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• Which of the following functions by inserting itself into target membranes and forming channels or ...
• Which factor must be associated with factor H to inactivate complement components? A. C11NH ...
• Dense deposits of C3 breakdown products can accumulate in the kidneys because of: A. properdin ...
• Which of the following acts as an opsonin? A. IgD B. C3b C. C5a ...
• Which of the following immunoglobulins is able to activate complement? A. IgA B. IgD ...
• The alternative and classical pathway C3 convertases are destabilized as a means of downregulating complement ...
• A normal CH50 and low AH50 may indicate which of the following? A. alternative pathway ...
• Which complement protein is the key intermediate in all complement pathways? A. C4 B. C2 ...
• A patient has an abnormal alternative pathway activation pattern. Which of the following complement proteins ...
• Which of these is a maintenance process in social phobia A. catastrophic misinterpretation of physical ...
• Which of these is NOT a positive belief about worry A. Worry helps me know ...
• The main symptoms of OCD are... A. Obsessive thoughts and compulsions designed to disipate feelings ...
• In the treatment of panic disorder, when is it seen as helpful to use a ...
• Your patient tells you that other people think they're weird and they think they are ...
• Hippopotomonstrosesquippedaliophobia is a fear of...... A. Hippos B. Monsters C. the Hungry Hippos board game ...
• Which of these is NOT a core symptom of PTSD A. Re-experiencing B. Hyperarousal ...
• Your patient is health anxious but still undergoing investigations do you.... A. Continue therapy but ...
• Arachibutyrophobia is a fear of.... A. spiders B. clowns C. peanut butter sticking to the ...
• Dave is worried about vomiting in public. He doesn't mind being sick but it's more ...
• How many of the Roth & Pilling anxiety protocols has David Clark written A. 2 ...
• OCD is an anxiety disorder: True or False A. True - OCD has anxiety at ...
• Which of the following information or processes does gene therapy require? A. the ability to ...
• A virus consisting of a single strand of RNA, which is reverse transcribed into complementary ...
• What is Cas9 and what does it do? A. a protein enzyme that cuts both ...
• Liver cells differ from skin cells mainly because they... A. have unique ribosomes. B. use ...
• For a repressible operon to be transcribed, which of the following conditions must occur? ...
• Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, and chimps have 24 pairs of chromosomes. What is ...
• How many amino acids could be coded using the sequence 5'AUGCCCGUA3' A. 1 B. 2 ...
• Cytosine makes up 40% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. ...
• Which of the following processes do normal proto-oncogenes typically exhibit? A. They normally suppress tumor ...
• Which of the following facts did Hershey and Chase make use of in trying to ...
• If a patient misses a dose of an anticoagulant medication, the patient might be at ...
• Which of the following substances is responsible for forming a platelet plug during coagulation? ...
• Which of the following conditions is caused by the dislodging of a blood clot and ...
• Swelling and pain in the leg are symptoms of which of the following conditions? ...
• A patient asks a pharmacy technician how fondaparinux (Arixtra) functions. Which of the followingresponses should ...
• Which of the following proteins is responsible for blood coagulation, works in the clotting cascade, ...
• Which of the following processes prevents the clotting of blood? A. Platelet deactivation B. Anticoagulation ...
• A patient receives eptifibatide (Integrilin) in the hospital and asks a pharmacy technician how the ...
• Which of the following medications should be used as an injectable outpatient therapy for blood ...
• Which of the following terms is used to describe a dislodged deep-vein thrombosis? A. Hemophilia ...
• What is the most common nerve problem of the lower exteremity  A. Morton's neuroma ...
• Which foot injury is caused by pressure and rubbing from a shoe  A. metarsalgia ...
• Which ligament is most likely to NOT be involved in a lateral ankle sprain  ...
• Which is NOT. a contributing factor of medial tibial stress syndrome  A. weakness of leg ...
• Which injury is common in dancers and women who wear pointed shoes? A. hallux valgus ...
• What is the most common type of ankle fracture? A. medial malleolus B. calcaneus ...
• Which type of tendonitis is common in those who run downhill and feel pain in ...
• Which injury invovles callus formation under the 2nd and 3rd metatarsals  A. turf toe ...
• An athlete who has tight gastrocnemius muscles and often runs up hill is at a ...
• Where do stress fractures most commonly occur in the lower leg? A. distal 1/3 ...
• Which type of tendonitis is a common overuse injury in runners with hypermobility or pronated ...
• Which injury involves a fracture of the base of the 5th metatarsal? A. Sever's Disease ...
• Which type of tendonitis occurs in individuals with pes cavus due to excessive weight placed ...
• Sever's Disease is an apophysitis of which bone A. calcaneus (achilles tendon) B. navicular (posterior ...
• A night splint to help stretch the calf musculature is a treatment option for which ...
• Turf toe is caused by ________ of the great toe  A. abduction B. adduction ...
• Which two motions are the most common mechanism of injury for a high ankle sprain ...
• Which metatarsal is most likley to be affected by a stress fracture? A. 1st ...
• Which ligament is affected by an eversion ankle sprain  A. anterior talofibular B. deltoid ...
• During an ankle dislocation, which bone becomes dislocated from the tibia and fibula? A. calcaneus ...
• Cardiac Output = A. HR x breathing rate B. HR x blood pressure C. HR ...
• During which of these exercise sessions would breathing rate increase the most? A. Weightlifting ...
• During a marathon race, which of the following is most likely to limit the aerobic ...
• During exercise, the vascular shunt mechanism redirects blood to the.... A. Heart B. Kidneys ...
• Which of these exercise types would deplete the ATP-PC system the most? A. Football Match ...
• Acute responses to exercise occur...... A. Before exercise B. During exercise C. After exercise ...
• Which of the following helps enable enough oxygen be delivered to the muscles? A. Increased ...
• Which of the following is the correct order for energy system predominance during a 400m ...
• Musculoskeletal responses to exercise include which of the following? A. Increased Muscle Pliability B. Increased ...
• Minute ventilation = A. Breathing rate x stroke volume B. Breathing rate x tidal volume ...
• a kind of food that provides the body with energy A. digestive B. starches ...
• a medicine that kills bacteria A. digestive B. starches C. antibiotic D. bacteria
• tiny, one celled living things that can cause disease A. digestive B. starches C. antibiotic ...
• one of the many tube-shaped structures that carry your blood and other bodily fluids ...
• an action your body does without you thinking about it, like sneezing or vomiting ...
• a medical doctor who specializes in surgery A. toxins B. surgeon C. mucus D. reflex ...
• having to do with the process of breaking down food for the body to use ...
• a slimy fluid that protects the breathing passages and the stomach A. toxins B. vessels ...
• a poisonous substance that is produced by living cells that can make you sick ...
• These are the common causes of bone fracture except: A. Trauma B. Old Age ...
• What gauge of IV cannula are we going to use for patient who will have ...
• What type of fracture would closed reduction most likely occur? A. Complete Comminuted Fracture with ...
• Usual sites for IV insertion, except: A. Cephalic vein B. Basilic vein C. Basilisk vein ...
• A medical specialty area in the hospital that focuses on treating injuries and diseases of ...
• Range of motions of the knee A. Flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and internal and external ...
• What maneuver does the image correspond to? ...
• Maneuvers present in carpal tunnel syndrome A. Abduction, Tinel Test, and Phalen Test B. Tinel ...
• How is the snuffbox more visible? A. With the lateral extension of the thumb away ...
• How would you search for the bulge sing? A. With the knee extended, place the ...
• If you are doing a neck extension, what bone structure is acting? A. The atlas ...
• What nerves innervate the hand? A. Median, radial and ulnar B. Median and radial ...
• It is the 60% of the walking cycle A. Foot flat B. Swing C. Hellstrike ...
• Range of motions of the elbow A. Flexion, extension, supination, pronation B. Flexion, extension, abduction, ...
• Range of motions of the shoulder girdle A. Flexion, extension, internal rotation, and external rotation ...
• What are the functional units of the musculoskeletal system? A. Bones B. Joints C. Muscles ...
• A patient is being assessed for range-of-joint movement. The nurse asks him to move his ...
• A patient tells the nurse that she is having a hard time bringing her hand ...
• When reviewing the musculoskeletal system, the nurse should recall that hematopoiesis takes place where? ...
• What are the fibrous bands that run directly from one bone to another, strengthen the ...
• A condition known as mitral valve regurgitation where blood from ventricle is leaking into the ...
• Surgery on the septum in the lower region of the human heart may cause damage ...
• FIGURE shows translocation of sucrose based on Pressure Flow Hypothesis. ...
• Which of the following statement is true about heartbeat regulation during vigorous exercise? A. Cardioinhibitory ...
• What occurs in the apoplast and symplast pathways? ...
• Why a person heart beat rate does not slow down even after he finished running? ...
• Which statement describes movement through a plant in the apoplast pathway? A. Water moves through ...
• A recording of the electrical activity of a patient's heart shows that the atria are ...
• A heart attack patient is suffering blockage in the coronary arteries that branched into arteries ...
• Which of the following is TRUE regarding the translocation that occurs at the source and ...
• What is the number 1 cause of Deaf Blindness? A. Being Born Premature B. Usher ...
• How do Deaf Blind people use the computer? A. They don't B. An interpreter reads ...
• Who is Haben Girma? A. The president of the Deaf Blind Association B. A Deaf ...
• Who is this? A. Helen Keller ...
• How do people with Deaf Blindness communicate? A. Protactile ASL B. ASL signed in a ...
• What case did Haben Girma win? A. American Airlines refused to provide braille safety instructions ...
• How do Deaf Blind people get around? A. Service animals B. White and red cane ...
• How would you describe one's experience with DeafBlindness? A. It's all or nothing, they either ...
• What book with Haben Girma write? A. Haben: The Deafblind Woman Who Conquered Harvard Law ...
• Haben Girma says one of the biggest challenges is _____________. A. people's attitudes B. being ...
• the molecule found on the surface of the pathogen has the capability to recognize and ...
• this exoenzyme is also known as the spreading factor A. fibrinolysins B. lecithinase C. hyaluronidase ...
• which of the following is true about secondary infection A. this infection may go from ...
• example of a symptom A. fatigue B. elevated WBS in CBC C. rash D. weight ...
• this refers to the mechanisms involved in the development of disease A. pathogenesis B. pathophysiology ...
• example of a sign A. loss of appetite B. weight loss C. nausea D. fatigue ...
• the beginning of the incubation period if disease is marked by A. time of diaganosis ...
• which of the following is true about infection A. presentation of signs and symptoms are ...
• why does being an obligate intracellular pathogen considered a virulent factor? A. these pathogens are ...
• the classical epidemiologic triad of disease causation consists of factors which fall into which of ...
• During which phase in the course of an infectious disease does the host experience typical ...
• infections known to have a rapid onset and recovery A. chronic infection B. primary infection ...
• These exoenzymes that allow the pathogens to escape from clots A. coagulase B. fibrinolysins ...
• what is the correct order of the different stages in the course of infectious disease ...
• the period of illness stage begins with A. exposure to the agent B. the time ...
• When the pathogens surface antigens closely resembles host antigens and are therefore not recognized as ...
• This is used as a way to express how pathogenic or how strong a microorganism ...
• this refers to the ability of the pathogen to cause a disease A. pathogenicity ...
• infection that involves 2 or more organ system A. primary infection B. localized infection ...
• which of the following statements is true about endotoxins A. they are found in the ...
• Name a special chemical that starts the digestive process? A. HCL B. chlorine C. Bromine ...
• What makes the food wet and slippery? A. Water B. Saliva C. Juice
• What breaks food into smaller pieces? A. mouth B. tongue C. teeth D. large intestine ...
• Everything you do needs energy. Where does this energy come from? A. Air B. Home ...
• Which organ of your body has got stretchy walls? A. Liver B. Stomach C. Esophagus ...
• Which part of the digestive system is number 1? ...
• Which part of the digestive system is number 3? ...
• Which part of the digestive system is number 2? ...
• The process in which food is dissolved is called _______. A. Reproduction B. Digestion ...
• The system that breaks down the food? A. Respiratory system B. Digestive system C. Respiratory ...
• The process of digestion begins in the _______. A. Mouth B. Stomach C. Liver
• When explaining the preparation to a patient who will be having an ECG, the medical ...
• Telemetry is used to A. continuously monitor the electrical activity of the patient's heart ...
• A failure of the cardiovascular system to deliver enough blood to the body's vital organs ...
• When a patient needs to be NPO for 8 hours, the patient should ...
• One inhalation and one respiration is known as A. one respiration B. two respirations ...
• Prior to performing an ECG, the medical assistant should obtain patient identification by obtaining the ...
• The mediastinum is located between the A. lungs B. kidneys. C. arms D. ovaries.
• The advantage of utilizing an ECG ambulatory monitoring device includes all of the following except ...
• When performing an ECG, the patient should be put into what position? A. Prone ...
• Respiratory abnormalities include dyspnea, apnea, and all of the following except A. orthopnea. B. eupnea. ...
• Systole is the phase of the cardiac cycle in which the A. heart relaxes ...
• A normal pulse oximetry reading should be above A. 85% B. 90% C. 95% ...
• Emergency care for seizures includes A. holding the patient's head to prevent injury. B. putting ...
• An automatic blood pressure device has all of the following advantages except A. the device ...
• An apical pulse should be measured at the A. end of the xiphoid process toward ...
• The limb leads of the ECG should be placed on A. flat, nonmuscular areas ...
• When assessing pulse, the rate, rhythm, and _____________ should be assessed A. volume B. strength ...
• Tachycardia is a heart rate which is above A. 80 bpm B. 90 bpm ...
• Prehypertension is a blood pressure reading above A. 150/100 mm Hg. B. 140/90 mm Hg. ...
• A Holter monitor will usually be worn for a period of A. 6–12 hours. ...
• What means more toward feet or below another structure A. superior B. inferior C. posterior ...
• What are all of the accessory organs of the integumentary system? A. sebaceous and sweat ...
• Inflammation of the skin A. eczema B. dermatitis C. psoriasis D. vitiligo
• What means more toward front or belly side of body A. superior B. inferior ...
• We hear the heartbeat by listening over ________ of heart A. base B. side ...
• What is an infection of skin fold around a nail A. onychia B. onychophagia ...
• General term for wound, injury, or abnormality A. contusion B. abrasion C. lesion D. fracture ...
• Bottom or lower part of organ A. base B. side C. apex D. medial ...
• Heart is ________ located in chest cavity A. dorsally B. medially C. ventrally D. sturdily ...
• Located nearer to point of attachment to body A. distal B. proximal C. lateral ...
• What means more toward back or spinal cord side of body A. superior B. inferior ...
• The position a patient would be put into for spinal surgery A. cephalic B. cervical ...
• Superficial dermatitis of unknown cause accompanied by redness, itching, and crusting A. eczema B. dermatitis ...
• Disappearance of pigment from skin in patches, causing milk-white appearance A. eczema B. dermatitis ...
• What is the largest organ of the body? A. heart B. lungs C. skin ...
• Refers to the side A. cephalic B. caudal C. lateral D. inferior
• The dermis is composed of A. connective tissue & collagen fiber B. cartilage & keratin ...
• Located farther away from point of attachment to body A. distal B. proximal C. lateral ...
• A scraping away of skin surface by friction A. contusion B. abrasion C. lesion ...
• Collection of pus in the skin A. pimple B. acne C. keloid D. abscess
• The position a patient would be put into for abdominal surgery A. cephalic B. abdominal ...
• What is the skin's primary function? A. temperature regulation B. protection C. secrete fluids ...
• Injury caused by a blow to the body; causes swelling, pain & bruising; skin is ...
• Evidence suggests that a person's what may influence how well the brain adapts after injury? ...
• Which brain region was damaged as a result of Phineas Gage's work accident? A. Accidental ...
• ___________ involves functions of damaged areas of the brain transferring to undamaged areas of the ...
• Which hemisphere is responsible for spatial awareness? A. Left B. Right
• What is the Broca's area responsible for? A. Speech comphrension B. Visuo-spatial tasks C. Motor ...
• Neurogenesis refers to the repair of existing neurons that have been damaged. A. TRUE ...
• Draganski et al. (2004) measured differences in brain structures between two groups of participants whereby ...
• ___________ involves functions of damaged areas of the brain transferring to undamaged areas of the ...
• What is the Wernicke's area responsible for? A. Speech production B. Motor coordination C. Visuo-spatial ...
• Which brain region processes input from sensory receptors in the body that are sensitive to ...
• Sperry has been criticised for having a small sample size, how many participants did he ...
• Which hemisphere is responsible for language functions? A. Left B. Right
• ______ involves new axons growing and connecting with neurons in undamaged areas of the brain ...
• Split brain patients had undergone surgery, a commissurotomy involves cutting what part of the brain? ...
• Filtration of the blood occurs when fluid is forced by blood pressure out of the ...
• Which of the following is (are) produced by the kidney and is (are) important in ...
• Which of the following describes the role of urinary systems in maintaining cellular homeostasis? ...
• Blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP) in the glomerulus is generated by     A. presence of large ...
• ADH is released into the blood by the A. liver B. pituitary gland C. small ...
• Genetic disorder with recurrent hematuria and deafness A. Alport's syndrome B. Goodpasteur's syndrome C. Diabetic ...
• Which of the following is NOT a function of the vertebrate urinary system? A. Regulating ...
• Which sequence properly describes the flow of filtrate through the nephron? A. Glomerulus, peritubular capillaries, ...
• Valuable substances in filtrate are returned to the blood through what process? A. reabsorption ...
• The descending limb of the loop of Henle A. is permeable to salt and urea. ...
• Which of these hormones enables us to excrete concentrated urine? A. Diuretic hormone B. Aldosterone ...
• In the renal corpuscle, the glomerular epithelium is a layer of specialized cells called:       ...
• In a healthy kidney, glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed into the blood at which ...
• Which sequence properly describes the flow of blood through a kidney? A. Peritubular capillaries, afferent ...
• What is the force that drives glomerular filtration (movement of fluid from the glomerulus to ...
• A child who just recovers from pneumonia develops renal failure. You must be suspecting _________. ...
• Which of the following cell types can contract and expand to regulate diameter of capillaries ...
• The following are abnormalities detected in blood that point to problems in the tubular portions ...
• _____ makes up the major percentage of kidney stones. A. uric acid B. urea ...
• In a healthy kidney, which of the following would you NOT expect to find in ...
• Nitrogenous waste products, such as urea and uric acid, are primarily formed because of the ...
• Antidiuretic hormone regulate reabsorption in which region of the kidney tubule system? A. Glomerulus ...
• Which of the following hormones increases blood pressure by constricting arterioles all over the body? ...
• A patient who produces more than 3L of urine per day is considered A. anuric ...
• Capillaries that surround the proximal convoluted tubules are A. efferent arterioles B. afferent arterioles ...
• What is the thin, muscular tube through which urine leaves each kidney? A. collecting duct ...
• What is the basic functional unit of the kidney? A. glomerulus B. nephron C. collecting ...
• All of the following are part of the nephron EXCEPT the A. glomerulus B. loop ...
• What’s the commonest and earliest form of cell injury? A. Fatty Change B. Hydropic Degeneration ...
• The tissue is in a liquid form and sometimes creamy yellow because of pus formation ...
• Whitish deposits as a result of the formation of calcium soaps. refers to? A. Fat ...
• Cell size: Enlarged (Swelling) A. Necrosis B. Apoptosis
• Plasma Membrane: Intact; may be released in apoptotic bodies A. Necrosis B. Apoptosis
• Which one is more rapidly and severely injured? A. Ishaemic tissues B. Hypoxic tissues ...
• Removal of injururious agents allows recovery to normal state refers to what type of cells ...
• Where does fatty degeneration commonly occur? A. Liver B. Brain C. Heart D. Kidney
• Which necrosis is often associated with the formation of granuloma? A. Fat Necrosis B. Caseous ...
• Vascular damage and the exudation of plasma proteins (such as fibrin) will results in? ...
• Cell size: Reduced (Shrinkage) A. Necrosis B. Apoptosis
• Physical Injury to fatty tissue and are associated with calcification, may mimic cancer refers to? ...
• Necrosis occurs in non-living individual A. TRUE B. FALSE
• A type of accidental cell death typically caused by ischemia or infarction refers to? ...
• No possible recovery refers to what type of cells injuries? A. Sublethal Injury B. Lethal ...
• Abscesses often occur in? A. Liquefactive Necrosis B. Caseous Necrosis C. Fibrinoid Necrosis D. Coagulative ...
• Steatosis refers to? A. Hydropic Degeneration B. Apoptosis C. Fatty Degeneration D. Necrosis
• A unique form of cell death in which the tissue maintains a cheese-like appearance refers ...
• Fat tissue lysed by pancreatic lipase, combine with calcium to produce white areas refers to? ...
• Plasma Membrane: Disrupted A. Necrosis B. Apoptosis
• Which necrosis is often associated with Tuberculosis? A. Fat Necrosis B. Caseous Necrosis C. Fibrinoid ...
• Nucleus: Fragmentation into nucleosome size fragments A. Necrosis B. Apoptosis
• Consequences of restoration of blood flow: Cell restored to normal A. Short duration, Reversible Injury ...
• What are the injuries that are results from impaired regulation of cellular volume? A. Necrosis ...
• Cell death occurs when threshold of accumulated damage is passed. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Consequences of restoration of blood flow: No role of reperfusion A. Short duration, Reversible Injury ...
• Consequences of restoration of blood flow: Reperfusion paradoxically deteriorates the already injured cell A. Short ...
• Deposition of fibrin within blood vessels A. Fat Necrosis B. Caseous Necrosis C. Fibrinoid Necrosis ...
• Oxygen deficiency, affects oxidative respiration refers to? A. Ischaemia B. Hypoxia
• A type of necrosis which results in a transformation of the tissue into a liquid ...
• Which of these is NOT a step in the image production process? A. The X-ray ...
• The only radiation that is of any clinical value is the radiation that is absrorbed ...
• Where is a mobile fluroscopy unit used? A. Surgery B. Doctor's office C. Emergency room ...
• What is attentuation? A. the gaining of radioactive energy as a result of passing through ...
• Which of these would be used for a patient in a hospital room that is ...
• What is one problem that can arise with mobile imaging units? A. they are limited ...
• What is scattered radiation? A. Radiation that spreads out in different directions from a radiation ...
• What is fluoroscopy? A. Use of x-rays to create real time images of patient anatomy ...
• Which of these is used with a film screen and computed radiographic system?. A. Bucky ...
• What are the two classes of Diagnostic Radiographic Imaging A. Flouroscopic & Analog B. Computerized ...
• Where is the x ray tube located? A. tube housing B. on a control arm ...
• Radiographic tables must be set at a standard height of 48 inches. A. TRUE ...
• X rays are designed to be aesthetically pleasing so as not to intimidate patients. ...
• Newer systems are replacing the film screen based technology with what type of tech? ...
• What is primary radiation? A. Radiation that has not interacted with an object yet ...
• Which best distinguishes an infectious disease from a noninfectious disease? A. Infectious diseases can be ...
• Which will most likely occur when the quality of sanitation in an area improves? ...
• The Black Plague killed about 100 million people in the fourteenth century. The bacteria that ...
• How are an epidemic and pandemic alike? A. Both involve a viral infection B. Both ...
• On Monday, Kari exhibits no symptoms of a viral illness. She is sick on Tuesday ...
• Which would most likely be the responsibility of an epidemiologist? A. treating a microbial infection ...
• Which illness is spread by eating food that has been contaminated by bacteria? A. botulism ...
• A mosquito can spread the West Nile Virus but remains unaffected by the disease. Which ...
• Which situation would most favor the spread of infectious disease? A. overcrowding B. use of ...
• How are quarantines used to slow the spread of an epidemic? A. Quarantines prevent individuals ...
• Which would most likely prevent a cold virus from spreading through a classroom? A. Have ...
• Scientists are trying to prevent an epidemic of a highly contagious disease. What information should ...
• Which best describes treatments for viral epidemics and viral pandemics? A. Both are easily treated ...
• Which best compares an epidemic and a pandemic? A. An epidemic is caused by bacteria, ...
• Which most likely spreads disease such as rabies or Lyme disease? A. contact with an ...
• Which antibiotic was developed from a fungus and has been used to cure many illnesses ...
• Which is the main risk associated with being a disease carrier? A. A carrier can ...
• Which would most likely aid in the prevention of an epidemic? A. drinking lots of ...
• Which action would most quickly reduce the spread of an infectious disease? A. isolating all ...
• Which poses the greatest challenge for researchers when attempting to locate the source of a ...
• a type of food required in large amounts in the diet. A. macronutrients B. micronutrients ...
• a chemical compound that is needed in small amounts for the human body to work ...
• activity requiring physical effort carried out to sustain or improve health and fitness. A. energy ...
• inorganic elements present in food that are required by our body to develop and function ...
• any vitamin, mineral, herbal product, or other ingestible preparation that is added to the diet ...
• a chemical element or substance required in trace amounts for the normal growth and development ...
• the ability to do work or cause change; can be stored in chemicals found in ...
• a thing that is not food; can be edible (like vitamins, medicine, and supplements) or ...
•  a substance such as a fat, a protein, or a carbohydrate that a living thing ...
• a measure of the amount of energy in food A. calorie B. energy C. nutrients ...
• something consumed by organisms that provides chemical energy A. food B. nonfood C. energy ...
• From which part of the urinary system is urine discharged out of the body? ...
• What amount of urine sample is required for a urinalysis? A. 1-2ml B. 2-4ml ...
• Which part of the urine stream should be collected as the sample? A. First part ...
• What is the role of kidneys? A. Help regulate blood volume B. Help Control blood ...
• In which part of the day is the urine sample preferred? A. Morning B. Night ...
• One of the main functions of the urinary system is to remove urea from the ...
• What is the characteristic of container of urine sample collection? A. Clean B. Wide mouth ...
• What should the label of urine sample container contain? 1. Name 2. Age 3. ...
• Which of the following organ filters the blood? A. Kidney B. Urinary bladder C. Urethra ...
• Which of the following does NOT belong to the urinary system? A. Urethra B. Ureter ...
• Under which of the following case is the abnormal substance excreted in urine? A. Elevated ...
• In Clinical Pathology, which of these samples are investigated? A. Sputum B. CSF C. Urine ...
• There are 4 kidneys in a normal human body. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Where is urine stored? A. Urethera B. Kidney C. Bladder D. Nephrons
• Nephrons are responsible for making urine. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What type of blood cells fight infections and viruses? A. blue blood cells B. platelets ...
• Tube that connects the larynx to the bronchial tubes. A. trachea B. pharynx C. lungs ...
• Carries deoxygenated blood AWAY FROM the heart to the lungs to pick up oxygen. ...
• The system responsible for gas exchange of oxygen in and carbon dioxide out of the ...
• What happens when you exercise? A. Your heart beats faster, delivering more oxygen to your ...
• Where air enters the body. A. nose/mouth B. alveoli C. diaphragm D. larynx
• Tiny sacs in the lungs where gas exchange with the blood takes place. A. alveoli ...
• The blood is carried AWAY from the heart through these. A. vein B. ventricles ...
• The fluid that carries gases, nutrients, and wastes through the body. A. blood B. trachea ...
• Found in the heart and veins and prevents blood from flowing backwards. A. valves ...
• Where does oxygen from the respiratory system join the circulatory system? A. alveoli and capillaries ...
• Which type of blood cell contains hemoglobin, which attaches to and delivers oxygen and water? ...
• Which is NOT a function of the respiratory system? A. Deliver oxygen to the blood ...
• This organ pumps blood throughout the body. A. heart B. lungs C. stomach D. liver ...
• These are the major organs of the respiratory system. A. lungs B. heart C. brain ...
• What is NOT a function of your nose? A. cools the air B. filters the ...
• These help you stop bleeding when you get a cut. A. blue blood cells ...
• Your voice box; where your vocal cords are located. A. pharynx B. larynx C. alveoli ...
• Which is NOT a function of the circulatory system? A. Deliver nutrients to cells from ...
• This is the fluid part of the blood. A. plasma B. platelets C. white blood ...
• The blood travels BACK TO the heart in this type of blood vessel. A. vein ...
• Tiny blood vessel that allows the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between respiratory and ...
• The gas that we exhale. A. carbon dioxide B. carbon monoxide C. oxygen D. water ...
• The gas that we inhale and is needed by the cells of the body. ...
• Levels of organization from smallest to largest A. organelle, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism ...
• The largest artery in the body A. aorta B. vena cava C. pulmonary artery ...
• The dome-shaped muscle that helps you breathe. A. diaphragm B. lungs C. stomach D. bicep ...
• The system that moves blood through the body. A. circulatory B. respiratory C. nervous ...
• This term means kidney disease A. diabetes B. cystitis C. bacteriuria D. nephropathy
• A lot of (many, much) urine is known as A. dysuria B. polyuria C. ketonuria ...
• Study of the kidney A. nephrologist B. biology C. urologist D. nephrology
• the medical term for inflammation of the urinary bladder is: A. cystitis B. arthritis ...
• Ureteroplasty A. surgical repair of the ureter B. surgical repair of the nose C. inflammation ...
• urination at night is known as A. nocturia B. dysuria C. ketonuria D. polyuria ...
• A specialist of the urinary system is known as a/an A. nephrologist B. cardiologist ...
• Dysuria A. excessive calcium in the urine B. urination at night C. Painful/difficult urination ...
• Ketones in the urine A. ketonuria B. nocturia C. dysuria D. bacteriuria
• inflammation of the renal glomeruli is also known as A. glomerulonephritis B. cystitis C. urinary ...
• pus in the urine, usually from an infection is referred to by this medical term ...
• the medical term to crush a stone, or calculus is: A. ketonuria B. polyuria ...
• The medical term for blood in the urine is: A. nocturia B. hematuria C. pyuria ...
• What is the medical term for the surgical removal of the urinary bladder A. lobectomy ...
• When doctors find bacteria in your urine they'll diagnose you with: A. bacteriuria B. pyuria ...
• The suffix -uria stands for A. pertaining to B. urination C. inflammation D. nose bleed ...
• the medical term for a new opening for the ureter is: A. apendecotmy B. ileostomy ...
• The medical term for complete separation of blood A. transfusion B. urologist C. hemodialysis ...
• sugar or glucose in the urine can indicate diabetes. it's known as this medical term ...
• excessive calcium in the urine is called by this medical term A. hypercalciuria B. ketonuria ...
• A disease that has a sudden and perhaps severe onset, is not long term, and ...
• tube that conducts urine from the kidney to the blader A. bladder B. ureter ...
• the functional unit of the kidney is the A. ureter B. kidney C. nephron ...
• filter blood and maintain electrolyte balance A. bladder B. ureter C. kidney D. Renal artery ...
• A decrease in the ability of the kidneys to function A. incontinence B. UTI ...
• collapsible sac that temporarily stores urine A. bladder B. ureter C. kidney D. Renal artery ...
• bacterial infection in the urethra A. incontinence B. UTI C. Kidney Stones D. Renal Failure ...
• The _____ are to the lungs as the _____ are to the kidneys. A. ...
• A by product of protein synthesis is a nitrogenous waste that is eventually converted to ...
• tube that conducts urine to the outside of the body A. bladder B. ureter ...
• delivers blood to the kidney A. bladder B. ureter C. kidney D. Renal artery ...
• The urethra of males and females differ in the following way(s) A. The female urethra ...
• Difficulty urinating, can be due to an enlarged prostate A. incontinence B. UTI C. Urinary ...
• In the glomerulus fluids and solutes are exchanged with the bloodstream on the surface of ...
• Inability to control the release of urine from the bladder A. incontinence B. UTI ...
• The elastic structure that folds back over the glottis, preventing the entry of liquids or ...
• Label C represents which structure(s)? A. ...
• Label E represents which structure(s)? A. larynx ...
• A chamber shared by the respiratory and digestive systems is the A. larynx. B. glottis. ...
• Which structure extends posteriorly from the hard palate and is inferior to the nasopharynx? ...
• When you exhale, in what order does air travel through the respiratory tract? A. Alveolus, ...
• Airways that supply one lobe of a lung are called A. secondary bronchi. B. bronchioles. ...
• The study of the respiratory and respiratory-related diseases is ... A. Pulmonology B. Lymphology ...
• Label D represents which structure(s)? A. nose ...
• The respiratory mucosa is made up of A. dense irregular connective tissue. B. squamous epithelium. ...
• The paranasal sinuses, together with other structures of the upper respiratory tract, A. are where ...
• Label B represents which structure(s)? A. nose ...
• Which of the following forms much of the anterior and lateral surfaces of the larynx, ...
• Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by the A. upper (conducting) portion ...
• The glottis is A. the inferior margin of the soft palate. B. a flap of ...
• The primary organs of the respiratory system include... A. Nasal Cavity, Pharynx, Larynx, Trachea, Bronchi, ...
•  Microorganisms removed from incoming air by the mucus of the respiratory tract are ultimately exposed ...
• Label F represents which structure(s)? A. larynx ...
• The trachea A. is lined by dense regular connective tissue. B. is reinforced with C-shaped ...
• Label J represents which structure(s)? A. trachea ...
•  The nasal cavity opens into the nasopharynx at the A. internal nares. B. external nares. ...
•  The portion of the nasal cavity contained within the flexible tissues of the nose is ...
• The lamina propria of the respiratory mucosa consists of which of the following connective tissues? ...
• Glands within the lamina propria of the respiratory mucosa secrete A. hormones B. saliva ...
• Functions of the respiratory system include A. protecting respiratory surfaces from dehydration and temperature changes. ...
• Label I represents which structure(s)? A. trachea ...
• Respiratory Exchange involves the inhalation of __ an exhalation of __. A. Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide ...
• Label A represents which structure(s)? A. bronchus ...
• When you inale, the diaphragm A. relaxes and moves inferiorly B. replaces and moves superiorly ...
• Label H represents which structure(s)? A. bronchus ...
• Label G represents which structure(s)? A. larynx ...
• What method of transport does water get reabsorbed into the blood at the PCT ...
• Takes urine from the kidney to the bladder A. Ureter B. Urethra
• The region of the brain that detect the change in concentration of the blood ...
• What method of transport does glucose and inorganic ions get reabsorbed into the blood at ...
• More ADH secreted from the pituitary gland =? A. More water reabsorbed and less concentrated ...
• Part of the nephron where ultrafiltration occurs A. Glomerulus B. PCT C. Loop of henle ...
• First part of the nephron where the glomerular filtrate enters from the glomerulus A. Glomerulus ...
• ADH causes the collecting duct to become ............... permeable to water A. More B. Less ...
• Where ADH is released from A. Hypothalamus B. Pituitary gland C. Pancreas
• During what reaction is oxygen produced and carbon dioxide used in a leaf? A. Respiration ...
• During what reaction is oxygen used and carbon dioxide produced in a leaf? A. Respiration ...
• Not enough water in our blood results in ................. ADH being released A. More ...
• Excretes waste out of the body from the bladder A. Ureter B. Urethra
• Which organ cleanses the lymph? A. Spleen B. Thymus C. Lymph nodes D. MALT
• To what part of the lymphatic system is the arrow ...
• The ________ duct takes lymph from everywhere (other than the right arm, right side of ...
• Which choice is NOT a lymphoid organ? A. Spleen B. Thymus C. Appendix D. Small ...
• Where can you find the ileum? A. the mouth B. the small intestine C. the ...
• The thymus plays a key role in _______ life A. early B. late
• Which structure is NOT a MALT? A. spleen B. tonsils C. Peyer's patches D. appendix ...
• Lymph flows towards AND away from the heart A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What is NOT a symptom of an inflamed appendix? A. Change in appendix color ...
• T cells avoid invading substances A. TRUE B. FALSE
• All of the following are functions of the lymphatic vessels EXCEPT A. Return leaked proteins ...
• The structure of lymphatic capillaries makes them _______ permeable than blood capillaries A. more ...
• What is the ring of MALT that gathers and removes pathogens before they enter the ...
• The Thymus is a primary lymphoid organ A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The lymphatic system's function is to return fluids that have leaked from the vascular system ...
• Lymph gets filtered in the A. lymphatic vessels B. lymph nodes C. lymphatic ducts ...
• The immune system helps maintain blood volume levels, and thus also maintains A. blood pressure ...
• Lymphocytes are A. T cells only B. Red blood cells only C. B cells only ...
• This is a diagram of a A. ...
• Primary lymphoid organs are made up of _____ & _____ cells A. A and C ...
• Which of these prevents pathogens from entering mucous membranes? A. tonsils B. peyer's patches ...
• B cells are made in A. yellow bone marrow B. lymph nodes C. red bone ...
• ______________________________ are present in the lymph nodes A. macrophages and lymphocytes B. epithelial cells and ...
• Which of these should NOT be done when treating an athlete with a foreign object ...
• Following an injury that results in an orbital hematoma, how long should you advise an ...
• Which injury is most commonly caused by being poked in the eye or a foreign ...
• Which of these should NOT be done to treat a nosebleed? A. tile head forward ...
• Which of these is NOT a major sign of a nasal fracture? A. Obvious deformity ...
• An orbital fracture of the eye: A. Is caused by an object striking the forehead ...
• Which type of force typically caused more deformity with a nasal fracture? A. Anterior blow ...
• Bleeding into the tissue surrounding the eye is known as A. orbital fracture B. orbital ...
• How should you handle an athlete with a hyphema? A. Have them ice for 30 ...
• What is epistaxis A. Nose bleed B. Runny Nose C. Nasal Fracture D. Deviated Septum ...
• Retinal detachments are most common in.... A. Athletes with near-sightedness B. Athletes with far-sightedness ...
• What complication could arise from a deviated septum A. Difficulty breatthing B. Bone/Cartilage loss ...
• A hyphema is a collection of blood within the anterior chamber of the eye. ...
• What is diplopia A. Blurry Vision B. Vision Loss C. Double Vision D. Light sensitivity ...
• Which of these is a classic sign of an orbital fracture? A. Facial Deformity ...
• Which of the following eye injuries is painless and results in the athlete seeing floating ...
• Which eye condition should you suspect if your athlete presents with eyelid swelling, itching or ...
• Athlete's with an orbital hematoma should be encourage to blow their nose in order to ...
• Small projections located on the tongue’s surface where taste ...
• Central nervous system consist of two parts which are .............................. A. spinal nerve and spinal ...
• which of the ear part function to detect and convert sound vibration to nerve impulses? ...
• Name of cells that sensitive to different light intensities A. Cone cells B. Rod cells ...
• The two lines appear bent even though they are ...
• What is the advantage of monocular vision? A. provide a narrow field of vision ...
• Which of the following body part is most sensitive to touch? A. arm B. sole ...
• Which part of the eye function to holds the eye lens in its position? ...
• Smell receptors are located at the ........parts of nasal cavity A. upper B. lower
• The older person is weaker their ability of hearing because A. aging B. range of ...
• X is an eye defect. X occurs due to too thick eye lens. What is ...
• What is the characteristic of stereoscopic vision? A. Provide wide field of vision B. Produce ...
• Azhar has a cold and unable to taste the food properly. What sense is involved ...
• which of the following is the causes of long-sightedness? A. eye ball too long ...
• The largest sensory organ A. eye B. tongue C. ear D. skin E. nose ...
• a psychologist who analyzes observable behavior & studies conditioning & reinforcement A. behaviorist B. functionalist ...
• Psychologists study human _______________________ by observing and measuring how people act.  A. behavior B. natural ...
• Who was nicknamed the Father of Psychology? A. Wilhelm Wundt B. Edward Titchener C. William ...
• Psychological perspective concerned with physiological and biochemical factors that determine behavior and mental processes. ...
• Which early psychological perspective believes that the mind can be broken up into separate parts? ...
• The first modern psychologist who was interested in the uncounsious minds was A. Wilhelm Wundt ...
• a psychologist who studied the actions of the conscious mind and the goals or purposes ...
• This person started the first lab for the study of psychology establishing modern psychology as ...
• Psychiatrists differ from psychologists in that they A. help people cope with challenges and crises. ...
• This person father of psychology in the United States taught the first psychology class at ...
• Who studied unconscious and conscious behavior? A. Sigmund Freud B. B.F. Skinner C. Ivan Pavlov ...
• approach in psychology in which the psychologist studies how unconscious motives & conflicts determines human ...
• Dr. Didden was hired by the TLC Company to help it retain its employees without ...
• Define: Psychology A. Study of human behavior and animal behavior B. Study of mental process ...
• Outer layer of skin A. keratin B. sebacious layer C. epidermis D. dermis
• oily substance secreted by sebaceous glands A. sweat B. dermis C. sebum D. melanin
• Consists of the skin, mucous membranes, hair, and nail A. keratinization B. sweat glands (sudoferous ...
• perspiration A. sebum B. sweat C. melanin D. deodoris
• The process by which cells form fibrils of keratin and harden A. sebacious glands ...
• protective coverings on the ends of the fingers and toes A. hair B. nails ...
• A pigment that gives the skin its color A. sebum B. dermis C. melanin ...
• oil glands in the skin A. sweat glands B. Castor glands C. sebacious glands ...
• Produce hairs that provide delicate touch sensations on general body surface A. sebacious glands ...
• middle layer of skin A. epidermis B. sebum C. hypodermis D. dermis
• Composed of adipose tissue; functions as a site for storage, shock absorber, insulates deep tissue, ...
• the glands that produce a saline solution called sweat A. sebacious glands B. epidermis ...
• The carotid artery is located in the A. armpit B. neck C. groin D. abdomen ...
• A diagnostic test that measures the electrical activity of the heart. A. coronary bypass surgery ...
• Exchange of materials between blood and tissue occurs via A. veins B. arteries C. capillaries ...
• The medical tool used to measure blood pressure by cutting off the blood supply to ...
• One of the major characteristics of arteries supplying peripheral tissues is that they are ...
• Systole and diastole refer to A. contraction and relaxation of the heart, respectively B. relaxation ...
• The blood vessels which have valves are A. arteries B. veins C. capillaries
• Blood exits the heart to the body via the A. aorta B. vena cava
• Blood returning from the lungs enters the A. right atrium B. right ventricle C. left ...
• Varicose veins are caused by A. a loss of elasticity in blood vessels B. incompetent ...
• Heart problems such as atrial or ventricular septal defects are serious because the result is ...
• A blockage in an artery supplying blood to the brain A. myocardial infarction B. stroke ...
• The double pump function of the heart includes the right side, which serves as the ...
• This EKG appears to be A. Normal ...
• Arteries do not require valves like veins do because blood is pushed through arteries by ...
• The tricuspid valve is located between the A. right and left atria B. right atrium ...
• Why is blood pumped to the lungs? A. To obtain oxygen B. To obtain carbon ...
• The vessels that carry blood to the heart are the A. arteries B. veins ...
• The left ventricle pumps blood to the A. lungs B. body
• The muscular portion of the heart wall is called the A. myocardium B. epicardium ...
• A medical procedure in which a catheter is fed through veins in the leg to ...
• Normal average blood pressure in an adult is A. 120/80 B. 90/55 C. 150/90
• Blood flow through the circulatory system is affected by A. pressure differences B. viscosity of ...
• Which of the following is NOT a location where you could measure your pulse? ...
• A blockage in a coronary artery can lead to A. myocardial infarction B. stroke ...
• Blood flow to the lungs is called ...
• A medical procedure where a vein is removed from another part of the body (typically ...
• The pacemaker cells of the heart are located in the A. Bundle of His ...
• Cardiovascular functions are regulated by A. neural factors B. venous return C. endocrine factors ...
• Blood pressure is determined by measuring the A. rate of pulse B. pressure of the ...
• Blood returning to the heart from the body first enters the A. right atrium ...
• The lubdub sounds of the heart have practical clinical value because they provide information concerning ...
• Oxygenated blood traveling away from the heart toward body tissues occurs via A. arteries ...
• What cellular process is the oxygen from the lungs required for? A. transcription B. cellular ...
• Blood enters the heart from the body via the A. aorta B. vena cava
• These teeth have relatively sharp edges and are used to cut or incise food. ...
• Which should be in your toothpaste? A. iron B. calcium C. flouride
• Provides treatment and prevention of diseases of the gums, bone, and structures supporting the teeth ...
• The soft, sticky film on teeth that contains bacteria. A. caries B. cavity C. pulp ...
• These dental professionals provide oral hygiene techniques and dental health education. A. Dental Assistant ...
• A. periodontics B. pedodontics C. prosthodontics ...
• This is also known as cuspids; have one pointed cusp used for holding and tearing ...
• The portion of the tooth embedded in the bone A. root B. crown C. cementum ...
• Surgery on the teeth, mouth, and jaw A. orthodontics B. endodontics C. oral surgery ...
• A sticky material that forms on teeth is called? A. Dental plaque B. Mouth guard ...
• how many years do you have to do in school to become a oral and ...
• Which white blood cells are formed by the lymphoid stem cells? A. neutrophils B. lymphocytes ...
• What is a clot called in an unbroken blood vessel? A. thrombus B. fibrinogen ...
• What is a clot that breaks away and floats freely in the blood stream? ...
• What is the name of the common stem cell from which all blood cells are ...
• Where does hematopoiesis occur? A. in the bone marrow B. in the blood vessels ...
• What hormones prompt bone marrow to make platelets? A. erythropoietin B. interleukins C. thrombopoietin ...
• What hormone controls the rate at which new red blood cells are produced? A. erythropoietin ...
• What is the process of blood cells being produced called? A. homeostasis B. hematopoiesis ...
• What is the life span of a red blood cell? A. 90-100 days B. 2-3 ...
• What organ produces erythropoietin? A. liver B. kidney C. spleen D. lungs
• Which of the following is the correct order for the steps in hemostasis? A. ...
• ______ injections consist of small volumes of fluid usually less than 1 or 2 mL ...
• A small volume parenteral usually contains ____ mL to ____ mL. A. 0.01mL to 0.1mL ...
• Which of the following is NOT a primary route for injectable medications? A. Intradermal ...
• Intramuscular injections are injected into the: A. abdominal cavity B. muscle tissue C. dermis ...
• This method requires long-term, continuous infusion using tubing and a pump. A. Subcutaneous B. Intraperitoneal ...
• Which of the following is an example of an intradermal injection? A. Tuberculosis B. Insulin ...
• Allergy shots would be given with which of the following types of needle? A. Large-bore ...
• This ROA is used for patient receiving dialysis: A. Intraperitoneal B. Intramuscular C. Intravenous ...
• Lidocaine is sometimes used with IM injections because it is a: A. collodion B. liniment ...
• When a medication is administered directly into the portal system, what organ absorbs the medication? ...
• TPN is an example of a A. SVP B. LVP C. IV push D. IM ...
• The osmotic pressure of a solution is also known as: A. osmolality B. osmolarity ...
• Medication delivered all at once is called a(n): A. stat dose B. continuous infusion ...
• The fluid itself is the treatment and usually comes in premade volumes of 500 to ...
• This type of therapy is administered to a patient who cannot digest food. A. Hydration ...
• What is the recommended treatment for a muscle spasm in the lower leg? A. Alternate ...
• Of the following, what muscle is superior to the other three? A. Gastrocnemius B. Intercostals ...
• Which muscles are located between the ribs? A. Intercostals B. Internal obliques C. Latissimus dorsi ...
• What muscle is located in the lower leg? A. Gastrocnemius B. Gluteus maximus C. Trapezius ...
• The tough, sheet like membrane that covers and protects muscle is: A. fascia B. a ...
• Of the following, what muscle would do the most work if you ran five miles? ...
• Karina’s leg was in a cast for ten weeks. You would expect her leg muscles ...
• One of the characteristics of muscles is extensibility. This allows muscles to: A. consume oxygen ...
• Where is the latissimus dorsi located? A. Back B. Leg C. Neck D. Shoulder ...
• What would cause a muscle contracture? A. Inactivity B. Overuse C. Pulling D. Twisting ...
• What muscle injury is often caused by overstretching a muscle? A. Atrophy B. Dislocation ...
• What muscle is located above the waist? A. Deltoid B. Gastrocnemius C. Gluteus maximus ...
• Where would you find a voluntary muscle? A. Attached to the femur B. In blood ...
• What disabling muscle disorder usually affects children? A. Fibromyalgia B. Muscular dystrophy C. Myasthenia gravis ...
• When a muscle attaches to a bone, the end that does not move is the: ...
• Tetanus is caused by: A. a bacteria. B. a missing gene. C. an autoimmune response. ...
• Which of the following is one of the properties of muscles? A. Excitability B. Antagonist ...
• The walls of the heart are made of: A. cardiac muscle B. contractile muscle ...
• After you swallow food, what kind of muscle moves the food toward your stomach? ...
• What muscle movement occurs when you move your hand from an open palm to a ...
• Symtoms of this slow, progressive brain degenerative disease include Abnormal bent-forward posture with bowed head ...
• Is Huntington's Disease hereditary?  A. Yes B. No C. Sometimes 
• Which of the following diseases causes demyelination of the neuron? A. Multiple Sclerosis B. Polio ...
• Which AGE GROUP is affected most by Alzheimer's disease? A. 60-65 year olds B. 20-30 ...
• You’re developing a plan of care for a patient with multiple sclerosis who presents with ...
• Which of the following nervous system disorders occurs as a result of tangled plaques forming ...
• Which of the following diseases does NOT affect memory or mental cognition? A. ALS ...
• When do the symptoms of Huntington's appear? A. 0 - 10 years old B. 10 ...
• Identify the disorder: symptoms include... A. ALS ...
• Most people with Huntington's disease develop signs and symptoms during what age? A. 3-5 ...
• Select the TRUE statements about the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis A. Plaques of demyelination, disseminated ...
• Doctors will try to detect for this disease by... A. making you climb Mt. Everest.  ...
• Which of the following disorders is associated with a decrease in the neurotransmitter called dopamine? ...
• Which of the following is a symptom of epilepy? A. seziures B. confusion ...
• MS affects central nervous system (CNS). Which part of the CNS is affected A. Nerve ...
• What kind of disease is multiple sclerosis? A. Infectious B. Viral C. Autoimmune D. Blood ...
• Parkinson's disease is a ....................... disorder A. degenerative B. deficiency C. metabolic D. neoplastic
• Presence of lesions in different regions of the CNS A. Dissemination in time (DIT) ...
• A chronic, slowly progressive disease of the central nervous system that destroys the myelin sheath ...
• A condition involving a progressive loss of brain function with major consequences for memory, thinking, ...
• The clear cause of MS remains unknown, though ____________ may be important factors. A. Ethnicity, ...
• What is the most common type of MS? A. Secondary progressive MS B. Relapsing remitting ...
• HD can be cured with: A. Medication B. Therapy C. Vaccine D. Literally Nothing
• Which of the following diagnoses best describes a disorder that involves seizure activity? A. MS ...
• True or False: Alzheimer's Disease can go away completely with treatment. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• This disease starts in the midbrain (substansia nigra) and creates a dopamine deficiency in the ...
• Which of the following is the most helpful study in the clinical investigation of MS? ...
• What part of a person's body breaks down due to HD? A. Nerve cells in ...
• A chronic nervous system disease characterized by a slowly spreading tremor, muscular weakness, and rigidity ...
• HD causes damage to which part of our body? A. Red Blood Cells B. Alveoli ...
• Symtoms of this slow, progressive brain degenerative disease include Abnormal bent-forward posture with bowed head ...
• An endoparasite is a term used for an organism which inhabits the ________. A. Intestines ...
• What is the name of the stage of stress at which the fish attempts to ...
• ______________ is an infectious disease, that exists permanently in a particular region or population. ...
• ______________ is a global disease outbreak. A. Endemic B. Epidemiology C. Epidemic D. Pandemic ...
• Parasites that can survive and complete its life cycle without infecting a particular host species ...
• Which of the following is vertical transmission of a disease? A. Transmission by nets ...
• What term is used to explain microorganisms that cause diseases? A. Epidemiology B. Pathiology ...
• The stage of stress at which the fish is able to achieve an equilibrium with ...
• _______________ occurs when an infectious disease spreads rapidly to many other group/population. A. Endemic ...
• What term is used to explain the study of microorganisms that cause diseases? A. Epidemiology ...
• ______________ is A disease outbreak is a SUDDEN INCREASE IN DISEASES IN A CERTAIN TIME ...
• An ectoparasite is a term used for an organism which inhabits the ________. A. Intestines ...
• What is the function of warning and alarm systems in hospitals? A. Inform responsible staff ...
• Which of the given types of gas is also known as surgical air? A. Medical ...
• Which of the following is the use of a spirometer? A. Blood pressure measurement ...
• The pipeline used for nitrous oxide is of___color. A. Black B. Blue C. White ...
• What is hypoxia? A. Decreased oxygen concentration in tissue B. Infection caused by bacteria in ...
• A jet nebulizer is a type of which nebulizer? A. Mechanical B. Electrical C. Pneumatic ...
• In oxygen delivery methods, What is the use of oxygen concentrators? A. Used to check ...
• What is the use of medical air 7 bar A. Derive bone saw B. Derive ...
• Which of the following gases are not used in hospitals? A. Oxygen B. Nitrogen ...
• Which of the following determined by the pulmonary function test? A. How long lungs can ...
• Pick the correct suction used in the fat removal procedure. A. Surgical suction B. Midwifery ...
• How much oxygen is inhaled from atmospheric air by normal breathing? A. 10% B. 17% ...
• Which nebulizer uses micropump technology in which it forces liquid medication through multiple openings in ...
• The larger cylinders are used in: A. Invasive oxygen system B. Portable oxygen system ...
• What is the oxygen flow rate provided by nasal catheters? A. 2-6 liter per minute ...
• Which of the following is the complication caused by cardioversion? A. Diarrhea B. Slight skin ...
• Which of the following is a hand-held device? A. Resuscitation Bag B. Hyperbaric Oxygen Chambers ...
• What type of air is produced by medical air treatment systems? A. Full of oxygen ...
• Which of the following is a type of electrical nebulizer? A. Ultrasonic wave nebulizer ...
• What is the concentration of oxygen that can be delivered through a non rebreather mask? ...
• The nasal catheter should be changed: A. Every 1 hr B. Every 8 hr ...
• Catheters for airway suctioning are___and___to reduce mucosal trauma and limit obstruction of the airway ...
• Which of the following is a low flow oxygen delivery device? A. Nasal chamber ...
• For ABC analysis the sample is collected from: A. Capillaries B. Veins C. Arteries ...
• What is the function of Rotameter? A. Measures rate of gas flow in anesthesia ...
• The term used in a suction procedure like surgical delivery is: A. Gastroenterology B. Surgical ...
• Which of the following factors are the cause of hypoxia? A. High altitude B. COPD ...
• Why does the system should be gas spacific? A. To ensure quality of specific delivered ...
• Which of the following statement is TRUE? A. Passive respiratory gas humidifiers cannot prevent drying ...
• Oxygen concentration delivered by nasal cannula is : A. 50-70% B. 30-45% C. 24-40% ...
• What are the main causes of air embolism: A. Injury of large veins B. Chest ...
• Causes of true capillary stasis: A. The effect of chemicals on tissues and blood vessels ...
• Thrombosis is: A. The process of formation of a formation of blood elements in the ...
• Indicate the possible consequences of thrombosis in the veins of the human legs: A. Pulmonary ...
• The main factors influencing the formation of thrombi EXCEPT: A. Slow blood flow B. Disorders ...
• What is retrograde embolism? A. displacement depending on the weight of the embolus B. Embolism ...
• What centralized hemodynamic changes prove pulmonary artery embolism? A. A drop in blood pressure within ...
• Pathophysiological processes underlying thrombosis EXCEPT: A. Viscous metamorphosis of platelets B. Increased intravenous colloidal osmotic ...
• Identify the types of stasis: A. ischemic B. venous C. TRUE D. All of the ...
• Indicate the adverse effects of thrombosis: A. thrombus infection, sepsis B. thromboembolism, purulent thrombus dissolution ...
• What are the possible consequences of arterial thrombosis: A. heart attack B. embolism C. venous ...
• The pathogenesis of true stasis is: A. Intracapillary aggregation of erythrocytes B. Slow blood flow ...
• Consequences of thrombosis: A. edema, mildew, multiple sclerosis B. ischemia, venous hyperemia C. arterial hyperemia, ...
• Consequences of retrograde embolism of the portal vein? A. Venous failure of non-paired abdominal organs ...
• One of the causes of paradoxical embolism is: A. Incomplete bottleneck B. Pulmonary artery stenosis ...
• Hyperacute rejection is A. Graft is rejected within a minute B. Graft is rejected within ...
• What is a graft between different members of the same species termed? A. Autograft ...
• Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is known as a delayed hypersensitivity reaction? A. Type I       ...
• Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is mediated via IgG and IgM binding to self-antigens and ...
• Which part of the eye can be recovered and transplanted? A. Iris (the color part) ...
• Dry mucous membranes and changes in taste three weeks after an unidentified viral illness could ...
• Which of the following can be donated by a live donor? A. Kidney B. Heart ...
• The marker molecules found on the membrane of nucleated cells responsible for graft rejection called ...
• Who can be a donator? A. Anyone, regardless of age or medical history B. Only ...
• Vasodilation following a type I hypersensitivity reaction is principally caused by which molecule? A. Histamine ...
• Which type of hypersensitivity involves IgE? A. Type I  B. Type II C. Type III  ...
• Which of the following is involved in rejection process A. T cells    B. B cells    ...
• Which term is used to describe an organ transplanted from a donor to a recipient ...
• Which type of hypersensitivity is known as allergy? A. Type I     B. Type II   ...
• Which one is the below can not be translated? A. Kidney B. Lungs C. Brain ...
• A graft of tissue from one point to another of the same individual's body is ...
• Immune complexes is related to which type of hypersensitivity? A. Type I     B. Type II   ...
• Serology is defined as the examination of body parts A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Blood stains are not always directly visible A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Where are antigens located? A. Surface of red blood cell B. In the serum ...
• Who discovered the ABO and Rh blood groups? A. Oliver B. Decastello C. Landsteiner ...
• Which hormone is detected in pregnancytestst? A. Estrogen    B. Progestrone    C. Chrionic gonodotropin  D. Luteinizing ...
• Agglutination of dyed bacterial cells represents which type of reaction A. Direct agglutination B. Indirect ...
• The study of antigen-antibody reactions A. Serology B. Crime Scene Reconstruction C. Trace Evidenced ...
• Proteins on the surface of the red blood cells that account for blood type ...
• The study of blood applied to crime is called  A. Forensic Anatomy B. Forensic ...
• To determine whether a bloodstain is of human or animal origin, the serologist will perform ...
• What determines blood type? A. Proteins on red blood cells B. Proteins on white ...
• Which of the following is best suit to use known antibodies to identify an unknown ...
• What blood components are directly pertinent to blood typing? A. RBC                  B. WBC           C. Plasma                           ...
• A protein that stimulates the body to produce antibodies A. Antigen B. the fluid portion ...
• What happens when blood agglutinates in response to an antibody? A. It becomes clear ...
• A process where the red blood cells clump together by the action of an antibody. ...
• A protein in the blood that destroys or inactivates a specific antigen is called ...
• Serological tests detect the presence of ___________ in the blood. A. Antibody           B. Antigen     C. Leukocyte        ...
• Serological test is also called as A. Antibody test    B. Antigen test     C. Agglutination test    ...
• Which of the following is best suit to use a known antigen to see if ...
• In meiosis, each new cell has 46 chromosomes. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• In mitosis, cells division produces two identical cells. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The basic unit of structure and function of all living things is ____. A. the ...
• What does nervous tissue do? A. allows for movement of the body or things within ...
• Which are examples of connective tissue? A. bones, adipose tissue, blood B. nerves C. skeletal, ...
• Which organelle contains digestive enzymes that digest and destroy foreign material? A. ribosome B. vacuole ...
• Epithelial tissue is the main tissue in the skin, glands, and tracts of many body ...
• Which organelle is a fine network of tubular structures that allow transport of materials into/out ...
• The study of the process of living things.....why and how they work is ______. ...
• Which is NOT a type of muscle tissue? A. skeletal B. cardiac C. visceral/smooth ...
• There are five main types of body tissue: epithelial, connective, glandular, nerve, and musle. ...
• When egg & sperm meet, a zygote is formed, which has a full complement of ...
• Rough endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Structure that contains the cell's genetic material in the form of DNA A. Vacuole ...
• Stem cells have ability to transform into any type of specialized cell. A. TRUE ...
• The semi-liquid fluid inside the cell, which serves as the site for all chemical reactions ...
• Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is present in all human cells. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• When organs and other body parts join together for a particular function, a(n) _______ is ...
• Which is the pouch-like cell organelle that stores food, water, or waste material? A. vacuole ...
• Cells of the same type that join together for a common purpose form _____. ...
• Which is a pocket-like fold in the cell membrane that helps large molecules enter the ...
• When body systems work together to maintain an human body, there is a(n) _____. ...
• The basic SUBSTANCE of life is ________. A. the cell B. protoplasm C. the organism ...
• With mitosis, each new cell created has 46 chromosmes (23 pairs). A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Two or more tissues that join together for a common purpose form a(n) _____. ...
• Which is NOT a function of adipose tissue? A. can be utilized by the body ...
• Which is located within the nucleus and manufactures ribosomes? A. mitochondria B. nucleolus C. vacuole ...
• Which is the brain of the cell? A. nucleolus B. nucleus C. endoplasmic reticulum ...
• Which organelle produces, stores, and packages secretions for discharge from the cell? A. Golgi Body ...
• The study of how disease occurs is ______. A. anatomy B. physiology C. pathophysiology ...
• Which is the outer, protective covering of the cell? A. cell membrane B. cytoplasm ...
• Adipose tissue is another name for ______. A. bone tissue B. nerve tissue C. fatty ...
• The study of the form and structure of an organism is _____. A. physiology ...
• Which is the powerhouse of the cell and produces energy? A. lysosome B. pinocytic vesicle ...
• Meisosis is the process utilized in the reproduction of the sex cells (egg & sperm.) ...
• Suffix meaning surgical repair A. -oma B. -plasty C. -scope D. -scopy
• Pertaining to eye/vision A. corneal B. cold C. optic D. oral
• Medical instrument used to measure intraocular pressure A. audiometer B. audiogram C. optic D. tonometer ...
• Ringing or roaring in the ears A. sinusitis B. rhinitis C. cystitis D. tinnitus
• Surgical repair of the tympanic membrane (ear drum) A. rhinoplasty B. myringoplasty C. retinoplasty ...
• Surgical repair of the cornea A. myringoplasty B. blepharoplasty C. keratoplasty D. rhinoplasty
• cold A. hydr/o B. hidr/o C. cry/o D. my/o
• Instrument for visual examination of the ear A. laryngoscope B. spirometer C. otoscope D. stethoscope ...
• Light sensitive (afraid of light) A. agoraphobia B. photophobia C. arachnophobia D. acrophobia
• Medical instrument to measure hearing A. Audiometer B. Audiologist C. Tonometer D. Sphygmomanometer
• Condition of double vision A. diplopia B. biopic C. myopia D. tinnitus
• Inflammation of the ear A. cystitis B. otitis C. arthritis D. endocarditis
• Malignant tumor of the retina A. carcinoma B. melanoma C. lymphoma D. retinoblastoma
• Record of hearing A. telegram B. audiogram C. hologram D. otalgia
• Surgical repair of the eyelid A. myringoplasty B. blepharoplasty C. keratoplasty D. rhinoplasty
• Earache. Pain in the ear A. otalgia B. cephalgia C. encephalopathy D. audiometer
• Dry eye condition A. retinopathy B. xerophtalmia C. retinoblastoma D. myringoscope
• Any disease of the retina A. retinopathy B. encephalopathy C. photophobia D. xerophtalmia
• Specialist in eye diseases A. Ophthalmologist B. Optometrist C. Endocrinologist D. Pulmonologist
• instrument for visual examination of the tympanic membrane (ear drum) A. otoscope B. laryngoscope ...
• Surgical excision of the tympanic membrane (ear drum) A. appendectomy B. splenectomy C. myringectomy ...
• Pertaining to the cornea A. renal B. pharyngeal C. retinal D. corneal
• Ear A. myring/o B. ot/o C. opt/o D. or/p
• Specialist in ear, nose and throat, also known as ENT doctors A. ophthalmologist B. cardiologist ...
• Calculate the mean arterial pressure (MAP) for a patient ...
• Which of the following statements describes the significance of blood pressure changes as blood reaches ...
• What type of vessel is capable of allowing the ...
• At what point would we definitely not be able to measure the difference between systolic ...
• Which of the following organs would experience decreased blood flow during exercise? A. skeletal muscles ...
• What pressure is responsible for reabsorption and for pulling ...
• Which of the following is true regarding veins? A. Veins have valves; arteries do not ...
• Which layer of the typical vessel can be regulated ...
• Arteries always carry oxygenated blood away from the heart. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Large diameter, thick-walled arteries that are close to the heart and act as pressure reservoirs ...
• A muscle that is being regularly contracted during exercise ...
• Which of the following is NOT a vasoconstrictor? A. ANP B. norepinephrine C. antidiuretic hormone ...
• Toxic substances absorbed along the digestive tract put stress on the liver because all of ...
• Which of the following hormones will lower blood pressure? A. angiotensin II (Ang II) ...
• e most permeable capillaries, which contain fenestrations and large intercellular clefts, are called __________. ...
• Edema can be caused by an increase in capillary hydrostatic pressure (HPc) or a decrease ...
• Continuous capillaries are the most common capillaries in the body. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Which layer of the typical blood vessel is constructed ...
• You have a patient with a very low blood pressure of 80/60 mm Hg. What ...
• inner part of internal tissues A. Renal capsule B. Renal cortex C. Renal medulla ...
• collecting tubules are here A. Renal capsule B. Renal cortex C. Renal medulla D. Renal ...
• functional unit of kidney A. Renal Papilla B. Calyx C. Renal Pelvis D. Nephron
• drops of urine drip from here A. Renal Papilla B. Calyx C. Renal Pelvis ...
• 3cm in length, connects to outside world A. ureter B. bladder C. male urethra ...
• outer part of internal tissues A. Renal capsule B. Renal cortex C. Renal medulla ...
• all urine funneled here before leaving kidney A. Renal Papilla B. Calyx C. Renal Pelvis ...
• collects drops of urine A. Renal Papilla B. Calyx C. Renal Pelvis D. Nephron ...
• tough exterior layer of kidney A. Renal capsule B. Renal cortex C. Renal medulla ...
• 20cm in length, passes through prostate A. ureter B. bladder C. male urethra D. female ...
• Area where most of the water reabsorption occurs. A. Afferent Arteriole B. Efferent Arteriole ...
• transports urine from kidney to bladder A. ureter B. bladder C. male urethra D. female ...
• active secretion rids blood of large molecules here A. Afferent Arteriole B. Efferent Arteriole ...
• holds urine for release to outside world A. ureter B. bladder C. male urethra ...
• brings blood to nephron A. Afferent Arteriole B. Efferent Arteriole C. Glomerulus D. Loop of ...
• capillary tufts where filtration occurs A. Afferent Arteriole B. Efferent Arteriole C. Glomerulus D. Loop ...
• A body is found sitting upright in a chair, however the front of the body ...
• The victim’s body is not rigid and is warm. How long has she been dead? ...
• Livor Mortis is: A. The self-digestion of cells B. Lack of blood flow in the ...
• A body is found that shows no signs of rigor mortis. The body has been ...
• Maximum rigor mortis occurs A. between 2-4 hours B. 2-6 hours after death C. 12 ...
• the spontaneous breakdown of cells as they self-digest A. rigor mortis B. algor mortis ...
• The buildup of what substance in the eye can help determine PMI? A. Potassium ...
• How long does it take the stomach to empty its contents into the small intestine? ...
• The discoloration of a dead body caused by blood cells leaking hemoglobin is: A. putrefaction ...
• Rigor mortis means A. Death stiffness B. Death color C. Death bloat D. Death heat ...
• Pallor Mortis is: A. The self-digestion of cells B. Lack of blood flow in the ...
• the stiffening of the skeletal muscles shortly after death A. livor mortis B. autolysis ...
• What is true of rigor mortis? A. It is temporary B. The body is most ...
• Normal body temperature is A. 96.5 °F B. 97.2 °F C. 98.6 °F D. 100 ...
•  Pinpoint red marks that is are an important sign of asphyxia are called: A. Petechial ...
• After death, a human body cools at the rate of: A. 0.78°C / 1.4ºF ...
• Rigor mortis starts at the feet and moves up the body. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• PMI stands for A. Post-Mortem Interval B. Pre-Mortem Interval C. Private mortgage insurance D. Project ...
• Autolysis is A. The self-digestion of cells B. Lack of blood flow in the capillary ...
• the process of rotting and break down A. rigor mortis B. decomposition C. livor mortis ...
• The cooling of body temperature after death is: A. algor mortis B. livor mortis ...
• Algor Mortis is: A. The self-digestion of cells B. Lack of blood flow in the ...
• Which of the following are factors that can affect rigor mortis? A. temperature B. activity ...
• A body is found with a blue-purple coloring across the back and the back of ...
• The postmortem process of endogenous autolysis and putrefaction from external and primarily internal bacterial sources ...
• If undigested stomach contents are present, then death occurred: A. 0-2 hours after last ...
• the specific body failure that leads to a person's death A. mechanism of death ...
• What is muscle tissue? A. Tissue that is produced in the spongy part of bones ...
• What is the relationship between structure and function of the skeletal system? A. The skeletal ...
• The failure of which body system can cause an immediate problem? A. Reproductive B. Urinary ...
• Which word best describes a bacteria? A. Antibiotic B. Macrophage C. Pathogen D. Antibody
• A student measures the time it takes for a sheet of paper to fall from ...
• Which two body systems make movement possible? A. Nervous and endocrine B. Respiratory and cardiovascular ...
• What is homeostasis? A. The elimination of wastes B. The digestion of food C. Cells ...
• A dialysis machine does the work of a person’s kidneys.  What does a dialysis machine ...
•  If a person has a brain injury, how will it affect the body? A. It ...
• What is the main function of the respiratory system? A. To break down food ...
• What is the structure and function of the bladder? A. A thin tube, filtration of ...
• How can you avoid overexposure to germs? A. Exercise regularly B. Wear sunscreen while outdoors ...
• What can happen if skeletal muscles become weak? A. Loss of the ability to digest ...
• What reasoning explains why muscle action in the small intestines and other organs is known ...
• What happens if arthritis destroys cartilage in a joint? A. Muscles in the joint will ...
• Which body system is affected if you get sick often, and fluid is not getting ...
• Which phrase defines a scientific law? A. A well supported explanation B. An accepted description ...
• How does the circulatory and digestive system work together? A. The digestive system takes in ...
•  What is an important function of the skeletal system A. Fight infections B. Digest food ...
• A scientific hypothesis: A. Based on personal opinions B. Does not have to be tested ...
• A ureter carries liquid waste between which two structures A. The bladder and the outside ...
• Which two body systems represent an example of how they work together to maintain homeostasis ...
• What is a main function of the lymphatic system? A. To deliver oxygen to cells ...
• Which process best describes respiration? A. Removing waste from the bloodstream B. Removing waste from ...
• Which system explains how growth changes over a period of time? A. The circulatory system ...
• term for female sex cell A. semen B. oocyte C. ovum D. fallopian tube
• the shedding of the endometrium A. menses B. blastula C. placenta D. ovulation
• beginning of childbirth A. uterus B. pregnancy C. labor D. menopause
• hormone produced by the placenta A. gastrula B. human chorionic gonadotropin C. amniotic fluid ...
• Tubes in the testes where sperm is produced A. vas defrens B. seminiferous tubules ...
• the mucous membrane lining of the inner surface of the uterus A. endometrium B. semen ...
• roll of skin that covers the glans of the penis A. semen B. foreskin ...
• A nearly mature egg or ovum A. Graafian follicle B. ovarian follicle C. oocyte ...
• Tube that transports sperm from the testes to the urethra A. placenta B. uterus ...
• A gland in the male that surrounds the base of the urethra A. bulbourethral gland ...
• Cells that produce testosterone in the testes A. acrosome B. mammary C. leydigs D. ovum ...
• inner lips of the vulva A. placenta B. labia minora C. labia majora D. ovulation ...
• a fluid flled sac in which an egg matures A. graafian cycle B. ovulation ...
• the cessation of menstrual periods A. ovulation B. ovarian cycle C. menstrual cycle D. menopause ...
• A hollow sphere of cells formed by repeated mitosis of the zygote A. fibroids ...
• delivery of the fetus by surgical incision A. cesarean section B. prgnancy C. labor ...
• the lowermost part of the uterus A. fallopian tubes B. vagina C. glans D. cervix ...
• The ovarian cycle of events that take place before ovulation A. luteal phase B. follicular ...
• A packet of enzymes in a sperms head A. acrosome B. epididymis C. ovum ...
• tube where sperm are collected ad stand after leaving the testes A. epididyimus B. seminiferous ...
• glands that help produce semen A. seminal vesicle B. vas defrens C. testes D. seminiferous ...
• Tumors of the myometrium A. placenta B. fibroids C. cervical cancer D. breast cancer ...
• Stage of development when sexual reproduction becomes possible. A. menses B. labor C. puberty ...
• An embryonic stage in which the three basic tissue germ layers form A. blastocyst ...
• A structure formed in the follicle after the egg is released. A. oocyte B. corpus ...
• External part of urinary and reproducitve system in males. A. scrotum B. penis C. glans ...
• Attachment of the embryo to the endometrial lining A. implantation B. fertilization C. gastrula ...
• A fluid produced by the mammary glands in late pregnancy and just after labor. ...
• cancer of the mammary glands A. breast cancer B. cervical cancer C. ectopic pregnancy ...
• Pouch of skin that encloses the testes. A. cervix B. scrotum C. uterus D. epidiymis ...
• muscular canal running from the uterus to the exterior of the body A. Puberty ...
• Outer lips of the vulva A. labia minora B. uterus C. labia majora D. ovum ...
• fluid-filled sac that surrounds the fetus A. placenta B. oocyte C. amniotic sac D. scrotum ...
• A strength of deviation from social norms as a definition of abnormality is... A. It ...
• This definition of abnormality suggests any behaviour outside of the normal range is abnormal. ...
• Which is not a limitation of deviation from ideal mental health as a definition of ...
• A strength of statistical infrequency as a definition of abnormality is... A. It is a ...
• What % of population suffers from OCD? A. 15% B. 10% C. 5% D. 2% ...
• How do anti-depressants (SSRIs) help with OCD? ...
• This definition of abnormality suggests those whose behaviour is maladaptive to everyday living is abnormal. ...
• In the worry circuit explanation of OCD, which brain region sends 'worry' signals to the ...
• A limitation of statistical infrequency as a definition of abnormality is... A. Common behaviours can ...
• A limitation of failure to function adequately as a definition of abnormality is... A. Dispositional ...
• In the worry circuit, which brain region cannot suppresses the worry signals from the OFC ...
• This definition of abnormality suggests those who fail to follow the common expectations of behaviour ...
• This definition of abnormality suggests those who do not meet particular criteria for psychological well-being ...
• A strength of failure to function adequately as a definition of abnormality is... A. It ...
• Compared with the general population, people with a relative who has OCD have a x5 ...
• A strength of deviation from ideal mental health as a definition of abnormality is... ...
• What gene leads to high levels of dopamine which could also be a cause of ...
• The SERT gene leads to what happening? A. No serotonin being released into synaptic gap ...
• A limitation of deviation from social norms as a definition of abnormality is… A. Judgments ...
• Moving the arm laterally away from the body is an example of? A. flexion ...
• Bending hand toward the thumb is an example of? A. flexion B. extension C. abduction ...
• The movement of a limb toward the body midline A. adduction B. abduction C. flexion ...
• Type of movement that points the toes A. eversion B. supination C. plantar flexion ...
• Movements that you choose to control A. Cramp B. Voluntary C. Strain D. Involuntary
• Making the palms face anteriorly is an example of? A. Circumduction B. Pronation C. Supination ...
• Which of these muscles is located on the ventral (anterior) side of the body? ...
• Moving fingers away from the palm is an example of? A. flexion B. extension ...
• The prime mover of arm abduction is the ________ muscle. A. trapezius B. deltoid ...
• The movement of a bone around its longitudinal axis A. inversion B. flexion C. supination ...
• Bending upper limb at the elbow is an example of? A. flexion B. extension ...
• Movements that you cannot control A. Strain B. Sprain C. Voluntary D. Involuntary
• Which of these muscles is the prime mover of elbow extension? A. brachialis B. latissumus ...
• Moving back of hand toward the forearm is an example of? A. flexion B. extension ...
• These muscles are found in your organs A. Skeletal B. Smooth C. Rough D. Cardiac ...
• When kicking a football the knee A. Flexes B. Extends C. Abducts D. Adducts
• How are muscles attached to bone? A. Ligaments B. Cartlidge C. skin D. Tendons
• Type of movement that decreases the angle of the joint A. inversion B. flexion ...
• Type of movement that allows you to carry a soup bowl A. supination B. abduction ...
• The point of muscle attachment to an immovable or less movable bone is known as ...
• Which muscle forms the curved calf of the posterior leg? A. fibularis longus B. gastrocnemius ...
• Moving fingers toward the palm is an example of? A. flexion B. extension C. abduction ...
• Touching chin to chest is an example of? A. flexion B. extension C. abduction ...
• Circling the thigh at the hip is an example of? A. Circumduction B. Pronation ...
• Moving the thigh laterally toward the body is an example of? A. flexion B. extension ...
• Moving palm toward the forearm is an example of? A. flexion B. extension C. abduction ...
• Raising head away from chest is an example of? A. flexion B. extension C. abduction ...
• Moving the thigh laterally away from the body is an example of? A. flexion ...
• Type of movement that turns the sole of the foot medially A. eversion B. inversion ...
• Circling the arm at the shoulder is an example of? A. Circumduction B. Pronation ...
• Making the palms face posteriorly is an example of? A. Circumduction B. Pronation C. Supination ...
• Bending hand away from thumb is an example of? A. flexion B. extension C. abduction ...
• What is the main function of the quadriceps group? A. arm flexion B. hand supination ...
• Bringing the arm laterally toward the body is an example of? A. flexion B. extension ...
• Straightening lower limb at the knee joint is an example of? A. flexion B. extension ...
• Bending lower limb at the knee joint is an example of? A. flexion B. extension ...
• The movement of a limb away from the body midline A. adduction B. flexion ...
• Straightening arm at the elbow is an example of? A. flexion B. extension C. abduction ...
• This muscle is only found in your heart. A. Skeletal B. Smooth C. Rough ...
• Muscles that perform opposite actions to one another are termed ________. A. synergists B. prime ...
• The basic unit of the nervous system is the ... A. nerve B. neuron ...
• The __________ is found at the base of the skull and connects the brain and ...
• The small gap between neurons is the ... A. nerve B. neuron C. axon ...
• The smallest part of the brain, often called the brain stem, is the __________ . ...
• Hearing is controlled by the _________ lobe of the cerebrum. A. occipital B. parietal ...
• The brain and spinal cord are covered and protected by _________. A. nerves B. vertebrae ...
• Part of the neuron that takes signals away from the cell body A. cell body ...
• The division of the PNS that controls voluntary muscle movements A. sympathetic B. autonomic ...
• A bundle of neurons forms a __________. A. axon B. cell body C. dendrite ...
• Consists of the cranial and spinal nerves A. CSF B. CNS C. PNS D. ESP ...
• Type of nerve that carries messages to the CNS from the sense organs A. motor ...
• Another name for efferent nerves A. motor B. mixed C. synapse D. sensory
• The part of the brain that controls balance and body movements is the __________ ...
• The human body has ____ pairs of cranial nerves. A. 12 B. 24 C. 31 ...
• The ability of the body to maintain a stable environment is... A. homeostasis B. haemophilus ...
• An infection of the meninges is ... A. Parkinson's B. Alzheimer's C. Palsy D. Meningitis ...
• These nerves carry impulses to and from the spinal cord A. cranial B. spinal ...
• The part of the brain that controls vital involuntary functions is the __________ . ...
• Vision is controlled by the _________ lobe of the cerebrum. A. occipital B. parietal ...
• Fills spaces between meninges and bathes brain and spinal cord A. CSF B. CNS ...
• Type of nerve that is a combination of sensory and motor nerves A. motor ...
• Part of the neuron that brings signals to the cell body A. cell body ...
• Part of the neuron that is the nerve cell or soma A. cell body ...
• The largest spinal nerve is the _________ nerve. A. Trigeminal B. Sciatic C. Facial ...
• The term for when motor and sensory nerves work together in response to a stimulus. ...
• Consists of the brain and spinal cord A. CSF B. CNS C. PNS D. ESP ...
• Speech and sensations (pain, touch) are controlled by the _________ lobe of the cerebrum. ...
• The human body has ____ pairs of spinal nerves. A. 12 B. 24 C. 31 ...

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