide range of diversity A. YES B. NO ...
• Nonspecific host defenses that exist prior to exposure to an antigen is called acquired immunity ...
• Which of the following statement is TRUE? A. Acquired immunity is not specific B. Innate ...
• Vaccination is an example of A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired active immunity ...
• Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. T cells ''born'' in the thymus and ...
• Beta2 microglobulin is part of A. MHCI B. MHCII C. MHCIII D. All of the ...
• CD4 cells are also called as A. NK cells B. Suppressor T cells C. Cytotoxic ...
• Cytosolic antigens are usually presented on ........... A. MHC I B. MHC II C. MHC ...
• MHCI is expressed on A. Only antigen presentation cells B. All nucleated cells C. Only ...
• Which of the following is NOT part of innate immunity? A. Macrophage B. Complements ...
• Bundles of neurons where stimuli and impulses pass through out the body.  A. Nerve  ...
• The part of the nerve cell that receives a message.  A. Nerve  B. Brain  ...
• dendrites are like... A. Popsicle sticks  B. shoe laces C. a ahir brush D. tree ...
• nerve cell A. Schwann cell B. dendrite C. neuron D. axon
• The scientific study of the structure, function, and pathology of the nervous system is known ...
• They receive the stimuli from the environment or from other neurons. A. myelin sheath ...
• rounded area of a neuron A. axon B. synapse C. cell body D. dendrite ...
• main organ of the nervous system. protected by the skull, and made of neurons, it ...
• Made of a fatty substance that insulates and prevents the electrical current from leaving the ...
• what is also known as a nerve cell? A. neuron B. sensory nerves C. dendrites ...
• The part of the nerve that sends or relays messages.  A. Synapse  B. Dendrite  ...
• neurons have a nucleus. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The gaps that exist between each myelin sheath cell along the axon. The signals jump ...
• It sends and recieves messages, it is made up dendrites and axons.  A. Brain  ...
• extensions of a neuron through which impulses are sent away from the cell body to ...
• What is E? A. Pore B. ...
• Where the epidermis is thin, the ____ may be absent. A. Stratum lucidum B. Stratum ...
• What is H? A. Stratum granulosum ...
• What is J? A. Hair shaft ...
• What is G? A. Hair shaft ...
• What is M? A. Hair papilla ...
• What is F? A. Merocrine sweat gland ...
• Individuals at risk for hypothermia include: A. Homeless B. Very old C. very thin ...
• What is E? A. Stratum basale ...
• The nerve fibers scattered throughout the dermis are associated with: A. Muscles, glands and sensory ...
• What is G? A. Stratum basale ...
• What is C? A. Stratum corneum ...
• What is the body's response to stress and injury? A. Produce more insulin B. Inflammation ...
• Exposure to ultraviolet radiation greatly increases the risk of developing: A. Diabetes B. Skin cancer ...
• Skin cells play an important role in producing vitamin C. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Macrophages are the cells that hold tattoo ink in place. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Exposure to ultraviolet light darkens skin by synthesizing: A. Karotene B. Hemoglobin C. Melanin ...
• Blood vessels in the epidermis supply cells with nutrients. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The human integumentary system includes: A. hair follicles, nails, sweat glands, and skin B. bones ...
• The functions of the skin include: A. Regulating body temp B. Housing sensory receptors ...
• The subcutaneous layer is part of the skin. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What is A? A. Stratum corneum ...
• What is A? A. Hair shaft ...
• What layer of the epidermis is represented by C? ...
• What are the 3 main types of blood vessels? A. Capillaries, veins, aortas B. Capillaries, ...
• Blood consists mainly of: A. Plasma B. Platelets C. White blood cells D. Red blood ...
• What is the role of veins in the cardiovascular system? A. Carry blood away from ...
• Which of the following is not a function of the cardiovascular system? A. Movement ...
• Which of the following is associated with deoxygenated blood? A. Aorta B. Left Ventricle ...
• Which of the following statements is false? A. Plasma is a yellowy liquid containing water ...
• The relaxing of the heart is known as A. Diastole B. Systole C. Heart Rate ...
• The average body temperature is approximately: A. 36.5 degrees Celsius B. 37 degrees Celsius ...
• What is the side of the adult heart? A. size of an apple B. size ...
• Vasodilation can be defined as: A. A process in which blood vessels constrict causing a ...
• Which of the following is a Blood vessel? A. Ventricles B. Heart C. Arteries ...
• What part of the heart divides the heart into two? A. Biscuspid valve B. Septum ...
• Which of the following is associated with oxygenated blood? A. Aorta B. Pulmonary Artery ...
• The contraction of the heart is known as? A. Stroke volume B. Diastole C. Cardiac ...
• Brian is always worried about making a fool of himself because he always seems to ...
• Peter is deathly afraid of spiders.  Whenever he sees one, he screams and runs out ...
•  Is a woman who has episodes of severe, disruptive anxiety tied to a specific object ...
• Concern with offending God, or concern about blasphemy A. Obsession B. Compulsion
• Which anxiety disorder is defined as when a person has lingering memories, nightmares, and other ...
• Which component is the obsessional part of OCD A. Cognitive component B. Behavioural component ...
• A marked fear that occurs when a person is in a specific social or performance ...
• Telling, asking, or confessing to get reassurance A. Obsession B. Compulsion
• Checking for unwanted hairs growing on your body A. Obsession B. Compulsion
• What do we call non-specific anxiety disorder? A. phobia B. GAD C. panic attacks
• What does PTSD stand for? A. Pizza, tacos, sandwiches, Doritos B. Post traumatic stress disorder ...
• Concern with a need to know or remember A. Obsession B. Compulsion
• What do we call non-specific anxiety disorder? A. phobia B. GAD C. panic attacks
• Fear of being responsible for something terrible happening A. Obsession B. Compulsion
• For the past 8 months, Susan has had persistent and excessive bouts of anxiety.  She ...
• An extreme fear of being in an open, public place is called what? A. Acrophobia ...
• Years after he barely survived a terrorist attack that killed his wife and two children, ...
• Which component is the compulsive part of OCD A. Cognitive component B. Emotional Component ...
• Edward really hates germs.  He always seems worried about whether his hands are clean.  He ...
• Collecting items that results in significant clutter A. Obsession B. Compulsion
• Superstitious ideas about lucky/unlucky numbers, certain colors A. Obsession B. Compulsion
• Isaac has an intense fear of injections. Although he realizes that this fear is irrational, ...
• Which anxiety disorder is defined as repeated and unexpected panic attacks, as well as a ...
• Which types of muscles are involuntary? A. cardiac and smooth B. smooth and skeletal ...
• Which is the correct arrangement of body structure? A. molecule, tissue, cell, organism, organ ...
• Studying where the heart is located in an example of... A. anatomy B. physiology ...
• Movement , posture, and heat production are the functions of which type of tissue? ...
• Collagen and elastin are the 2 fibers in which type of tissue? A. connective ...
• Which is not a type of eptithelial tissue? A. squamous B. elastin C. cuboidal ...
• Tissue that is classified by size and number. A. muscle B. nerve C. epithelial ...
• Studying how the kidneys clean the body's blood. A. anatomy B. physiology
• Which is a function of epithelial tissue? A. production B. secretion C. absorption D. sensation ...
• Studying where the lymph nodes can be found is an example of... A. anatomy ...
• Type of tissue found in the brain and spinal cord. A. epithelial B. muscle ...
• Type of connective tissue found in and around blood vessels and organs. A. fibrous ...
• Cardiac muscle is only found where? A. liver B. lungs C. bladder D. heart
• Another name for adipose tissue. A. cartilage B. bone C. lymph D. fat
• What are the 4 major tissue types? A. epithelial, columnar, muscle, nerve B. muscle, nerve, ...
• Which is not one of the 3 types of muscle? A. connective B. smooth ...
• The study of the functions of body parts. A. anatomy B. physiology C. philosophy ...
• Attaches muscle to bone. A. ligament B. collagen C. tendon D. joints
• the study of the structure of the human body and how the body parts are ...
• Which muscle type is voluntary? A. cardiac B. skeletal C. smooth D. all are voluntary ...
• fight allergic reactions, parasitic infections and inflammation in the body. A. Basophil B. Monocyte ...
• What type of Leukocyte am I? A. Basophil ...
• The fancy name for what gives blood its red colour. A. Plasma B. Erythrocytes ...
• What is the yellowish liquid that carries nutrients and proteins through the body? A. Red ...
• What type of Leukocyte am I? A. Basophil ...
• This part of the Blood is mostly water with protein from the Liver. A. Plasma ...
• Largest leukocyte, remove dead cells A. Basophil B. Monocyte C. Lymphocyte D. Eosinophil E. Neutrophil ...
• Which Blood cells are bigger, the white or red? A. White B. Red C. Granulocytes ...
• Which blood cells fight infection? A. Red B. White C. Plasma D. Platelets
• What type of Leukocyte am I? A. Basophil ...
• First to go to an area of infection or injury to destroy microorganisms A. Basophil ...
• Which blood cells carry oxygen throughout the body? A. Red B. White C. Plasma ...
• The requirements of a design A. Creativity B. Criteria C. Impact D. Constraint
• What term means working together on a common purpose? A. Design Process B. Prototype ...
• Cerebral Palsy or CP is A. a blood disorder B. a type of arthritis ...
• How is Cerebral Palsy caused? A. Brain injury or malformation before, during, or immediately after ...
• What is Cerebral Palsy? A. A condition that affects body movement B. A condition that ...
• The ankle foot orthosis is used to stabilize and strengthen the muscles in the foot ...
• What is a systematic problem-solving strategy designers use to come up with a solution to ...
• Why is a decision matrix an important tool to use in the design process? ...
• Orthosis is the medical term for A. any splint used to support a weak or ...
• A limitation or restriction is a A. Invention B. Innovation C. Criteria D. Constraint ...
• What is a Prototype? A. A working model used to test a design process by ...
• Design involves a set of steps that can be performed in different sequences & _________ ...
• A foot brace is otherwise known as a A. foot orthosis B. ankle orthosis ...
• Which of the following behaviors can negatively impact team success? A. Group members focus on the ideas ...
• Lobe of the cerebrum that is at the front of the brain and controls thing ...
• The nerves in your fingertips are part of the ___ nervous system A. central ...
• Specialized nerve endings that detect changes inside and outside the body are known as... (there ...
• The nerves in your legs are part of the ____ nervous system. A. Central  ...
• The primary function of the nervous system is to... A. provide nutrients for the body. ...
• A mental disorder is generally defined as: A. Not knowing the difference between right and ...
• An example of involuntary movement controled by the autonomic nervous system would be: A. walking ...
• Spinal cord injuries are: A. always a medical emergency B. a possibility in any head ...
• Division of the Autonomic Nervous System (which is a subdivision of the Peripheral Nervous System) ...
• Which describes autonomic nerves? A. Voluntary nerves B. Involuntary nerves
• What is another word for autonomic? A. voluntary B. involuntary C. central  D. brain
• Your brain is made mainly of what type of cell? A. Muscle Cells B. Neuron ...
• Which of the following is not a nervous system function? A. Receives information from internal ...
• Your brain controls some actions involuntarily. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• If your body is invaded by a bacteria or virus and start to feel bad, ...
• If you are holding a cup of coffee, what neurons will tell you brain the ...
• Which describes somatic nerves? A. Voluntary nerves B. Involuntary nerves
• If you were to touch the spine on a cactus, what would be the correct ...
• The Peripheral Nervous System is divided into the Somatic System and the Autonomic System ...
• The Peripheral Nervous System is made up of A. the brain and spinal cord ...
• In this picture of a brain, the yellow part is known as the
• Sensory neurons and Motor neurons are apart of what system? A. Somatic B. Sympathetic ...
• What joins the two hemispheres of the brain together? A. corpus callosum B. cerebral cortex ...
• How does the body prevent damage to the fragile brain and spinal cord? A. the ...
• The fight or flight response is caused by what system? A. Sympathetic B. Parasympathetic ...
• This system detects stimuli with receptors. A. Somatic B. Autonomic C. Peripheral D. Sympathetic
• In this picture of a brain, the green section is known as the
• What does the somatic system do? (the somatic system is part of the Peripheral Nervous ...
• An impulse is travelling along an axon. It reaches a synapse, what happens next? ...
• The Central Nervous System is made up of A. the cerebellum and cerebrum B. the ...
• PNS stands for A. Parallel Nervous System B. Peripheral Nervous System C. Physical Nervous System ...
• The outermost and thinnest layer of the skin is the _____. A. subcutaneous B. epidermis ...
• What is a fibrous protein that gives skin form and strength? A. keratin B. dermal ...
• Fatty tissue found below the dermis is called A. subcutancous tissue B. papillary layer ...
• The layer of skin that is seen and treated by the cosmetologist is the _____. ...
• The average adult skin weighs __ pounds A. 3 to 6 B. 9 to 12 ...
• When sebum hardens and the sebaceous duct becomes clogged, the pore impaction that is formed ...
• What is the name of the special cell in the stratum germinativum, responsible for producing ...
• The medical branch of science that deals with the study of the skin, its functions, ...
• Small, cone-shaped elevations at the bottom of hair follicles are known as _____. A. papules ...
• The fibrous protein that gives skin its flexibility and helps skin regain its shape after ...
• What is a fibrous protein that is the principal component of hair and nails? ...
• Continued pressure on any part of the skin causes it to thicken and develop into ...
• Vitamin __ may help improve the skins elasticity and thickness A. a B. b ...
• What is a small, round elevation on the skin that contains no fluid but may ...
• How many layers does the epidermis have A. 1 B. 3 C. 6 D. 5 ...
• Which type of nerve fibers carry impulses from the brain to the muscles? A. sensory ...
• The surface of healthy skin is slightly _____. A. rough B. alkaline C. yellow ...
• What helps protect against UV rays? A. sebum B. keratin C. elastin D. melanin
• The stratum germinativum is composed of several layers with special cells that produce a dark ...
• If an object moves closer than the far point of vision, which is NOT one ...
• Sensory neurons in the retina send ____________ which are routed to the visual cortex in ...
• neurons that synapse with the photoreceptors and the ganglion neurons A. cones B. rods ...
• How many types of cones do you have? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 ...
• It’s a change to the lens that causes it to stiffen and also discolor the ...
• When light hits the retina, the _________ are stimulated. A. sclera B. optic disk ...
• The lens is naturally ______, clear and elastic. A. oval B. flat C. round ...
• Eye strain is caused by A. extended time for ciliary muscles to stay contracted ...
• When you are looking at something up close, this reflex occurs to reduce the amount ...
• When the eyeball is too long causing Nearsightedness A. Myopia B. Hyperopia C. Asigmatism ...
• It lets light enter the eye A. iris B. retina C. pupil
• The fovea contains which types of photoreceptors? A. Rods B. Cones
• All of the horizontal light rays that enter the eye converge at the _____ ...
• Contains the visual and auditory reflex centers. A. Midbrain B. Pons C. Medulla Oblongata ...
• What part of the eye has the highest concentration of rods and cones? A. optic ...
• When the brain detects that the tension in the eye muscles is changing as the ...
• In order to see clearly, light rays must be bent to hit the ______ of ...
• Light waves are bent first by the ______. A. cornea B. aqueous humor C. lens ...
• When the eyeball is too short, causing Farsightedness A. Hyperopia B. Myopia C. Glaucoma ...
• Which of the following is the correct order of the structures through which light passes ...
• Where does the optic nerve take the visual information? A. To the Thalamus and then ...
• Write the correct pathway of for the sensory message to be sent to the ...
• Type of photoreceptor that functions in low light and creates shades of gray A. retina ...
• Light enters the eye through the what? A. Pupil B. sclera C. Cornea D. iris ...
• What makes us become more sensitive to weak stimuli AND less sensitive to unchanging stimuli. ...
• psychological process by which we interpret sensory stimulation. A. Sensation B. Sensory adaptation C. Singnal-detection ...
• bony tube that contains fluids as well as neurons that move in response to the ...
• thin membrane that vibrates when sound waves strike it A. eardrum B. Middle ear ...
• what are responsible for night and peripheral (side) vision. A. Rode B. Iris C. Pupile ...
• The ___________ in the retina convert the image into electrical signals, which are carried to ...
• part of the brain that transmits sounds to the cerebral cortex A. Auditory nerve ...
• the stimulation of sensory receptors and the sensory information sent to the central nervous system ...
• The outer covering of the eyeball consists of a relatively tough, white layer called the ...
• FGF-2 is a growth factor for fibrosis and TGF-B is for angiogenesis A. TRUE ...
• Chronic inflammation can not occur due to A. Repeated acute inflammation B. A failure to ...
• Which of the below is seen with granulomatous inflammation A. Langhan's giant cells B. Lymphocytes ...
• Which of the following is NOT true A. Lymphocytes use cytokines to interact with macrophages ...
• Maturation of a wound is healing by scar formation and collagen deposition and remodelling ...
• Eosinophilic granulomas can also occur from migrating parasites A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Lymphohistocytic inflammation... A. Has a low number of lymphocytes and macrophages B. Has a low ...
• Which of the below is true A. Pyo-granulomatous inflammation is similar to its former but ...
• When tissue has been damaged and neutralised during tissue destruction this results in A. Resolution ...
• There are 3 stages of wound healing. During inflammation, haemostasis occurs and macrophages remove dead ...
• Chronic-active inflammation has a high number of neutrophils, fibrin and plasma proteins but the stimuli ...
• When tissue damage is neutralised and minimal this results in A. A resolution B. Healing ...
• Which of the below is true regarding granulomatous tissue? A. Is often seen with persistent ...
• Chronic inflammation can not occur due to A. Repeated acute inflammation B. A failure to ...
• Activated T-cells release IFN-γ to induce an inflammatory activated macrophage stimulating ROS, proteases and cytokines. ...
• What is important to remember regarding second intention wounds A. Fibrous CT fills the defect ...
• About how long does it take blood to completely cycle through the body? A. 1 ...
• Fight bacteria and viruses by entering infected tissue, destroying bacteria/viruses and absorb dead blood cells ...
• A condition that develops when your blood lacks enough healthy red blood cells or hemoglobin ...
• Tissue Fluid that contains water and dissolved substances A. Lymph Nodes B. Lymph C. Plasma ...
• Contains hemoglobin, supplies body with oxygen A. Plasma B. Platelet C. White Blood Cell ...
• Platelets are cells. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Filter lymph, trapping bacteria and disease-causing microorganisms in the fluid. A. Lymph Nodes B. Lymphatic ...
• How much blood is taken when someone donates blood? A. one cup B. one pint ...
• The liquid part of blood made of mostly water; nutrients, minerals and oxygen are dissolved ...
• What is the most common blood type in the U.S.? A. A B. B ...
• Irregularly shaped cell fragments that help clot blood A. Platelets B. Lymph C. Plasma ...
• How many blood types do cows have? A. 8 B. 80 C. 800 D. 8000 ...
• What is the rarest blood type in the U.S.? A. A B. B C. AB ...
• Where are red blood cells produced? A. Bone Marrow B. Heart C. Lungs D. Brain ...
• The study of blood in health and disease A. Hemoglobin B. Hematology C. Blood Types ...
• Proteins on red blood cells that determine the blood type A. antigens B. antibodies ...
• True or False. A patient with measles is declared non-infectious as soon as the ...
• Cardinal signs of Measles. Except: A. Nausea B. Conjunctivitis C. Coryza D. Cough
• In a several studies claimed that ______ vaccination reduces carrier of this disease among children ...
• What causes meningitis? A. Unencapsulated strain of H. influenzae B. Encapsulated strain of H. influenzae ...
• What are Koplik spots? A. Rash that appears on the abdomen B. Spots that appear ...
• Measles is mainly caused by: A. Bacterium B. Virus C. Fungus D. Parasite
• Gram negative bacilli cause the same types of disease. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• True or False. Measles can be prevented by the pentavalent vaccine. A. Secret ...
• Haemophilus influenzae is a Gram-negative Coccobacillus that can survive in the throat as what carrier? ...
• Measles is benign or milder than Rubella. A. TRUE B. Tralse C. FALSE D. Frue ...
• healthy man has been given a Hib vaccine. He asks how effective the vaccine is ...
• What diseases does Haemophilus influenzae type b cause? Except: A. bacteremia B. meningitis ...
• Measles is also known as: A. Rubeola B. Rubella C. Mumps D. Roseola Infantum
• This causes meningitis, septic arthritis, epiglottitis, and pneumonia in children under the age of what ...
• The following are the approaches of national mental health programme EXCEPT A. integration of mental ...
• Models of normalcy and abnormalcy are EXCEPT A. Medical model B. Biological model C. Psycho ...
• Interpersonal relationship in nursing is emphasized by A. Calista Roy B. Imogine King C. Linda ...
• First psychiatric nurse is A. Hildegard papleu B. Betty Neuman C. Linda Richard D. Florence ...
• Factors influencing levels of nursing practice are A. Nurse practice acts B. Nurses qualification ...
• Which of the following is a criterion for mental health A. Efficiency in work and ...
• The indian nursing council included psychiatric nursing as a compulsory course in B.sc Nursing programme ...
• In psychiatric disorders there is impairment of A. Cognition B. Affect C. Conation D. All ...
• The following professionals are part of mental health team EXCEPT A. Psychiatric nurse B. Clinical ...
• The Indian society of psychiatric nurses was formed in the year A. 1986 B. 1989 ...
• The Indian mental Health Act was passed in the year A. 1912 B. 1952 ...
• Medical model considers the cause of mental disorders a result of A. Organic pathology in ...
• The Government of India launched national mental health programme in the year A. 1982 ...
• Father of psychiatry is A. Hippocrates B. Asceipiades C. Renaisance D. Aristotle
• The nurse manager acts as a/ an A. Advocate for patient B. Therapist for family ...
• Which of the following is a partner to the ACL to help limit anterior translation ...
• The PCL limits posterior translation of the femur relative to the tibia which occurs during ...
• The medial meniscus is ___________ and _________ than the lateral meniscuc A. Larger; thicker ...
• The ACL limits which knee motions Except: A. Extension B. Flexion C. External rotation (tibia ...
• The semimembranosus performs which of these motions Except? A. Medial rotation of the knee ...
• The semitendinosus has a prominent tendon, is thinner and broader than the semimembranosus A. TRUE ...
• The biceps femoris performs which of these motions Except? A. Lateral knee rotation B. Hip ...
• Which of the following is a partner with the PCL to help limit posterior translation ...
• The ACL inserts at the __________________ A. Lateral femoral epicondyle B. Medial femoral condyle ...
• The intertrochanteric line starts on the anterior side of the femur between the trochanters and ...
• The sartorius performs which of these motions Except? A. Hip flexion B. Knee extension ...
• The greater trochanter sits ________ and ____________ relative to the lesser trochanter A. Inferior; lateral ...
• The peripheral third of the menisci is a ________ zone which improves the chances of ...
• The vastus lateralis and vastus medialis have origins at linea aspera A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Varus opens which side of the knee? A. Lateral B. Medial
• The MCL is shorter and thinner than the LCL A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Hospice patients can still go to the hospital A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Hospice patients must stop taking all medications related to their diagnosis A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Hospice only provides comfort medications A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Hospice provides DME and supplies (wipes, gloves, etc.) A. TRUE B. FALSE
• A heart disease patient must present with what to qualify? Except: A. NYHA Class IV ...
• If a patient does not pass within their 6 month expectancy, they must be discharged ...
• Where can home hospice be provided? A. Assisted livings B. Private homes C. Nursing Homes ...
• What is the expected life expectancy of a hospice patient upon admission? A. 1 year ...
• A patient on hospice for cancer must also stop their dialysis treatments for their CKD ...
• Hospice patients cannot have PT, OT, or ST while on service A. FALSE B. TRUE ...
• Hospice patients must be homebound to qualify A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Alzheimer's patients must be at what level of the FAST scale to qualify? A. 7C ...
• What disciplines will be available to the patient? Except: A. Skilled Nurse B. Chaplain ...
• What is the middle layer of the tooth? A. enamel - strong protective layer ...
• Your front teeth are called A. canines B. incisors C. premolars D. cuspids
• Identification using dental remains can be significant because teeth can survive through _________, while other ...
• The portion of the tooth that is covered in enamel and is situated above the ...
• These teeth have the largest surface area with which to leave a potential bite, and ...
• If a mass death occurs and many people die at the same place, How would ...
• Hardened connective tissue that makes up the majority of a tooth and gives it it's ...
• The exposed top half of the tooth, with a hard mineral covering to protect ...
• How many teeth does an adult has? A. 20 B. 24 C. 30 D. 32 ...
• The covered bottom half of the tooth, which is cemented into the mandible(jawbone), is ...
• The study of the anatomy and growth of teeth and diseases associated with the teeth ...
• The first step in recording a bitemark involves this step, which uses a scale ...
• How many teeth does a child have with a full set of deciduous teeth? ...
• The area between the root and the crown of the tooth A. Neck B. Pulp ...
• The center of the tooth, where nerves, tissues, and blood can be found, is ...
• The outer covering of the crown of a tooth, made up of calcium carbonate and ...
• The pattern made by a particular set of teeth. A. Braces B. Headgear C. Dental ...
• The teeth that are shown focused on are called
• define spasticity A. increase muscle tone with inability to voluntarily control the muscles actively or ...
• what does the sensory homunculus entail A. cortical representations of body parts for voluntary movements ...
• describe the term muscle spindles A. proprioceptors that are located in the skeletal muscles that ...
• Where is the primary motor cortex located A. precentral gyrus B. occpital lobe C. postcentral ...
• define lead pipe rigidity A. form of hypertonicity that involves difficulty moving the muscle groups ...
• what is an agonist A. a muscle that includes a contractions to move a part ...
• define cogwheel rigidity A. form of hypertonicity that involves difficulty moving the muscle groups on ...
• define the term flaccidity A. loss of muscle tone B. series of rhythmic jerks in ...
• what is the job of the upper motor neurons A. to carry motor information from ...
• what is the process of the corticospinal tract A. to carry unconscious /voluntary motor information ...
• what is the difference between the lateral and anterior corticospinal tract A. the anterior tract ...
• Where is the primary somatosensory area located A. precentral gyrus B. occpital lobe C. postcentral ...
• which spinal cord tract originates in the primary motor cortex area A. corticospinal B. corticobulbar ...
• define clasp knife phenomenon A. increase muscle tone with inability to voluntarily control the muscles ...
• do synergy patterns include both upper and lower motor neurons A. yes B. no
• what does the pre-motor area do for the body A. plays a role in motor ...
• define extensor synergy A. more commonly seen after a stroke; external example of forearm positioning ...
• describe the term golgi tendon organ (GTO) A. proprioceptors that are located in the skeletal ...
• what type of movements do the pyramidal system contain A. involuntary B. motor C. sensory ...
• what do synergy patterns entail A. stereotyped sets of movements that occur in response to ...
• what is the process of the corticobulbar tract A. to carry unconscious /voluntary motor information ...
• define rigidity A. form of hypertonicity that involves difficulty moving the muscle groups on both ...
• what is the job of the lower motor neurons A. to carry motor information from ...
• define flexor synergy A. more commonly seen after a stroke; external example of forearm positioning ...
• what information is related to the primary somatosensory area A. involuntary information B. motor information ...
• what is an antagonist A. a muscle that includes a contractions to move a part ...
• what does the motor homunculus entail A. cortical representations of body parts for voluntary movements ...
• define hypotonicity A. increase muscle tone with inability to voluntarily control the muscles actively or ...
• Who is Brodmann A. well-known researcher in spinal cord disease cures B. first neuroanatomist to ...
• define the term clonus A. loss of muscle tone B. series of rhythmic jerks in ...
• what movements are involved in the primary motor cortex A. involuntary movements B. voluntary or ...
• A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Basophils ...
• Abundant Lymphocytes. Bone Marrow Cancer A. Chronic ...
• A. Erythrocytes B. Platelets C. Burr ...
• A. Polycythemia Vera B. Sickle-cell Anemia ...
• Agranulocytes, Become macrophages A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Basophils D. Lymphocytes E. Monocytes
• (Spikey Ones) A. Erythrocytes B. ...
• A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Basophils ...
• Granulocyte, 60%, Voracious Phagocytic cell, First to Arrive on the scene of infection. A. Neutrophils ...
• A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Basophils ...
• Granulocytes, 1%, Rare, Histamine A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Basophils D. Lymphocytes E. Monocytes
• Granulocyte, 3%, headphones A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Basophils D. Lymphocytes E. Monocytes
• RBC's with large, white, donut holes due to lack ...
• (Small Purple Dots) A. Erythrocytes ...
• A. Erythrocytes B. Platelets C. Burr ...
• Agranulocytes, abundant A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Basophils D. Lymphocytes E. Monocytes
• A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Basophils ...
• An excess number of eosinophils that may be on ...
• A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Basophils ...
• A. Erythrocytes B. Platelets C. Burr ...
• A. Polycythemia Vera B. Sickle-cell Anemia ...
• Banana like RBC's, defective hemoglobin A. Polycythemia ...
• Nitroglycerin is an example of this route A. Oral B. Buccal C. Sublingual D. Subcutaneous ...
• allergic reaction symptoms, Except? A. rash B. swelling C. circulatory collapse D. cough
• Intradermal angle of insertion A. 90 degrees B. 45-90 degrees C. 15-25 degrees D. 5-15 ...
• Can be self administered A. IM B. IV C. Subcutaneous D. Intradermal
• In the MAR A. PRN medications and Refusals B. Incident reports C. VS ...
• Patient identifiers. Except? A. Name B. DOB C. hospital wristband D. Medical record number ...
• It is okay to override the system and administer a medication as long as the ...
• Most common IM sites Except? A. Deltoid B. Triceps C. Ventrogluteal D. Vastus lateralis ...
• Can be scanned as a patient identifier A. Hospital wristband B. QR code on door ...
• The marks on the side of a tuberculin syringe represent A. Units B. mL ...
• Can be done as a piggyback A. intramuscular B. subcutaneous C. PICC D. IV
• give medication 30 minutes to 1 hour after order given. Except? A. Urgent B. ASAP ...
• use a needle hub that can be turned and tightened with this syringe A. Insulin ...
• type of injection for insulin A. Intradermal B. Subcutaneous C. Intramuscular D. Intravenous
• Put initials, date, and time on a/an ______ and dispose of after 24 hours ...
• Means by mouth A. NPO B. PO C. AC D. PC E. PRN
• study of the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion A. pharmacology B. pharmacokinetics C. pharmacodynamics ...
• It can be appropriate to insert a subcutaneous injection at 40 degrees if the patient ...
• The most common type of diabetes is: A. Type 1.5 B. Gestational C. Type 2 ...
• Diabetes mellitus is a problem with __________________ metabolism. A. Protein B. Carbohydrate C. Vitamin ...
• The brain cells need insulin to open their door to allow glucose to enter in. ...
• Diabetes mellitus 1.5 is from a slower __________ destruction of the beta cells later in ...
• Insulin resistance means that the _________ on the plasma membrane fail to recognize insulin and ...
• Glycogenesis is the breakdown of glycogen stores into useable glucose molecules for the cells. ...
• The problem with uncontrolled hyperglycemia is that is may lead to: Except! A. Increased risk ...
• Insulin is considered a/an: A. Electrolyte B. Fluid C. Hormone D. Plasma
• A hormone utilized by the body to cause breakdown of glycogen stores to useable glucose ...
• A client has a sweet fruity odor to the breath. The nurse knows that this ...
• Clients experience polyuria due to the __________ effect of high sugar levels in the blood. ...
• Glucose is needed for energy in the cells. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The classic triad of symptoms in Type 1 diabetes mellitus includes: Except! A. Polyuria ...
• This type of diabetes is the kind developed when pregnant and may lead to cells ...
• aka leukocytes A. WBC B. RBC
• Hemodynamic is relating to the flow of blood within the organs and tissues of the ...
• Hemoglobin is a protein which helps RBC's to carry oxygen from the lungs to the ...
• Type of embolism - from deep veins of lower extremities to veins of the lungs ...
• Congestive heart failure is due to inadequate cardiac output to supply the body A. TRUE ...
• AKA Thrombocytes A. plasma B. platelets C. WBC D. RBC
• causes shortness of breath, hypoxia, tachypnea and dizziness A. local edema B. generalized edema ...
• excess fluid in interstitial spaces of the body A. edema B. thrombosis C. embolism ...
• sudden blockage of the venous or arterial circulations by any material that can lodge in ...
• Type of embolism - can cause infracts in the brain, intestines, lower extremities, kidneys and ...
• shock is caused by a sudden drop of blood flow and oxygen through the body ...
• Blood is classified as a connective tissue A. TRUE B. FALSE
• formation of thrombus made of coagulated blood which has platelets, fibrin and entrapped cellular elements ...
• due to not enough blood volume or not enough output from heart ; signs ...
• what affects the kidneys and stops the removal of waste from the body A. shock ...
• excess fluid in the lungs A. pulmonary edema B. thrombosis C. embolism D. Infarction ...
• Pulmonary edema is aka A. local B. generalized C. anasarca D. pleural effusion
• When blood flows out of the vascular compartment into the surrounding tissues A. hemorrhage ...
• leads to infarction (heart attack) A. shock B. edema
• an area of tissue death due to lack of oxygen ; caused by a thrombus ...
• Compression devices are used to ease pressure A. hemorrhage B. thrombosis C. embolism D. Infarction ...
• Which of the following would cause Romberg's test to be positive (ONLY when the eyes ...
• The dermatome L5 corresponds to which anatomical landmark? A. The big toe B. The Knee ...
• Which dermatome does the area the arrow is pointing to correspond to?
• Fasciculation is an upper motor neuron sign A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What is the 'Babinski' response? A. Upgoing plantars B. Downgoing plantars C. No response
• Which spinal tracts are found in the circled area of the spinal cord? ...
• Hypotonia is an upper motor neuron sign A. TRUE B. FALSE
• When testing power of shoulder abduction, patient holds their arms in position but are unable ...
• Which nerve root does the patella tendon reflex correspond to? A. L2, L3 B. L3, ...
• Hyporeflexia is an upper motor neuron sign A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Pronator drift is an upper motor neuron sign A. TRUE B. FALSE
• This nerve send information from the 5 senses to your brain A. Sensory nerve ...
• The largest and most complex organization of nerve tissue in the body is the _____. ...
• The whitish cords made up of bundles of nerve fibers are called _____. A. Spinal ...
• Which structures create the central nervous system (CNS) A. brain & spinal cord B. Spinal ...
• Which nerve supplies impulses to the skin on the outer side and back of the ...
• The largest of the cranial nerves also called the fifth cranial nerve, is the ...
• The simplest form of nervous activity that includes a sensory and motor nerve is called ...
• What nervous system controls the voluntary functions of the five senses? A. Peripheral (PNS) ...
• How many cranial nerves exists? A. 12 pairs B. 106 pairs C. 20 pairs ...
• What is the 7th cranial nerve? A. ...
• The nervous system as a whole is divided into how many main subdivisions? A. 3 ...
• This nerve sends messages from the brain to the muscles A. Sensory nerve B. Voluntary ...
• The brain will send messages to the body though these nerves that radiate out ...
• The part of the nervous system that consists of nerves that branch out from the ...
• This a subdivision of the peripheral nervous system A. Sensory B. Motor C. Cranial ...
• The cells that create our nerves are called: A. Ganglion B. Peripheral cells C. Neurons ...
• Diphtheria and bacillary are examples of ………… inflammation A. Haemorrhagic B. Pseudomembranous C. Serous
• The process of engulfment of solid particulate material by cell eaters is …… A. Pavementing ...
• Inflammation can occur in dead tissue A. TRUE B. FALSE
• In which of the following types of inflammation do margination, pavementing ,and emigration of leukocytes ...
• What are the characteristic cells of acute inflammation A. Neutrophils B. Macrophages C. Lymphocytes ...
• Which of the following cells are present in large numbers in allergic inflammation? A. Neutrophils ...
• ……….. are collections of epithelioid histocytes that may found in chronic inflammation A. Granuloma ...
• What is the name of phenomenon where leukocytes marginate and become attached to the edge ...
• Which of the following is not characteristic of chronic A. Macrophage B. Lymphocytes C. Plasma ...
• The inflammatory exudate helps in spread of infection A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Inflammatory reactions include……………. A. Vascular only B. Cellular only C. Vascular and cellular
• The direct movement of emigrating leukocytes to the site of injury is …… A. Chemotaxis ...
• State true or false-Serous inflamation is considered to be mild form of inflammation A. TRUE ...
• What is the first vascular change occurring in the beginning of inflammation? A. Vasodilation ...
• What is the first response to acute inflammation A. Vasodilatation B. Cellular response C. Extravascular ...
• State true or false Lobar pneumonia is an example of serous inflammation ...
• Isolated systolic HTN is defined as: A. Sustained elevation in SBP=/>140 with DBP >90 ...
• Angiotensin ll stimulates: A. Renin B. Aldosterone
• Healthy levels of cholesterol are: a. Total cholesterol b. LDL c. HDL d. Triglycerides ...
• Pulse pressure is: A. DBP-SBP B. SBP-DBP
• The ventricles relax during: A. Diastolic BP B. Systolic BP
• The following medication is used to treat hyperlipidemia because it reduces bile by blocking reabsorption ...
• The equation for Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) is: A. Average pressure (SBP + 2/3 pp) ...
• What medications are used to treat hypertension? A. a. ACE inhibitors b. Bile acid ...
• BP is: A. SBP/DBP B. DBP/SBP
• When the kidneys don't receive enough blood flow they release ______, which activates ______, which ...
• The following medication is used to treat hyperlipidemia because it reduces liver synthesis of cholesterol: ...
• The ventricles contract during: A. Diastolic BP B. Systolic BP
• The Frank-Starling Law is: A. Tension in ventricle wall depends on size of ventricle. ...
• Hypertension is defined as: A. Sustained elevation in SBP=>160 or DBP
• What 4 organs are at risk due to HTN? A. a. Heart b. Pancreas ...
• The release of renin activates: A. Angiotensin ll B. Aldosterone
• Angiotensin ll leads to: A. Vasodilation B. Retain Na+ and H2O (inc BP) C. Vasoconstriction ...
• Primary HTN accounts for ____% of cases and is caused by _____ A. 80%; unknown ...
• The following medication is used to treat hyperlipidemia because it treats high triglyceride levels ...
• When the kidneys don't receive enough blood flow, they release: A. Aldosterone B. Angiotensin ll ...
• What is Xanthelasma? A. Yellow deposits (fats/cholesterol) under skin B. Fat build up around the ...
• What is xanthoma? A. Yellow deposits (fats/cholesterol) under skin B. Fat build up around the ...
• What are two signs of hyperlipidemia? A. Zenthoma and Zanthelasma B. Xanthoza and Xantheshma ...
• Hypertension is present if SBP >/= _____ and DBP >/= _____ A. 130; 80 ...
• Secondary HTN is caused by A. Unknown origins B. Systemic disease process that increases Systemic ...
• Aldosterone leads to: A. Vasoconstriction B. Vasodilation C. Retain Na+ and H2O (inc BP) ...
• The Laplace Law: A. Tension in ventricle wall depends on size of ventricle. Dec. ...
• What medications are used to treat hyperlipidemia? A. a. ACE inhibitors b. Diuretics c. ...
• When the kidneys don't receive enough blood flow they: A. Release angiotensin ll which stimulates ...
• Chamber of the hear that pumps blood to the right ventricle A. right atrium ...
• Vessels that bring blood to the hear from the lungs A. pulmonary veins B. pericardium ...
• Vessel that brings blood from the lower body into the heart A. right atrium ...
• These strings anchor the AV valve A. chordae tendinae B. coronary arteries C. semilunar valves ...
• Chamber of the heart that pumps blood to the body A. left atrium B. right ...
• Heart chamber that receives blood from lungs A. right atrium B. left atrium C. left ...
• Small cavity that contains the hear within the thoracic cavity A. atriventricular septum B. mediastinum ...
• General term for the arteries that supply blood to the heart muscles A. pulomonary veins ...
• Valve that is between the left atrium and left ventricle A. aorta B. pulmonary veins ...
• Serous membrane sac that surround the heart A. pericardium B. coronary arteries C. myocardium ...
• Vessels that carry blood to the lungs A. coronary arteries B. pulmonary veins C. coronary ...
• Septum that divides the atria longitudinally A. atrioventricular septum B. semilunar valves C. aorta ...
• Chamber of the hear that pumps blood to the lungs A. left ventricle B. right ...
• Disuse leads to a decrease in strength and muscle mass. This process is called _____. ...
• Six to ten strength exercises completed as a circuit A. Isokinetic Exercise B. Strength Training ...
• ________ conditioning, AKA as aerobic or endurance training, refers to activities that put increased demand ...
• The benefit of stretching before and after a workout is to... A. Prevent and reduce ...
• _____ exercise uses machines that control the speed of contraction within the ROM. A. Isometric ...
• Which type of stretching is recommended following a general warm-up and before a workout? ...
• Muscles must be overloaded to improve strength A. Overload B. Specificity C. Reversibility D. Hypertrophies ...
• What does ROM stand for? A. Range on Mobility B. Rotation on Wrist C. Range ...
• A well-conditioned athlete will be able to increase the amount of air exchanged in the ...
• Gradual stretching of a muscle through the muscle’s entire range of motion A. Strength Training ...
• Muscle is worked less than normal and becomes smaller A. Hypertrophies B. Atrophies C. Flexibility ...
• Programmed exercise program designed to return an athlete to fitness and competition A. Rehabilitation ...
• weight training with dumbbells and barbells A. flexibility B. muscular endurance C. isokinetic exercise ...
• Trying to prevent injuries before they occur, through a preventative management program A. Rehabilitation ...
• Doing too much, too soon, at too high an intensity, allows the body the opportunity ...
• Moving joints beyond normal range of motion A. Flexibility B. Strength Training C. Stretching ...
• Muscles adapt to nature of work performed A. Overload B. Specificity C. Reversibility D. Flexibility ...
• Fast-twitch and slow-twitch fibers atrophy at the same rate. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• gradual stretching of a muscle through the muscle's entire ROM A. static stretching B. flexibility ...
• ability of a joint to move freely through its full range of motion A. static ...
• Range of Motion (ROM) and Flexibility benefits: A. Good posture B. Reduces possibility of muscle ...
• In isotonic or dynamic exercise, there is no movement of the joint during muscle contraction. ...
• This stretching method involves a rhythmical bouncing action. A. Reversibility B. Isometric C. Isokinetic ...
• Seniors involved in strength training age better and stay healthier. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Body adapts to increased demand by training A. Hypertrophies B. Atrophies C. Flexibility D. Progressive ...
• Combination of contraction and relaxation of muscles A. Strength Training B. Ballistic Stretching C. Proprioceptive ...
• Muscles contract, but there is no motion in the affected joints A. Isometric Exercise ...
• Manual resistance training is done with a partner. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• During ______ exercises, muscles contract, but there is no motion in the affected joints. ...
• Muscle is worked beyond its normal limits, adapts and becomes larger A. Atrophy B. Hypertrophy ...
• Can spin without getting dizzy. A. Oversensitive B. Under-sensitive
• Have behavior problems. A. Oversensitive B. Under-sensitive
• This type of therapy uses fun activities in a controlled environment. With the therapist, your ...
• It can help with fine motor skills, such as handwriting and using scissors. It also ...
• Have problems sleeping. A. Oversensitive B. Under-sensitive
• Can't sit still. A. Oversensitive B. Under-sensitive
• Think clothing feels too scratchy or itchy. A. Oversensitive B. Under-sensitive
• It's a list of sensory activities for home and school. These activities are designed to ...
• Don't pick up on social cues. A. Oversensitive B. Under-sensitive
• Defined as set of problems, which result in causing significant difficulty, distress, impairment and/or suffering ...
• Relating to sensation or the physical senses; transmitted or perceived by the senses. A. Disorder ...
• Have poor balance or seem clumsy. A. Oversensitive B. Under-sensitive
• Experience food textures make them gag. A. Oversensitive B. Under-sensitive
• Are afraid to play on the swing. A. Oversensitive B. Under-sensitive
• This Epithelial Tissue shape has an oval nucleus A. Cuboidal B. Transitional C. Squamous ...
• This specialized cell provides oxygen to cells A. RBC B. Mast Cells C. WBC ...
• This Connective Tissue protects, insulates, and stores fat A. Reticular B. Elastic C. Adipose ...
• This junction occurs when microfilaments extend from the cytoplasm to the plasma membrane A. Tight ...
• This is the study of tissue and its relationship between organs A. Tissue B. Avascularity ...
• Regulates movement in and out of regions of the body A. Inervation B. Avascularity ...
• This junction acts as a button or snap between adjacent cells. A. Tight B. Adhering ...
• Lack of blood cells A. Tissue B. Avascularity C. Histology D. Innervation
• This specialized cell engulfs foreign invaders A. RBC B. Mast Cells C. WBC D. Macrophages ...
• This Connective Tissue provides strength in all directions A. Regular B. Elastic C. Adipose ...
• This Connective Tissue provides strength in one direction A. Reticular B. Regular C. Elastic ...
• This Epithelial Tissue shape is flat, wide and irregular A. Cuboidal B. Transitional C. Squamous ...
• This specialized cell detects foreign invaders A. RBC B. Mast Cells C. WBC D. Macrophages ...
• This specialized cell fights off foreign invaders A. RBC B. Mast Cells C. WBC ...
• This Connective Tissue binds and packs around organs A. Areolar B. Elastic C. Adipose ...
• …………. is a programmed cell death which is energy dependent. A. Apoptosis B. Necrosis ...
• Necrosis causes A. Loss membrane integrity B. Inflammation C. Cell enlargement D. All are correct ...
• The science which deals with the study of disease and abnormalities in structure and function ...
• All of them are adaptation of cell growth except ……… A. Atrophy B. Hypertrophy ...
• …………… is deficient oxygenation to tissues . A. Hypoxia B. Toxic C. Ischemia
• Which one is irreversible cellular change ? A. Necrosis B. Metaplasia C. Hypertrophy D. Hyperplasia ...
• ………….. is tissue removed after death during post Mortem A. Autopsy B. Cytology C. Biopsy ...
• ……………. is tissue removed during surgery from living tissue A. Biopsy B. Cytology C. Autopsy ...
• Which of them is adaptational change of cell growth? A. Atrophy B. Necrosis C. Apoptosis ...
• Increased size of and weight of organ due to increase in size of its cell ...
• Formation of one mature differentiated cell type to another of the histologic type is ………… ...
• History taking determines the epidemiological data and ……………. Of patient A. Symptoms B. Signs ...
• Irreversible injury, resulting in death of groups of cells A. Necrosis B. Apoptosis C. Atrophy ...
• Decrease in size of cells with decrease in size and weight of organ after organ ...
• …………….. is study of cells derived from body fluids. A. Cytology B. Autopsy C. Biopsy ...
• Part of the serous pericardium, lines thoracic cavity, deep side of the fibrous pericardium. ...
• Are large (main) arteries and veins entering and leaving the heart. A. Great vessels ...
• Lower parts of the heart, found just above the diaphragm. A. Base B. Mediastinum ...
• Cardiovascular circuit that Carrie’s blood to the lungs for gas exchange and returns it to ...
• Part of the serous pericardium, covers the organ, also referred as the “epicardium” A. Fibrous ...
• Fluid that lies between parietal and visceral serous pericardium, it is thin and slippery that ...
• Outer most layer of the heart, most superficial, there to stabilize the heart and prevents ...
• Upper most parts of the heart. A. Base B. Apex C. Mediastinum D. Myogenic
• Study of the heart and treatment of its disorders A. Circulatory system B. Cardiology ...
• Cardiovascular circuit that supplies blood to all the organs of the body, including the part ...
• Thick partition where heart lies in between each lungs. A. Apex B. Base C. Mediastinum ...
• What is a concussion? A. All of these B. A violent shaking of the brain ...
• The most prevalent cause of a facial injury is a direct blow that injures soft ...
• Management of an avulsed tooth includes all the following except: A. Attempting re-implantation of the ...
• Which of the following should NOT be done when managing a bleeding nose? A. Tilt ...
• Trauma to the ear which causes tearing of the overlying tissue from the cartilaginous plate ...
• Which injury occurs when the tooth is loose in the socket A. subluxation B. luxation ...
• Which injury occurs when a small portion of the tooth is broken with no bleeding ...
• Which occurs when the tooth has moved out of place A. subluxation B. luxation ...
• Which injury would you be suspicious of if an athlete tells you they were hit ...
• Which of the following symptoms are NOT indicative of a serious eye injury? A. Blurred ...
• Which type of tooth fracture occurs below the gum line A. uncomplicated crown fracture ...
• The following are advices given for patient with epistaxis EXCEPT: A. Sit down and relax ...
• Which of the following is the third most common facial fracture and results in a ...
• The most common sign of a jaw fracture is loss of normal occlusion of the ...