Sitemap 79

• What is the role of enzymes in anabolic reactions? A. Enzymes break down large ...
• What is an enzyme? A. A type of protein that increases the rate of ...
• What is enzyme-substrate specificity? A. Enzymes can only bind to one specific substrate ...
• What is the optimum temperature for enzyme activity in the human body? A. 0°C ...
• What factors can affect the activity of an enzyme? A. Temperature and pH ...
• Which of the following enzymes is used for making lactose-free products? A. Amylase ...
• What is the role of inhibitors in enzyme reactions? A. Inhibitors increase the rate ...
• Which of the following is true about enzymes? A. Enzymes are proteins that can ...
• How does an enzyme function as a catalyst? A. By increasing the temperature of ...
• What is the role of activators in enzyme reactions? A. Activators increase the rate ...
• Carbon monoxide (CO) binds the hemoglobin protein at the oxygen binding site. Once the CO ...
• The First Law of Thermodynamics states that energy can be - A. Created ...
• Small organic molecules that assist in enzymatic functions are - A. Coprolites B. ...
• Oxidation is the _____ and reduction is the _____ A. loss of electrons, gain ...
• When muscles contract, chemical energy is converted to mechanical energy with the loss of heat. ...
• Feedback inhibition occurs when the final product acts as an inhibitor to the first enzyme ...
• Enzymes are consumed by reactions A. TRUE B. FALSE
• If inhibition is to be competitive, which of the following must be true? A. ...
• A reaction with a positive /\G is - A. Exergonic B. Entropic ...
• Spending ATP involves hydrolyzing it into ADP and inorganic P. The energy released can drive ...
• A ball sitting atop a hill begins to roll down after getting a slight tap. ...
• Increasing the temperature increases the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction. Once a critical temperature is ...
• Which of the following is defined as the amount of heat required to raise one ...
• Catabolic reactions energy to form or transform chemical bonds. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• A muscle contraction is ___, but as the muscle contracts heat is released which is ...
• A catalyst speeds up chemical reactions. How do catalysts do this? A. Decreasing entropy ...
• The energy in a system that is able to do work is called A. ...
• Which enzyme catalyzes the phosphorylation of glucose to yield glucose 6-phosphate? A. Hexokinase ...
• What is the primary site for carbohydrate digestion? A. Mouth B. Stomach ...
• What is the net gain of ATP molecules for every glucose molecule converted into two ...
• How many ATP molecules are produced for the complete oxidation of one molecule of glucose? ...
• Which enzyme is involved in the conversion of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate in glycolysis? ...
• Which stage of glycolysis is an energy-consuming stage? A. Six-carbon stage B. Three-carbon ...
• What is the net result of the isomerization of glucose 6-phosphate to fructose 6-phosphate? ...
• Which step of glycolysis involves the production of ATP through substrate-level phosphorylation? A. Step ...
• What is the purpose of glycogenolysis? A. To synthesize glycogen from glucose B. ...
• Which steps of glycolysis involve the production of ATP? A. Steps 1, 3, 7, ...
• What is the final product of glycolysis? A. Glucose B. Pyruvate C. ...
• What is the final step in carbohydrate digestion? A. Conversion of disaccharides to monosaccharides ...
• Under aerobic conditions, pyruvate is oxidized to which molecule? A. Acetyl CoA B. ...
• What is the purpose of lactate fermentation? A. To produce ATP B. To ...
• Which enzyme catalyzes the cleavage of fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate into two triose phosphates? A. ...
• What is the major enzyme involved in the hydrolysis of triacylglycerols in the small intestine? ...
• Which of the following is NOT a ketone body? A. Acetoacetate B. β-hydroxybutyrate ...
• What is the primary site for ketogenesis? A. Liver mitochondria B. Adipose tissue ...
• What is the main function of adipose tissue? A. Storage location for energy ...
• What is the primary source of stored energy in the human body? A. Protein ...
• What is the primary site for ketogenesis? A. Liver mitochondria B. Adipose tissue ...
• Which ketone body is produced first in the process of ketogenesis? A. Acetoacetate ...
• What is the function of micelles in lipid digestion and absorption? A. To transport ...
• What is the purpose of the shuttle mechanism in fatty acid transport into the mitochondrial ...
• How many ATP molecules are produced from the oxidation of stearic acid, an 18-carbon fatty ...
• What is the purpose of the shuttle mechanism in fatty acid transport into the mitochondrial ...
• Which ketone body is produced first in the process of ketogenesis? A. Acetoacetate ...
• Which of the following is NOT a health risk associated with excess fat located in ...
• Converts ferrous ions to ferric ions: A. Divalent Metal Transporter 1 B. Duodenum-Specific ...
• Ferritin and Hemosiderin in Macrophages and Hepatocytes of Storage Compartment accounts for: A. 10% ...
• When the body has adequate stores of iron, the hepatocytes sense that and will increase ...
• a Female patient with a Total Iron Binding Capacity (TIBC) of 75 umol/L is suggestive ...
• What membrane-associated protein in enterocytes transports non-heme ferrous ions from the intestinal lumen into the ...
• What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body? A. ...
• 20-80% of the Bone Marrow Normoblasts have Visible Iron with 1-3 Inclusions. Erythrocytes and ...
• 70% of total body iron is transported in _______ state to Heme portion of Hemoglobin ...
• The degradation of Heme in an Enterocyte is facilitated by: A. Heme Oxidase ...
• Iron is transported in plasma via: A. Transferrin B. Divalent Metal Transporter 1 ...
• In order to enter Enterocytes, the reduction of Heme Iron (Fe2+ to Fe3+) is facilitated ...
• Iron is transported out of macrophages, hepatocytes, and enterocytes by what membrane protein? A. ...
• The transfer of iron from the enterocyte into the plasma is REGULATED by: A. ...
• ________ in Hepcidin Production enables Ferroportin to transport Iron out. A. increase B. ...
• The total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) of the serum is an indirect measure of which iron-related ...
• Converts non-heme ferric ions to ferrous ions: A. Divalent Metal Transporter 1 B. ...
• What is the percent transferrin saturation for a male patient with total serum iron of ...
• Below are several of the many steps in the process from absorption and transport of ...
• What is the main function of the CRISPR–Cas9 genome editing system in exa-cel therapy? ...
• How many participants were involved in the clinical trial of exa-cel? A. 9 ...
• What is the role of the Cas9 enzyme in the exa-cel therapy? A. To ...
• What is the purpose of the exa-cel therapy in sickle-cell disease? A. To cure ...
• What is the main concern regarding off-target edits in CRISPR–Cas9 therapies? A. Introduction of ...
• What is the potential risk associated with off-target edits in CRISPR–Cas9 therapies? A. Introduction ...
• What is the primary cause of sickle-cell disease? A. Misshapen and sticky blood cells ...
• What is the purpose of disabling the BCL11A gene in exa-cel therapy? A. To ...
• What is the potential long-term complication associated with gene-altering therapies for sickle-cell disease? A. ...
• What is the purpose of the CRISPR-based therapy exa-cel? A. To cure sickle-cell disease ...
• What is the main function of fetal haemoglobin in the treatment of sickle-cell disease? ...
• What is the potential risk associated with modifying blood stem cells in gene-altering therapies? ...
• What is the potential risk associated with gene-altering therapies for sickle-cell disease? A. Increased ...
• What is the potential risk associated with off-target edits in CRISPR–Cas9 therapies? A. Introduction ...
• How long are trial participants of exa-cel proposed to be followed for? A. 5 ...
• What is the main component of scar tissue? A. Collagen B. Fibroblasts ...
• In can take several years for a scar to completely remodel and heal A. ...
• The process where leukocytes engulf and digest bacteria A. leukocytosis B. pathogenesis ...
• Which protein forms the scab at the end of the acute inflammatory response A. ...
• What are the signs of inflammation? A. Pain, swelling, heat, redness, and loss of ...
• What is the difference between acute and chronic injury? A. Acute injuries occur from ...
• What is the Latin word for Heat A. Calor B. Rubor C. ...
• This type of pain continues past normal healing time (more than 6 months) A. ...
• The inflammatory process will only occur along borders of injury that have blood supply ...
• Which law states the collagen fibers will respond to the amount of stress placed on ...
• Injury immediately begins which phase of healing A. maturation B. fibroblastic repair ...
• Inflammation is designed to be a protective mechanism A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Disease causing microorganisms A. pathogens B. bacteria C. microbes D. monocytes ...
• What is the Latin word for Redness? A. Rubor B. Tumor C. ...
• Is everything that is inflamed infected? A. Yes B. No
• acute inflammation can be defined as A. a purulent exudate B. a condition ...
• What is the localized collection of pus called? A. Abscess B. Angioblast ...
• What is the purpose of capillaries growing into the wound A. exchange oxygen and ...
• The healing process is a continuum and some phases will overlap each other. A. ...
• this tissue has limited healing capacity due to lack of blood flow A. muscle ...
• What is inflammation? A. The body's normal response to injury that attempts to minimize ...
• Give 2 examples of acute injury. A. Achilles tendinitis, Jumpers knee B. Achilles ...
• What is the purpose of controlled motion during the remodeling phase? A. To prevent ...
• What is the Latin word for Pain? A. Dolor B. Calor C. ...
• Scar tissue is as strong as uninjured tissue A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Which Law states that tissue will adapt to the load put on it? A. ...
• What is the purpose of pain in the inflammatory response? A. To encourage increased ...
• Is everything that is infected inflamed? A. Yes B. No
• Which chemical mediator causes the blood vessels to get bigger? A. cytokines B. ...
• Which of the following vascular change that corresponds with redness? A. Increased vascular permeability ...
• What cell adheres to the wall of the injury to create a sticky plug ...
• When administering loop diuretic, what electrolyte replacement should be supplemented? A. Vitamins B. ...
• Which medication is a potassium-sparing diuretic? A. acetazolamide (Diamox) B. spironolactone (Aldactone) ...
• This hormone is responsible to absorb water from the lumen. A. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ...
• Which class of medications is commonly used to treat heart failure? A. Anticoagulants ...
• Which class of medications is commonly used to treat abnormal heart rhythms? A. Anticoagulants ...
• Name the agent under the class of carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. A. Frusemide B. ...
• A geriatric patient with a history of kidney disease develops increasing bilateral edema in the ...
• Which of the following medications is an ACE inhibitor? A. Metoprolol B. Warfarin ...
• The nurse has provided patient teaching about potassium-sparing diuretic therapy. Which statement by the patient ...
• Which of the following medications is a calcium channel blocker? A. Digoxin B. ...
• Which of the following medications is a calcium channel blocker? A. Digoxin B. ...
• Which class of medications is commonly used to prevent blood clots? A. Anticoagulants ...
• Which class of medications is commonly used to treat high blood pressure? A. Anticoagulants ...
• Diuretics can be used for the following conditions EXCEPT A. Heart Failure B. ...
• Which of the following medications is an ACE inhibitor? A. Metoprolol B. Warfarin ...
• Which patient assessment would alert the nurse to withhold a loop diuretic? A. Crackles ...
• Which of the following medications is a beta blocker? A. Diltiazem B. Enalapril ...
• Which of the following is an anticoagulant medication? A. Metoprolol B. Warfarin ...
• Which class of medications is commonly used to lower blood pressure? A. Anticoagulants ...
• Which class of medications is commonly used to treat angina? A. Anticoagulants B. ...
• Which of the following medications is a beta blocker? A. Diltiazem B. Enalapril ...
• Which of the following medications is a beta blocker? A. Diltiazem B. Enalapril ...
• A patient who has been taking a thiazide diuretic is hypokalemic. The nurse should instruct ...
• Ototoxicity is a side effect related to this diuretic. A. acetazolamide B. mannitol ...
• Which class of medications is commonly used to treat arrhythmias? A. Anticoagulants B. ...
• The umbilical arteries carry A. oxygenated blood B. deoxygenated blood
• The umbilical cord has A. one artery B. two arteries C. three ...
• In children, dobutamine mainly affects A. Beta 2 adrenergic receptors B. Beta 1 ...
• What is the most common presentation in pediatric septic shock? A. Cold shock ...
• In pediatric septic shock, you will want to set your norepinephrine drip to A. ...
• For a wide complex pediatric tachydysrhythmia, what is the dose of amiodarone? A. 150 ...
• What is unique in the neonate compared to infants and older children? A. Neonates ...
• What is the dose for Push Dose Epinephrine in the pediatric cardiac dysrhythmias protocol? ...
• Fluid resuscitation in septic shock should be dosed based on A. actual body weight ...
• According to Alabama protocols, pediatric bradycardia is usually secondary to A. hypoxia or hypoglycemia ...
• Which of the following is an endogenous catecholamine precursor of epinephrine? A. Dopamine ...
• A newborn is in shock. Where should you place the pulse oximeter probe? A. ...
• What is the MINIMUM dose of atropine for pediatric stable bradycardia? A. 0.5 mg ...
• What is the most common cause of distributive shock in children? A. Toxicologic ...
• In a pediatric with sepsis and signs of hypoperfusion, how many times may you repeat ...
• What is the max dose for push dose epinephrine in the pediatric cardiac dysrhythmias protocol? ...
• What is shock? A. Inadequate delivery of oxygen to tissues B. Low blood ...
• How does a child compensate for low cardiac output? A. Increase heart rate ...
• A child presents in shock secondary to an adrenal crisis. The correct dose of SoluMedrol ...
• For stable pediatric bradycardia, what is the recommended medication? A. Push dose epinephrine ...
• A newborn ECG will demonstrate A. left axis deviation B. right axis deviation ...
• At moderate concentrations, dopamine affects A. Beta1 receptors B. Beta2 receptors C. ...
• Positive inotropic medications work by A. increasing the force of ventricular contraction B. ...
• The adrenal glands in a child produce A. aldosterone, cortisol, and androgens B. ...
• According to Alabama protocols, a child with sepsis should receive vasopressor therapy to maintain a ...
• A child in ventricular fibrillation should initially be shocked with A. 1 J/kg ...
• In utero, the dominant ventricle of the heart is the A. left ventricle ...
• Which nerve injury may result in ipsilateral paralysis of the muscles of facial expression? ...
• What is a potential complication of injury to the inferior alveolar nerve during dental implant ...
• During orthognathic surgery, injury to which nerve may result in difficulty swallowing and speech impairment? ...
• Which nerve is most commonly affected during extraction of the mandibular third molars (wisdom teeth)? ...
• Which surgical procedure is most likely to cause injury to the mental nerve? A. ...
• Which nerve is most commonly injured during the removal of benign tumors from the parotid ...
• What is the most common symptom of lingual nerve injury during dental procedures? A. ...
• Which nerve injury is associated with the risk of Frey syndrome (gustatory sweating) after parotid ...
• Which nerve injury may result in altered taste sensation on the posterior one-third of the ...
• What is a potential complication of injury to the glossopharyngeal nerve during tonsillectomy or related ...
• Which nerve is at risk during Le Fort I osteotomy, which involves the separation of ...
• Which nerve is at risk during orthognathic surgery involving the maxillary impaction? A. Trigeminal ...
• What is the common consequence of injury to the buccal nerve during maxillofacial surgery? ...
• Which nerve is at risk during orthognathic surgery involving the sagittal split ramus osteotomy? ...
• The most common incontinence non drug treatment is A. Squats B. Swimming ...
• Diarrhea non-drug treatments A. Resting B. Drinking clear liquids C. pedialyte ...
• Sodium management can help manage A. Edema B. Gerd C. Urinary ...
• What do nephrons do? A. regulate fluids, solutes & paste in the body ...
• The gradual kidney function decline in patients with chronic kidney disease can worsen with ...
• Antacids may interact with medications and prevent proper A. Excretion B. Distribution ...
• Important electrolyte that helps conduct nerve impulses and balance bodily fluids A. Sodium ...
• Untreated vomiting causes severe A. Diarrhea B. severe dehydration C. GERD ...
• Causes inflammation and sores A. Severe vomiting B. GERD C. Ulcerative ...
• Which is a cation A. Bicarbonate B. Sodium C. Phosphate ...
• PPI's are used mainly to treat A. Fistulae B. Emisis C. ...
• Large food amounts trigger significant A. stomach growth B. body fat C. ...
• Dialysis patients must watch their fluid and A. electrolyte B. Phosphate ...
• What causes temporary edema A. High altitude B. Exercise C. Medication ...
• The filtering unit of the kidneys? A. Renin B. Nephrons C. ...
• Dietary treatment is vital in A. CKD treatment B. CHF treatment ...
• Treatment includes lifestyle changes, physical reset and restricted diet A. GERD B. Vomiting ...
• Stores vitamins and Iron A. Rectum B. Stomach C. small intestine ...
• often resolves quickly without treatment A. prognosis B. diarrhea C. peptic ...
• Which specialty focuses on how people develop and learn throughout their lives? A. Community ...
• Who specializes in areas of employment, human resource management, and training and development? A. ...
• What is the main role of a social worker in mental health? A. Prescribing ...
• Which specialty focuses on assessing, diagnosing, and treating psychological problems and mental illness? A. ...
• Which specialty in psychology focuses on assessing, monitoring, and managing individuals with brain impairments? ...
• Which specialty focuses on how psychological factors related to health and illness can affect a ...
• Who primarily works in criminal, civil, and family legal areas? A. Clinical Psychologist ...
• Who is qualified to diagnose mental health issues and work out treatment plans? A. ...
• Who specializes in areas of employment, human resource management, and training and development? A. ...
• Which specialty focuses on how psychological factors related to health and illness can affect a ...
• Which specialty assists individuals, couples, families, and groups with relationships, wellbeing, work, and crisis management? ...
• Which professional generally cannot prescribe medication? A. Psychologist B. Psychiatrist C. ...
• Who assists individuals and teams in professional and amateur sports to maximize their performance? ...
• Which specialty in psychology focuses on assessing, monitoring, and managing individuals with brain impairments? ...
• Who assists individuals and teams in professional and amateur sports to maximize their performance? ...
• Which specialty works with community members and government organizations to address factors impacting psychological wellbeing? ...
• Who is more focused on studying human behavior? A. Psychologist B. Psychiatrist ...
• Who primarily works in criminal, civil, and family legal areas? A. Clinical Psychologist ...
• Which of the following statements about Spinal Disc is false? A. Deterioration of the ...
• Caudate, Putamen, Globus Pallidus and the Substantia Nigra are all what type of structures in ...
• Cranial nerve III opens the eyelid. What cranial nerve closes it? A. CN VII ...
• Which term means closer to the point of attachment? A. Proximal B. ...
• A seizure focus in the pre-central gyrus would cause what type of symptoms? A. ...
• What anatomical feature guarantees blood flow throughout the Circle of Willis? A. Capillaries ...
• Which is not a function of the Brainstem? A. Conduit of ascending and descending ...
• What type of brain tumor is slow-growing and usually benign? A. Meningiomas ...
• An indirect Motor Pathway contains how many neurons? A. 1 B. 2 ...
• Which of the 5 vesicles of the brain at 5 weeks of development retains its ...
• What type of cell provides the Blood-Brain Barrier? A. Astrocytes B. Ependymal ...
• Which division of the brain contains the Thalamus and Hypothalamus? A. Cerebrum ...
• If your patient complains of the this symptom, they can't distinguish an object by touch. ...
• What is the term that describes how we classify a seizure and localize a source? ...
• Difficulty walking would most likely indicate a stroke in what Cerebral Artery? A. Anterior ...
• What is the longitudinal depression that runs the length of the spinal cord on the ...
• Which part of the grey matter connects the two sides? A. Posterior horns ...
• Which statement is false about spinal cord fasciculi? A. Can be sensory or motor ...
• What is not a symptom of a stroke? A. Facial paralysis B. ...
• Which of the following vertebral segments is located at the most caudal section of the ...
• What is not a function of the Hypothalamus? A. Fluid balance B. Sense ...
• What is the destination of the third order sensory neurons? A. Parietal Lobe Cortex ...
• Which pathology causes a baby to have either an incomplete brain or absent brain? ...
• Somatic or voluntary motor neurons are in which horns of the grey matter? A. ...
• What division of the brain has gyri, sulci and made up of the Frontal, Parietal, ...
• What is the main function of the musculoskeletal system? A. To support the body ...
• Which muscle group is responsible for flexion of the elbow joint? A. Biceps Brachii ...
• Where are cardiac muscles found in the body? A. Surrounding the body's internal organs ...
• How do skeletal muscles attach to bones? A. Indirectly via tendons B. ...
• Which type of muscle tissue is voluntary and can be consciously controlled by the brain? ...
• What is the point where the muscle attaches to the more stationary bone called? ...
• What is the main storage system for calcium, phosphorus, and other critical components of the ...
• Which type of muscle tissue contracts more slowly than skeletal muscles and can remain contracted ...
• How are skeletal muscles typically arranged? A. In parallel B. In series ...
• Which muscle is responsible for dorsiflexion of the ankle? A. Tibialis Anterior B. ...
• What is the function of the tibialis posterior muscle? A. Inversion of the ankle ...
• Which muscle group acts as stabilizers during running or kicking a ball? A. Hip ...
• What is the muscle that counteracts the agonist muscle called? A. Antagonist muscle ...
• Which type of muscle tissue is responsible for pumping blood from the heart to the ...
• What prevents bones from grinding against each other at the joints? A. Muscles ...
• Which of the following describes how muscles and bones work together to create movement? ...
• Rickets is caused by a deficiency of which vitamin? A. Vitamin A ...
• Which of the following is NOT true about osteoporosis? A. Osteoporosis is a disease ...
• Which level of organization classifies something as living or nonliving? A. Atom B. ...
• What is the type of skeleton in a snake? ...
• A _____ connects muscles to other bones. A. tendon B. bursa ...
• What is the medical term for thickening of the heart muscle? A. Myocardial infarction ...
• ________ keep bones from rubbing against each other directly. A. Joints B. Cartilage ...
• Internal organs like the stomach are made of ______ muscle. A. Cardiac B. ...
• What is the exoskeleton made of ? A. Bone B. Chitin ...
• Many cells work together to form a(n) _______. A. Organ B. Organism ...
• The digestive system is an example of which level of organization? A. Tissue ...
• TRUE or False: Blood cells are produced in the bone marrow. A. TRUE ...
• What are the three types of muscle tissue? A. epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium ...
• Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system? A. Convert ...
• The diagram shows some invertebrates. What is the support ...
• What happens when a muscle pulls on a bone? A. It relaxes and lengthens ...
• Which of the following is the type of muscle our heart is made out of? ...
• Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are considered _____ muscles because we can’t control them consciously. ...
• What is  a tissue? A. A group of similar cells working together ...
• A _____ connects bones to other bones. A. tendon B. bursa C. ...
• Which of the functions of the skeleton is described: Bones, specifically the skull and ribs, ...
• Which level of organization is made of many tissues working together? A. Cell ...
• _________ form where bones meet. A. Joints B. Cartilage C. Ligaments
• What is the function of the one-way valves in veins? A. Ensuring the flow ...
• What is the role of the thoracic pump in the return of blood to the ...
• What is the main role of arteries in the cardiovascular system? A. Returning blood ...
• Which component makes up about 55 percent of blood and is composed mostly of water? ...
• What is the main function of capillaries in the cardiovascular system? A. Carrying deoxygenated ...
• What is the main role of plasma in the blood? A. Transporting O2 and ...
• What is the main role of the nervous system in the return of blood to ...
• Which type of blood vessels have very thick muscular walls and carry blood away from ...
• What is the function of the skeletal muscle pump in the return of blood to ...
• What is the function of platelets in the blood? A. Acting as a transport ...
• What is the main role of venules in the cardiovascular system? A. Carrying deoxygenated ...
• Which type of blood vessels have the ability to stretch and recoil, assisting in the ...
• What is the main function of veins in the cardiovascular system? A. Regulating blood ...
• Viable Bowel length required to prevent short gut syndrome A. 500 cm small bowel ...
• best investigation for aneurym management A. ultrasound B. CT scan C. ...
• Which of the following is a direct Factor Xa Inhibitor A. Dabigatran ...
• Thrombocytopenia and elevated D - dimers IS usally seen in A. Arterio venous fistulas ...
• ABI value in in Diabetics suggesting PAD A. 1.1 to 1.2 B. ...
• Which of the following is a Hard Sign of Trauma A. Diminished Unilateral Distal ...
• In the initial management of ALI , all are true, except A. .Heparin ...
• In the classification of ALI which category is immediately threatened A. 1 ...
• Antidiabetic that can cause lactic acidosis with contrast in diabetics A. Pioglitazone ...
• CT scan findings of bowel gangrene with mesenteric ischaemia A. bowel wall thickening and ...
• Poly vinyl particles are A. mechanical embolising agents B. acrylic polymers micro ...
• Carotid Artery stenting is not recommended in which patients A. Asymptomatic
• Recommended treatment for symptomatic patients with low grade ICA stenosis
• majority of aneurysms are A. asymptomatic B. pain abdomen C. hypotensio ...
• Which is the commonest artery to be injured in Extremity Trauma A. Femoral Artery ...
• softening of bones caused by calcium deficiency A. osteomalacia B. rickets ...
• most common type of bone cancer; begins in osteocytes A. osteogenic sarcoma ...
• tumor in cartilage; usually benign A. chondroma B. sarcoma C. adenoma ...
• abnormal increase in curve of thoracic spine; humpback A. kyphosis B. scoliosis ...
• abnormal increase in forward curvature of lumbar spine; swayback A. kyphosis B. ...
• cancerous tumor of shaft of long bones; spreads through periosteum; amputation is necessary to prevent ...
• lateral curve of spine A. Herniated disc B. Lordosis C. Kyphosis ...
• autoimmune inflammation of joints with swelling, stiffness, pain; results in joint deformities A. osteoarthritis ...
• metabolic disease of bone; unknown cause; results in bone destruction and deformity A. Paget's ...
• inflammatory condition resembles rheumatoid arthritis; gradual stiffening and fusion of vertebrae A. osteoarthritis ...
• protrusion of an intervertebral disk; also called ruptured disk A. slipped disk ...
• general term for bone disease A. osteopathy B. rheumatism C. osteoporosis ...
• caused by calcium and vitamin D deficiency; results in bone deformities like bowed legs ...
• decrease in bone mass; results in thinning and weakening of bones; porous bone easily fractures ...
• bones in joint are displaced from normal alignment A. strain B. dislocation ...
• bone spur A. exostosis B. myeloma C. chondroma D. rickets
• results in degeneration of bone and joints; bone rubs against bone A. Fibromyalgia ...
• tumor forming in bone marrow tissue A. myeloma B. lymphoma C. ...
• tumor consisting of bone and cartilage tissue; usually benign A. chondrosarcoma B. ...
• inflammation of bursa at base of great toe A. arthritis B. tendonitis ...
• Which pigment is responsible for the brownish/black color in the skin? A. Carotene ...
• What is the term for an increase in the amount or irregular distribution of pigments ...
• What is the process of a substance passing into a cell and being deposited within ...
• What is the accumulation of calcium salts in tissues called? A. Cloudy Swelling ...
• Which organs can be involved in amyloid disease? A. Kidney, liver, spleen, adrenal glands ...
• Which organ is most often involved in cloudy swelling? A. Liver B. Kidneys ...
• What is the replacement of tissue by the exact same type of tissue called? ...
• What is the main cause of fatty degeneration? A. Alcoholism B. Malnutrition ...
• What is the characteristic appearance of a fatty liver? A. Yellow, soft, and greasy ...
• What is the disease of uric acid metabolism called? A. Gout B. ...
• What is the main substance that accumulates in amyloid disease? A. Fat ...
• Which organ is most commonly affected by fatty degeneration? A. Liver B. Kidneys ...
• What is the most common and least damaging type of degeneration? A. Fatty Degeneration ...
• What is the term for the pathological death of cells, tissues, or organs? A. ...
• What is the decrease in a body part or organ that was previously of normal ...
• When does livor mortis become fixed? A. Within 4 hours after death ...
• What is the fourth stage of the decaying process? A. advanced decay ...
• Who can perform autopsies? A. Forensic pathologist B. Medical examiner C. ...
• What happens to the body temperature after death? A. It remains the same ...
• What is the difference between cause of death and manner of death? A. Cause ...
• What is the first stage of the decaying process? A. Initial decay ...
• Who can be a coroner? A. Medical examiner B. Forensic pathologist ...
• What is the second stage of the decaying process? A. initial stage ...
• What is rigor mortis? A. Discoloration of skin after death B. Stiffening ...
• What is the role of a forensic pathologist? A. Perform autopsies B. ...
• What is the purpose of studying forensic entomology? A. To provide evidence in criminal ...
• Who can perform a post-mortem examination? A. A police officer B. A ...
• What is the third stage of the decaying process? A. active decay ...
• What is the purpose of the Body Farm? A. To measure the rate of ...
• Who is responsible for determining the cause and manner of death? A. funeral director ...
• What do medical examiners specialize in? A. Performing autopsies B. Supervising medical ...
• Which of the following quantities will fill a 30 ounce container the most without causing ...
• 2 ounces is equal to _____ mL A. 30 B. 90 C. ...
• If a patient weighs 352 pounds, how much will he weigh in kilograms? A. ...
• A technician receives a prescription for Amoxil 400 mg/tsp. Sig: 2 tsp tid po x10 ...
• How many milliliters are in one ounce? A. 5 ml B. 15 ...
• A pint equals how many mililiters? A. 960 ml B. 240 ml ...
• A ________________ injection should be given given at a 45-degree angle with a 25 or ...
• A physician writes a prescription for lactulose syrup 2 tbsp PO b.i.d. What volume, in ...
• How many 32 fl oz bottles can be packaged from a 1 gallon bottle of ...
• The pharmacy receives the following prescription: Levofloxacin 0.5% solution #1 bottle Sig: ...
• The pharmacy receives the following prescription: Levofloxacin 0.5% solution #1 bottle Sig: ...
• If 5 ml= 1 teaspoon, how many teaspoons are in 100 ml? A. 10 ...
• A technician receives a prescription for Amoxil 400 mg/tsp. Sig: 5 tbsp tid po x10 ...
• An assistant is converting a prescription for 45 ml of liquid medication to tablespoons. The ...
• A technician receives a prescription for Amoxil 400 mg/tsp. Sig: 2 tsp tid po x10 ...
• An assistant is converting a prescription for 22.5 ml of liquid medication to tablespoons. The ...
• Which of the following quantities will fill a 16 ounce container the most without causing ...
• The volume held by a household teaspoon may vary, but a true teaspoon equals _______. ...
• 1 Liter = ____ mL. A. 100 B. 1000 C. 10 ...
• How many 9 fl oz bottles can be packaged from a 1 gallon bottle of cough syrup? ...
• A can of soda has 12oz in it. Therefore, it would have ____ mL. ...
• How many gallons are contained in 240 pints? A. 4 gallons B. ...
• An assistant is converting a prescription for 45 ml of liquid medication to tablespoons. The ...
• A patient comes to the pharmacy counter with a prescription for Amoxicillin 250mg/5mL and the ...
• How many 16 fl oz bottles can be packaged from a 1 gallon bottle of ...
• A patient weighs 196 pounds. What does he weigh in kilograms? A. 89 ...
• A technician receives a prescription for Amoxil 400 mg/tsp. Sig: 5 tbsp tid po x10 ...
• Which organelle is often affected during cell injury? A. Endoplasmic reticulum (ER) ...
• How does inflammation contribute to the repair process? A. By causing more damage to ...
• Which of the following statements accurately describes the process of inflammation? A. Inflammation is ...
• How does chronic inflammation differ from acute inflammation? A. Chronic inflammation has a rapid ...
• In the context of cell injury and adaptation, which process involves programmed cell death and ...
• Which type of adaptation occurs in response to chronic stress? A. Hyperplasia B. ...
• Which cells play a key role in the inflammatory response by releasing histamines? A. ...
• What is the main cause of cell injury during hypoxia? A. Increased oxygen supply ...
• Which of the following statements best describes reversible cell injury? A. Cellular damage is ...
• What is the main function of neutrophils during inflammation? A. Phagocytosis of pathogens ...
• Which of the following is a symptom commonly associated with acute inflammation? A. Fever ...
• What is the role of cytokines in the inflammatory response? A. Initiating blood clotting ...
• What is the purpose of the clotting cascade during inflammation? A. To trap pathogens ...
• What is a common feature of chronic inflammation? A. Rapid onset B. ...
• Which cellular adaptation is commonly seen in skeletal muscles during regular exercise? A. Hypertrophy ...
• Which phase of wound healing involves the formation of granulation tissue? A. Inflammatory phase ...
• What is the primary purpose of inflammation in the body? A. To generate energy ...
• What is a common consequence of prolonged ischemia? A. Cellular swelling B. ...
• Which chemical mediator is responsible for promoting vasodilation during inflammation? A. Interleukin-1 ...
• In the context of cell adaptation, what is hypertrophy? A. Increase in the number ...
• Justin, Sophie, and Lindsey are studying for their biology exam. They are discussing a scenario ...
• During a basketball game, Josiah accidentally hit his elbow and felt a sharp pain. Emily, ...
• Rachel accidentally stepped on a sharp object and felt a sudden pain. What role did ...
• Karen was studying for her biology exam when she came across the term 'gate control ...
• Emily, Josiah, and Francis are in a health class learning about various health conditions. Their ...
• Xochitl, Justin, and Lauren are studying for their upcoming biology exam. They are trying to ...
• Victoria was walking her dog when she accidentally stepped on a sharp object, causing damage ...
• During a basketball game, Damien Sebastian accidentally stepped on a nail. What is the function ...
• During a soccer match, Lindsey accidentally kicked Jewel. Jewel felt a sharp pain. What is ...
• Francis fell off his bike and scraped his knee. His knee became red and swollen. ...
• During a football match, Paul experienced a sudden sharp pain in his ankle. How does ...
• During a biology class, Laura accidentally hit her elbow on the edge of the table. ...
• Mariah, Olivia, and Lance were studying for their upcoming biology exam. They came across a ...
• Annie was recently diagnosed with a condition that causes damage to her nerves, resulting in ...
• Yesenia, Justin, and Angel are studying for their biology exam. Yesenia asks Justin a question: ...
• Laura accidentally touched a hot pan on the stove. What process did her body use ...
• Following are all the characteristics of irreversible cell injury except__________ A. Large flocculent densities ...
• If in a human body, elimination rate of acidic products is highest, the condition is ...
• Identify the given feedback system: Stimulus---> increase blood pressure---> baroreceptor send signals to brain---> ...
• Match the right hand side with left hand side. A) Redness i) Rubor B) ...
• If there is an incomplete or faulty development of an organ or body part it ...
• Which one of the following is the correct order of a feedback system. A. ...
• ________ is the term used for programmed cell death. A. Apoptosis B. ...
• Identify the given cellular adaptation (Where fig. on the ...
• Abnormal decrease in the levels of sodium, potassium and bicarbonate levels in the blood is ...
• Influx of Ca++ ions in the cell is an indication of ________ A. Atrophy ...
• Following are all cell derived mediators of inflammation, except one A. Bradykinin ...
• Which of the following complications is associated with Guillain-Barre Syndrome? A. Hyperglycemia ...
• Which potential complication arises due to overmedication in MG? A. osteoporosis B. breathing ...
• In MG, the autoantibodies primarily target which receptors? A. Acetylcholine receptors (AChR) B. ...
• What is the primary etiology of Myasthenia Gravis (MG)? A. Genetic mutations affecting acetylcholine ...
• What is the primary mechanism of action of Mestinon in MG treatment? A. Inhibiting ...
• What is the most common cause for Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS)? A. Genetic disorder ...
• Demyelination leads to a reduction in nerve conduction velocity. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• _____________ is a process involving the breakdown and disintegration of the actual nerve fiber following ...
• The role of thymoma in Myasthenia Gravis is related to: A. Excessive thymic hormone ...
• Pathogenesis of MG involves the autoantibody that attacks the receptors of acetylcholine. What is ...
• Which muscle is commonly affected in MG? A. Lower extremities B. Facial ...
• What is the hallmark symptom of MG? A. Muscle pain that worsens with activity ...
• What is the rationale behind using plasma exchange or plasmapheresis in GBS treatment? A. ...
• Which of the following contributes to the pathogenesis of GBS? A. Bacterial structures resemble ...
• Ptosis and diplopia commonly occur due to weakness in the: A. Neck muscles ...
• What is a small section of a chromosome that controls heredity characteristics called? A. ...
• What is the technique in which microorganisms, living cells, or their components are used to ...
• What is a cell or collection of cells containing identical genetic material called? A. ...
• What is the offspring of two different species or strains called? A. Hybrid ...
• What are the building blocks of a protein molecule? A. Phenotypes B. ...
• What is the smallest unit of living organisms that is able to grow and reproduce ...
• What is the artificial changing of the genetic makeup of an organism called? A. ...
• What is the growth of living organisms in a prepared medium or media called? ...
• What is a protein that accelerates the rate of chemical reactions called? A. Phenotypes ...
• Where is the genetic information stored in a cell? A. Nucleic acid ...
• What is the total hereditary material of a cell called? A. Enzyme B. ...
• What is a specific type of bioprocessing that uses microorganisms to decompose materials? A. ...
• What is the use of computers and information technology to gain a new understanding of ...
• What is the chemical molecule that is the basic genetic material found in all cells ...
• What is a container used for bioprocessing called? A. Clone B. Chromosome ...
• What is recombinant DNA? A. DNA that is found in living cells ...
• What are salt-tolerant crops? A. Crops that are resistant to diseases B. ...
• What are Bt crops? A. Crops that are resistant to pests B. ...
• What is the main advantage of using genetically modified organisms in agriculture? A. To ...
• What are insect-resistant crops? A. Plants with the ability to withstand, deter or repel ...
• What is the role of plasmids in genetic engineering? A. They are used to ...
• What is a genetically modified organism (GMO)/transgenic organism? A. An organism with only animal ...
• What are restriction enzymes used for in genetic engineering? A. To repair damaged DNA ...
• What are pest-resistant crops? A. Plants with the ability to withstand, deter or repel ...
• What are drought-resistant crops? A. Crops that are resistant to pests B. ...
• What is the purpose of creating disease-resistant crops? A. To increase the size of ...
• What are herbicide-tolerant crops? A. Crops that are resistant to drought B. ...
• What is the purpose of using Bt crops in agriculture? A. To provide protection ...
• What is the main purpose of agricultural biotechnology? A. To study the behavior of ...
• What is genetic engineering? A. The process of creating new species B. ...
• What is the role of genetic engineering in modern biotechnology? A. It is not ...
• What is biotechnology? A. The study of rocks and minerals B. The ...
• What is a transgenic organism? A. An organism with genes from another organism inserted ...
• Which of the following is responsible for protein tertiary structure? A. Phospholipids ...
• Which of the following is an example of anabolism? A. Oxidation B. ...
• Which type of macromolecule has a carbon backbone? A. Nucleic acids B. ...
• Which type of macromolecule is responsible for enzyme catalysts and cell structures? A. Proteins ...
• What is the process called when monosaccharides are joined together to form a carbohydrate? ...
• Which of the following statements is true about covalent bonds? A. Covalent bonds can ...
• Which type of molecules contain many electrons and potential energy? A. Reduced molecules ...
• What is the process called when bonds are broken and energy is released? A. ...
• What is the main component of all biological membranes? A. Fats B. Nucleotides ...
• Which of the following is true about DNA and RNA? A. Both DNA and ...
• What is the term for the loss of protein structure due to extreme temperature, pH ...
• Which of the following is true about oxidized molecules? A. They contain more electrons ...
• Which of the following is NOT a nucleotide base found in nucleic acids? A. ...
• What is the main function of carbohydrates? A. Biological membrane components B. ...
• What is the result of electron sharing in covalent bonds? A. Ionic bond formation ...
• Functions of this Carbon Compound: quick energy (main source) structure A. Carbohydrates ...
• A covalent bond where six electrons (three pairs) are shared. A. single bond ...
• Acids release _____ in water. A. Hydrogen ions (H+) B. Hydroxide ions (OH-) ...
• The smallest unit of a substance that retains all of its properties (smallest unit of ...
• Bases release _____ in water. A. Hydrogen ions (H+) B. Hydroxide ions ...
• Match these examples to their Carbon Compound: fats, oils, ...
• When an atom loses or gains electrons, it becomes a/an A. ion B. ...
• How many amino acids are used by organisms to ...
• A covalent bond where four electrons (two pairs) are shared. A. single bond ...
• The part of a solution that is being dissolved. A. solute B. solvent ...
• pH = power of _______________ A. Hydrogen B. Helium C. Hafnium ...
• Which enzyme is responsible for making new DNA strands during ...
• Water forms ______ bonds between the oxygen of one water molecule and the hydrogen of ...
• Unequal sharing of electrons during covalent bonding will lead to a _______ molecule. A. ...
• This will NOT increase the speed/rate of a reaction: A. decrease surface area ...
• What is the structure of DNA? ...
• Functions of this Carbon Compound: store/transmit hereditary information A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids ...
• Match these examples to their Carbon Compound: DNA & ...
• The charge of an electron. A. positive (+) B. negative (-) ...
• Functions of this Carbon Compound: immunity movement nutrition regulation structure transport A. Carbohydrates ...
• DNA Replication occurs during a part of the Cell ...
• Why is water considered the universal solvent A. It can dissolve anything without a ...
• When atoms share electrons, _____ bonds occur. A. ionic B. covalent
• Match the monomer to its polymer: Amino Acids ...
• A covalent bond where two electrons (one pair) are shared. A. single bond ...
• The charge of a proton. A. positive (+) B. negative (-) C. ...
• Match these examples to their Carbon Compound: muscles, enzymes, ...
• These are found in the cloud and are responsible for the interactions between atoms. ...
• When two or more _____ bond together, a ______ is formed. A. monomers, polymer ...
• An isotope of an element is still the same element, but it differs in the ...
• Non-Metals tend to take or gain electrons, giving them an overall ____ charge. A. ...
• What type of sugar is found in DNA nucleotides? ...
• What type of sugar is found in RNA nucleotides? ...
• Match these examples to their Carbon Compound: sugars, starches, ...
• Due to hydrogen bonds, water _____ as it freezes, making it ______ and resulting in ...
• When two ions of opposite charges are attracted to each other, _______ bonds can form ...
• According to the table, what is Pure water's Hydrogen concentration ...
• This scientist's work on X-Ray Crystallography resulted in Watson ...
• Match the monomer to its polymer: Nucleotide A. ...
• The part of a solution that is doing the dissolving. A. solute B. ...
• A water molecule's polarity results from the _____ charged oxygen and _____ charged hydrogens. ...
• According to the table, what is Sulfuric acid's Hydrogen concentration ...
• According to the table, what is Ammonium chloride's Hydrogen concentration ...
• Metals tend to lose or give away electrons, giving them an overall ____ charge. ...
• According to the table, which of the substances listed ...
• Match the monomer to its polymer: Monosaccharide A. ...
• Match the monomer to its polymer: Glycerol/Fatty acids (not ...
• Equal sharing of electrons during covalent bonding will lead to a _______ molecule. A. ...
• Functions of this Carbon Compound: long term energy storage insulation cell membrane structure ...
• What base does RNA have that DNA does not? ...
• Attraction of water molecules to themselves due to polarity. A. cohesion B. ...
• What is the most common structure of RNA? ...
• When an atom has more or less neutrons than normal, it is known as a/an ...
• What are proteins composed of? A. fatty acids B. amino acids ...
• The charge of a neutron. A. positive (+) B. negative (-) ...
• What is the primary purpose of MacConkey Agar in microbiology? A. To differentiate between ...
• The classification of bacteria based on their nutritional requirements includes: A. Autotrophs and heterotrophs ...
• What is the primary purpose of using blood agar in microbiology? A. To differentiate ...
• The generation time for a particular bacterial species is 30 minutes. If you start with ...
• What is the primary function of Sabouraud agar in microbiology? A. To differentiate between ...
• Mannitol Salt Agar is commonly used for the isolation and differentiation of which bacterial genus? ...
• What color do lactose-fermenting colonies typically appear on MacConkey Agar? A. Red ...
• If a bacterial culture starts with 1000 cells and undergoes five generations, how many cells ...
• Bacteria that thrive in extreme temperatures, such as hot springs or deep-sea hydrothermal vents, are ...
• Which component of MacConkey Agar inhibits the growth of Gram-positive bacteria? A. Lactose ...
• What is the selective ingredient in Mannitol Salt Agar that inhibits the growth of many ...
• Bacteria that thrive in environments with high salt concentrations are classified as: A. Thermophiles ...
• A bacterial culture starts with 5 x 10^5 cells and undergoes 8 generations. What will ...
• If the doubling time of a bacterial culture is 20 minutes, how many generations will ...
• Where do thermophiles thrive? A. Deep sea vents B. Hot springs ...
• What happens to obligate anaerobes in the presence of oxygen? A. They can use ...
• How does prokaryotic cell division occur? A. By conjugation B. By meiosis ...
• Which type of bacteria thrives in hot springs? A. Mesophiles B. Halophiles ...
• What is the optimal temperature range for mesophiles? A. Above 100°C B. ...
• What is the duration of the bacterial growth curve? A. It depends on the ...
• Which chemical factor is required for all life? A. pH level B. ...
• What is the purpose of DNA replication in bacterial growth? A. To duplicate the ...
• Which of the following is a physical factor that influences bacterial growth? A. Carbon ...
• Which domain of life includes most pathogens? A. Archaea B. None of the ...
• Which domain of life includes organisms that live in extreme environments? A. Bacteria ...
• What is the role of nitrogen-fixing bacteria in the nitrogen cycle? A. They fix ...
• What happens to bacterial cells in hypertonic environments? A. They swell B. ...
• What is the preferred pH range for neutrophiles? A. Above 8 B. ...
• What is the main difference between bacteria and archaea? A. Membrane structure ...
• Which is true about the cells of a tree? A. A tree is not ...
• John's father is a chemist and his mother is a teacher. John wants to be ...
• Which two systems work together to support and move the body? A. muscular and ...
• The students shown above are siblings. Which characteristics did ...
• Amanda's puppy has white fur. The puppy's mother has brown fur. Which is most likely ...
• Which best explains why bacteria is able to survive as a single-celled organism? A. ...
• Why do the other body systems depend on the circulatory system? A. It protects ...
• Which best describes a multicellular organism? A. made up of one cell that carries ...
• Which best explains how the nervous system controls the skeletal system? A. The brain ...
• Which best describes how the digestive system compares to the respiratory system? A. The ...
• Carl's father is a professional basketball player. Carl hopes he can move as quickly as ...
• Jonathan's parents both have long, brown hair, brown eyes, and like to play basketball. Which ...
• Which factor most likely causes two organisms to have similar characteristics? A. The organisms ...
• Jake's brown goat had three baby goats. Two were black and one was black with ...
• How is the muscular system different from the digestive system? A. The muscular system ...
• Which is a characteristic that single-celled and multi-celled organisms have in common? A. Both ...
• Which characteristic is not an inherited trait of a duck? A. webbed feet ...
• Which is an example of a trait that an organism would pass on to their ...
• The chart above shows some physical characteristics of a ...
• Which characteristic does a child inherit from his parents? A. hair style ...
• Which is an activity that a single-celled organism cannot perform? A. eating B. ...
• Which systems work together to provide oxygen to the body's cells? A. digestive and ...
• Linda noticed everyone in her family has brown hair and brown eyes. Which best explains ...
• What do digestive enzymes convert food into? A. Large insoluble molecules B. ...
• What is the role of lipases in the digestive system? A. Break down lipids ...
• What is the role of lipases in the digestive system? A. Break down carbohydrates ...
• Where is bile made in the body? A. Liver B. Pancreas ...
• What is the role of lipases in the digestive system? A. Break down proteins ...
• What is the function of amylase in the digestive system? A. Neutralize hydrochloric acid ...
• Where is bile produced and stored in the body? A. Produced and stored in ...
• What is the function of bile in the digestive system? A. Emulsify fat to ...
• What is the function of lipids in the body? A. To neutralize hydrochloric acid ...
• Which enzyme breaks down proteins to amino acids? A. Amylase B. Proteases ...
• What is the purpose of the 'lock and key theory' in explaining enzyme action? ...
• What is the purpose of the 'lock and key theory' in explaining enzyme action? ...
• What is the function of bile in the digestive system? A. Break down carbohydrates ...
• What is the function of amylase in the digestive system? A. Break down lipids ...
• Where is bile produced and stored in the body? A. Produced in the liver ...
• Which environmental factor can alter the shape of the active site and lead to enzyme ...
• What is the optimal pH for pepsin, an enzyme in the stomach? A. Neutral ...
• What is the effect of low pH and high temperatures on enzyme activity? A. ...
• What can alter the shape of the active site of an enzyme? A. Coenzymes ...
• How do enzymes function as molecular catalysts? A. By preventing substrate binding ...
• What can act competitively by binding to the enzyme's active site? A. Activators ...
• Under what conditions does trypsin, an enzyme in the human small intestine, work most efficiently? ...
• Which part of the enzyme interacts (binds) with the substrate is called which of the ...
• What type of regulation occurs when inhibitor molecule is similar enough to a substrate bind ...
• What is the role of enzymes in metabolic pathways? A. To change the type ...
• What does this image most closely resemble? ...
• Which component of the cell membrane is called hydrophilic? A. phosphate head B. ...
• At low temperatures enzyme activity declines because of: ...
• The area that the substrate fits into on the ...
• What is this molecule called? A. ...
• Describe the structure of a monosaccharide. A. The structure of a monosaccharide is similar ...
• How does noncompetitive inhibition differ from competitive inhibition? A. Noncompetitive inhibition occurs when the ...
• The current model of enzyme action is referred to ...
• Which statement about enzymes is FALSE? A. They are made from amino acids ...
• Which colored box highlights the amino group? ...
• What is competitive inhibition of enzymes? A. It is when a molecule similar in ...
• How do enzymes speed up chemical reactions in the body? A. By changing the ...
• What do starch and glycogen have in common? A. Alternate glucose molecules are flipped ...
• A protein goes through ____ stages of folding before it is finished. A. 4 ...
• What are the main functions of lipids in the human body? A. Regulation of ...
• What are the four main types of biological molecules found in living organisms? A. ...
• What is the primary function of carbohydrates in living organisms? A. Building cell walls ...
• Which describes the green and yellow bonds in the ...
• What is the effect of temperature on enzyme activity? A. Temperature has no effect ...
• Which of the following is found in plant cell walls? A. Amylose ...
• Explain the difference between saturated and unsaturated fats. A. Saturated fats have more double ...
• Explain the role of enzymes in biological processes. A. Enzymes inhibit chemical reactions by ...
• Which polysaccharide does the image show? ...
• the release of material, within vesicles, by fusing with the cell membrane A. passive ...
• In this type of solution, the cell will have no change. A. hypotonic ...
• Which of the following does NOT require oxygen to make ATP? A. aerobic respiration ...
• In an ___________ solution, no net movement of water occurs. A. hypotonic ...
• movement of molecules through a membrane from high concentration to low concentration A. diffusion ...
• a process where a cell's membrane folds inward to bring materials into the cell ...
• The organelle responsible for make ATP A. libosomes B. ribosomes C. ...
• a solution where the concentration of solutes is greater OUTSIDE the cell then inside ...
• Placing a plant into a hypertonic solution will... A. cause turgor pressure (pressure by ...
• If a normal blood cell were placed in a hypertonic (high salt) solution, water would ...
• the movement of ions and other substances across cell membranes WITHOUT the need for energy ...
• a substance passing through a membrane without the aid of a membrane protein A. ...
• In this type of solution, the cell with shrivel or shrink. A. hypotonic ...
• In a ___________ solution, water will diffuse out of the cell to dilute its surroundings. ...
• In a _________ solution, water will diffuse INTO the cell to dilute the inside contents. ...
• A solution that has the SAME solute concentration on either side of the membrane ...
• In this solution, the cell swells and sometimes bursts. A. hypertonic B. isotonic ...
• the use of ENERGY to move substances across a membrane from low to high concentration ...
• Produces LOTS of ATP A. aerobic respiration B. fermentation
• a solution where the concentration of solutes is lower OUTSIDE the cell than inside the ...
• Which type of protein helps molecules move through a cell membrane? A. channel protein ...
• a type of passive transport that occurs when molecules diffuse across a membrane THROUGH TRANSPORT ...
• What is the function of the chloroplast in plant cells? A. Breaking down cellular ...
• What unique feature helps a cell move or propel itself? A. Cilia ...
• What unique feature helps trap inhaled particles in the respiratory tract? A. Flagella ...
• What are the three things that all cells have in common? A. Cell wall, ...
• Which type of cells have a nucleus and membrane-enclosed organelles? A. Prokaryotic cells ...
• Which organelle is responsible for breaking down cellular debris in a cell? A. Lysosome ...
• Which type of cells are always unicellular organisms? A. Animal cells B. ...
• Which organelle is responsible for making ATP molecules for energy? A. Golgi apparatus ...
• What is the function of the Golgi body in a cell? A. Synthesizing proteins ...
• What is the function of the nucleus in a cell? A. Synthesizing proteins ...
• What is the function of the vacuole in a plant cell? A. Storing water ...
• What is the function of the cytoskeleton in a cell? A. Storing water ...
• What is the function of the endoplasmic reticulum in a cell? A. Synthesizing proteins ...
• Which unique structure is found only in plant cells? A. Cilia B. ...
• Which organelle is responsible for synthesizing proteins in a cell? A. Ribosomes ...
• In the given scenario what will happen to the organism: salt is poured onto eggplant. ...
• Molecules will move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration ...
• Identify the cellular structure that diffusion occurs across. A. ribosome B. mitochondria ...
• What is the starch indicator? A. ...
• Identify the number that shows the cell membrane in ...
• When both inside and outside of a cell have the same amount of water it ...
• How long does diffusion last? A. Until the concentration of particles in the system ...
• Sometimes, energy is required for ____ molecules to go in or out of the cell ...
• Identify the substance/molecule that will not diffuse. ...
• The diagram represents a laboratory technique. What is ...
• What color does the starch indicator turn when it ...
• Where are proteins made? A. Golgi body B. Mitoichondria C. Chromosomes ...
• The picture is an example of _________________. ...
• The picture is an example of... ...
• Identify the substance that was added to the outside ...
• Storage container of the cell (for water and nutrients) A. Vacuole B. Cell ...
• Pathway with ribosomes that build proteins and lipids A. Golgi B. Endoplasmic Reticulum ...
• Organelle of photosynthesis: converts light energy into chemical energy as sugar A. Chloroplast ...
• Makes proteins that are used to build and repair cell parts A. Cytoplasm ...
• Protects the cell from its surrounding A. Nucleus B. Cell Membrane ...
• Jelly-like fluid, helps keep cell shape and keeps organelles in place A. Mitochondria ...
• Protects the cell's genetic material (DNA and chromosomes) A. Vacuole B. Ribosome ...
• Rigid structure that helps the cell keep its shape A. Cell Wall B. ...
• Transports, sorts and modifies proteins and lipids A. Golgi B. Chloroplast C. ...
• Digest and remove waste, viruses, and bacteria A. Cytoplasm B. Chloroplast C. ...
• Breaks down nutrients for energy through respiration A. Endoplasmic Reticulum B. Lysosome ...
• The breaking and forming of bonds between different substances during chemical changes A. Physical ...
• building blocks of proteins A. Amino acids B. Nucleic acids C. ...
• specific pH where enzymes work the BEST A. Optimal pH B. Random ...
• portion of ATP whose bonds store energy A. Carbon bonds B. Nitrogen ...
• substances that speed up reactions without being permanently altered A. reactants B. solvents ...
• Model that describes how enzymes and substrates fit together based on their specific shapes like ...
• Temperature at which an enzyme works the best A. Extreme temperature B. Suboptimal ...
• Enzyme’s active site gets deformed and loses its specific shape. Caused by environmental changes like: ...
• substances that are made by a chemical reaction A. Ingredients B. Products ...
• A component of nucleic acids, energy-carrying molecules such as ATP. A. DNA ...
• a reaction that absorbs heat energy A. exothermic reaction B. catabolic reaction ...
• A reaction that releases energy in the form of heat A. endothermic reaction ...
• proteins that speed up biochemical reactions by lowering the activation energy. A. Enzymes ...
• an energy-carrying molecule that carries/stores energy for cell functions. A. DNA B. ATP ...
• The part of an enzyme where the substrate binds A. active site ...
• macromolecule that contains carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen; enzymes are this A. Carbohydrate ...
• The amount of energy needed to make a chemical reaction start A. Inhibition energy ...
• All of the chemical reactions within each cell of an organism A. metabolism ...
• sugar component of ATP. A. sucrose B. fructose C. ribose D. ...
• What does catalzye mean? A. Speed Up B. Slow Down C. Put ...
• The monomer Nucleotides, which make up DNA and RNA, are seen as what macromolecule? ...
• What macromolecule is in our saliva, which is a enzyme? A. Carbohydrates B. ...
• Corn oil, lard, and other fats are seen as what type of macromolecule? A. ...
• Look at the following graph. When we add an ...
• What macromolecule is in Saltine Crackers? A. Carbohydrates B. Lipid C. Protein ...
• The monomer is seen as glycerol and fatty acids. A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids ...
• The following item is: Reuseable, a protein, helps speed up chemical reactions. A. Starch ...
• This macromolecule is seen as insulation in animal tissue (otherwords known as fat) A. ...
• DNA and RNA are seen as what type of macromolecule? A. Carbohydrates B. ...
• Simple sugars (Glucose) and complex sugars (celluose and starch) are seen as what type of ...
• This macromolecule is a long-term energy source, especially when sugars are not avaliable. A. ...
• The following macromolecule stores genetic information A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. Nucleic ...
• This macromolecule allows for bodybuilders to quickly gain muscle mass. A. Carbohydrates B. ...
• Enzymes, hormones, and animal structures like skin and muscle are seen as what type of ...
• The Monomer amino acids, which build up enzymes, are seen as which macromolecule? A. ...
• We know that enzymes will denature at 10.3 pH. ...
• What conclusions can be drawn when enzymes are heated to a high temperature? A. ...
• The monomer Fatty Acids, which makes up oils and waxes, are composed of which macromolecule? ...
• The graph shows the effect of pH on an ...
• Glucose and frutose is seen as what type of macromolecule? A. Carbohydrates B. ...
• This macromolecule is a short-term energy source seen in diets. A. Carbohydrates B. ...
• What is true about an enzyme? A. There are only 10 enzymes in the ...
• The Monomomer Monosaccrides are seen for which macromolecule? A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids ...
• The monomer amino acid is also known as an enzyme, which helps to catalyze biological ...
• The monomer nucleotides, is the most complex of the macromolecules, which is the only macromolecule ...
• Which one factor can you see on the spoiled bread? A. mold on the ...
• Which of the following microorganisms causes bacterial soft rot? A. Enterobacter faecalis ...
• Range of colonies > 200 indicated as ? A. Too numerous to count ...
• Full name for PCA agar? A. Phosphate carbon agar B. Plate colony agar ...
• What are the limitations of using serial dilution? A. It can be time-consuming ...
• Organisms that negatively affect the taste and appearance of foods, but do not cause foodborne ...
• Range of colonies < 20 indicated as? A. Too little to count B. ...
• Expected results to indicate growth of E.coli on EMB agar? A. bright pink colonies ...
• Which food will spoil the slowest A. dried beans B. milk ...
• Which of these is not a symptom of food poisoning? A. Headache B. ...
• Which type of agar to confirm presence of E.coli bacteria? A. Mac Conkey agar ...
• What is an example of cross-contamination? A. Cutting raw vegetables with a clean chef's ...
• What are the advantages of using serial dilution? A. allows for precise measurement of ...
• How is serial dilution performed? A. By adding a known volume of original sample ...
• The volume of sample used to do spread plating on agar after serial dilution? ...
• The purpose of providing durham tubes in each dilution tubes? A. to observe level ...
• To thoroughly clean surfaces to get rid of bacteria and it is the first step ...
• What is the function of a colony counter in the laboratory? A. Count the ...
• What is the function of a shaker in the laboratory? A. Mix small vials ...
• What is the main function of a spectrophotometer in the laboratory? A. Measure the ...
• What is the purpose of a laminar air flow in the laboratory? A. Count ...
• What is the purpose of an incubator in the laboratory? A. Separate fluids based ...
• What is the primary use of a distiller in the laboratory? A. Separate fluids ...
• What is the function of a centrifuge in the medical microbiology laboratory? A. Sterilize ...
• What is the purpose of a biosafety cabinet or inoculation unit in the laboratory? ...
• What is the purpose of a pH meter in the laboratory? A. Separate fluids ...
• What is the use of a conical flask in the laboratory? A. Purify water ...
• What is the purpose of a microplate reader in the laboratory? A. Measure the ...
• What is the primary use of a pipette in the laboratory? A. Sterilize equipment ...
• What is the function of a Bunsen burner in the laboratory? A. Separate fluids ...
• What is the primary use of an autoclave in the laboratory? A. Sterilize equipment ...
• What is the purpose of a vortex mixer in the laboratory? A. Aseptic transfer ...
• How can large numbers of spoilage organisms affect food? A. Cause discoloration B. ...
• What is the potential application of the results of this investigation? A. To treat ...
• What is the term for the growth and multiplication of bacteria? A. Binary Fission ...
• What is the purpose of marking the agar plate into three sections? A. To ...
• What is the significance of the clear areas around the disks on the agar plate? ...
• Why is it important to store agar plates upside down? A. To prevent condensation ...
• What is the common level of contamination if food is contaminated? A. 100 bacteria ...
• What is the function of the cell wall in bacteria? A. Allows bacteria to ...
• What is the term for bacteria that can multiply with or without oxygen? A. ...
• What is the significance of the cloudy areas on the agar plate? A. They ...
• Under ideal conditions, how often can some food poisoning bacteria split in two? A. ...
• What is the main function of flagella in bacteria? A. Contains the genetic material ...
• What is the term for the process of bacteria reproducing by splitting into two? ...
• What is the purpose of using a Bunsen burner in the practical? A. To ...
• What is the purpose of disinfecting the table after the practical? A. To remove ...
• What type of bacteria culture is used in the practical? A. Staphylococcus ...
• Which type of bacteria can multiply only in the presence of oxygen? A. Anaerobes ...
• What is the purpose of using a spreader in the practical? A. To sterilize ...
• What is the term for bacteria that multiply in the absence of oxygen? A. ...
• What is the term for the attachments that allow bacteria to move in liquids? ...
• What is the role of the sterile pipette in the practical? A. To sterilize ...
• What is the pH level at which most bacteria will not multiply? A. pH ...
• What is the term for the time taken between each division of bacteria? A. ...
• What is the main function of the cell membrane in bacteria? A. Gives the ...
• What is the purpose of sealing the lid onto the petri dish with sellotape? ...
• What is the purpose of incubating the agar plate? A. To prevent the growth ...
• A city has an outbreak of a disease that affects an unusually large portion of ...
• The cell theory developed from the work of many different scientists. Which of the following ...
• Which pathogen is the tiniest A. viruses B. bacteria C. parasites ...
• How are viruses different from most other microbes? A. They are only seen with ...
• Which disease is correctly paired with the cause of the disease? A. athlete’s foot ...
• Which is the basic unit of life? A. cells B. organs C. ...
• This organelle allows materials to enter and exit the cell and holds the cell together. ...
• This disease is caused by fungus. A. Malaria B. Influenza C. Covid19 ...
• This organelle allows a plant to make food through photosynthesis. A. cell wall ...
• Which of the following organelles is responsible for producing energy? A. nucleus B. ...
• This organelle is the rigid protective structure and support in the plant cell. A. ...
• Which tool is MOST responsible for preventing future pandemics of smallpox? A. global education ...
• Which is a distinction between an epidemic and a pandemic? A. the symptoms of ...
• The cell theory applies to all organisms, including the ...
• Which organelle controls all activity of the cell? A. nucleus B. mitochondria ...
• Why do doctors suggest that people get a flu vaccine each year? A. Bacteria ...
• Using a microscope in the science lab, Jill observed two unknown cells: Cell 1 and ...
• Where does the cell contain its genetic makup? A. mitochondria B. nucleus ...
• This organelle is the jell like substance that the organelles sit in and fills the ...
• Why could viruses be considered to be nonliving organisms? A. They do not have ...
• All cells ----- A. come from other dead cells B. come from other ...
• An athlete is running a race. The athlete's body needs ENERGY to finish the race. ...
• The type of chemical bond that forms between a cation and an anion is what ...
• Which of the following statements about nucleic acids is NOT correct for cellular organisms? ...
• What is the difference between acids and bases? A. Acids donate H+; bases accept ...
• The element carbon has 6 protons and 6 neutrons in its nucleus. Which of the ...
• What do you call substances that can be added to a microbial culture to prevent ...
• Choose the answer that correctly lists the choices in order of increasing complexity. A. ...
• DNA and RNA are composed of a sugar, a phosphate, and a nitrogenous base. What ...
• Some microorganisms can carry out photosynthesis in order to make their own food; however, these ...
• What is the most important short-term energy storage molecule? A. nucleic acids B. ...
• What type of macromolecules are polysaccharides? A. proteins B. lipids C. carbohydrates ...
• Which of the following answers illustrates an exchange reaction? A. A + B  ...
• Which of the following is NOT a special property of water? A. Water converts ...
• The atomic number of an element is ________. A. the sum of its photons ...
• When two atoms equally share one pair of electrons, what kind of chemical bond is ...
• How do atoms interact with one another to form chemical bonds? A. They share ...
• What is another name for a decomposition reaction? A. anabolism B. metabolism ...
• What type of reaction involves two small molecules being joined by a covalent bond with ...
• When two atoms have different electronegativities, electrons are shared unequally to form what kind of ...
• The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain is referred to as the ________ ...
• The atomic mass of an atom is ________. A. the sum of the masses ...
• Which of the following illustrates a synthesis reaction? A. 6 H2O + 6 CO2 ...
• Which of the following types of macromolecules is NOT a polymer? A. nucleic acids ...
• The amount of H+ in milk of magnesia, which has a pH of 10, is ...
• The type of bond that forms between a hydrogen atom of one water molecule and ...
• An atom, the smallest unit of matter, is composed of all of the following EXCEPT ...
• How do antacid tablets work to relieve indigestion and/or a sour stomach? A. They ...
• Where are starches commonly found? A. In plant structures B. In animal ...
• In a chemical equation, where are products typically located? A. Below the arrow ...
• What is an element? A. A compound of different atoms B. The ...
• What process occurs when two monomers join together to make a polymer? A. Hydrolysis ...
• In a sugar-water solution, Sugar is the _____ and water is the _____ A. ...
• What type of bonds are found in unsaturated fats? ...
• Which elements do organic compounds always contain? A. Carbon and nitrogen B. ...
• What is a compound? A. A substance made of atoms from the same element ...
• What is the monomer of a carbohydrate called? A. Polysaccharide B. Disaccharide ...
• What process occurs when a polymer breaks down into two monomers? A. Dehydration synthesis ...
• Which of the following is an example of a carbohydrate? A. Glucose B. ...
• In a chemical equation, where are reactants typically located? A. Below the arrow ...
• Endothermic reactions ____energy while exothermic reactions____energy? A. releases, absorbs B. absorbs, releases
• What type of bond is formed between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the ...
• What is the state of saturated fats at room ...
• What type of bond is formed in molecules (electrons are shared between the elements)? ...
• What are lipids? A. molecules that include proteins and nucleic acids B. ...
• What is activation energy? A. The energy released during a chemical reaction ...
• What do two monosaccharides bonded together form? A. Polysaccharide B. Monosaccharide C. ...
• What process involves the removal of a water molecule to bond two monosaccharides together? ...
• What are the main function of lipids? A. Short term energy and hormone production ...
• Define a chemical reaction: A. They dissolve substances into liquids. B. They change ...
• What are carbohydrates composed of? A. Carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen B. Carbon, ...
• Which of the following is an example of a compound? A. O2 B. ...
• Which of the following is an example of a molecule? A. CaCl2 B. ...
• What type of bond is formed in compounds? A. Covalent bond B. ...
• What is the polymer form of lipids referred to as? A. Polysaccharide B. ...
• What property of water allows it to resist changes in temperature? A. Viscosity ...
• What is an atom? A. The smallest basic unit of matter B. ...
• What is the monomer of lipids? A. Monosaccharide B. Amino acid ...
• What is an example of cohesion in water? A. Water evaporating from a surface ...
• You learned about 4 groups of organic molecules (Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids). All these ...
• Look at the picture. Which part of the phospholipid ...
• What is the monomer of proteins? A. Nucleotides B. Amino acids C. ...
• What is a good definition for a substrate? A. A molecule that inhibits enzyme ...
• Which of the following is NOT a component (part) of a nucleotide? A. Pentose ...
• What term is used to describe the property of phospholipid heads being attracted to water? ...
• How many different amino acids do organisms use to build proteins? A. 10 ...
• Which aspect of a chemical reaction is affected by enzymes A. direction of the ...
• Which factors can cause denaturation of proteins? A. Freezing or sugar concentration ...
• How many amino acids can your body make? A. 8 B. 10 ...
• What can amino acids form through peptide bonds? A. A lipid B. ...
• What is the primary role of enzymes in chemical reactions? A. To change the ...
• Phospholipids are a type of lipid. Where would you find them in your body? ...
• Proteins function to aid the health of which of the following? A. Skin, hair, ...
• What is the monomer unit of nucleic acids? A. Amino acid B. Nucleotide ...
• What is the main function of nucleic acids? A. To provide energy to cells ...
• Where does a substrate temporarily bind to an enzyme? A. At the enzyme's active ...
• This indicator(brown paper bag) had a change of.. A. blue to orange/yellow/green/red ...
• This indicator(iodine) had a color change of.. A. blue to orange B. ...
• Our catalase connected to the ______ in the liver lab? A. Catalose B. ...
• Which indicator tested for sugars? A. Iodine B. Biuret C. Benedicts ...
• This indicator(benedicts) had a color change of.. A. blue to orange/yellow/green/red B. ...
• Which indicator tested for lipids? A. Iodine B. Biuret C. Benedicts ...
• Cooked liver, low pH, high pH all had what type of result when mixed with ...
• This indicator(biuret) had a color change of.. A. blue to orange B. ...
• What was our enzyme in the liver lab? A. Catalase B. Catalose ...
• The increased surface area sample of liver had what type of result when mixed with ...
• Which indicator tested for starches? A. Iodine B. Biuret C. Benedicts ...
• Which indicator tested for protein? A. Iodine B. Biuret C. Benedicts ...
• The frozen sample of liver had what type of result when mixed with hydrogen peroxide? ...
• Animals and fungi generate energy though A. digesting food B. photosynthesis C. ...
• The main difference between Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes is A. Presence of a cellular nucleus ...
• The first biotechnology was A. Domestication of the dog B. CRISPR, a genetic ...
• An ice age occurs! Temperatures plummet and the world is covered in ice and snow. ...
• Which of the following is an example of domestication? A. Dogs being selectively breed ...
• The offspring of two giraffes with long necks will most likely have a... A. ...
• Fungi cells have A. Both a cell wall and chloroplasts B. A ...
• Plant cells differ from animal cells in that A. Plant cells have a cell ...
• Bacteria are examples of A. animals B. fungi C. prokaryotes D. ...
• Taxonomy is A. The classification of living organisms B. The preservation and ...
• A cell is A. The level of taxonomy between class and order ...
• Which is NOT an example of biotechnology? A. Selective breeding of bananas for size ...
• The difference between natural selection and artificial selection (selective breeding) is A. Natural selection ...
• Plants generate energy though A. photosynthesis B. digesting food C. burning ...
• Prokaryotes are A. unicellular B. multicellular
• What is the most complete and accurate definition of biotechnology? A. Domestication of plants ...
• If most of the food available is at the top of very tall trees, which ...
• A plasmodial slime mold is an example of a A. protist B. animal ...
• Protists are A. unicellular B. multicellular
• Who originally developed the theory of evolution? A. Galileo Galilei B. Charles Darwin ...
• What is the name of the process by which organisms are classified and categorized? ...
• Which group of invertebrates includes animals like spiders, insects, and crustaceans? A. Arthropods and ...
• Which group of vertebrates includes animals like humans, apes, and monkeys? A. Reptiles ...
• Which group of vertebrates includes animals like sharks, rays, and bony fish? A. Fish ...
• Which group of vertebrates includes animals like sharks, rays, and bony fish? A. Fish ...
• What is the name of the process by which organisms are grouped and identified? ...
• What are the two main groups of invertebrates? A. Arthropods and Mollusks ...
• What are the two main groups of vertebrates? A. Mammals, birds, and fish ...
• Which group of vertebrates includes animals like frogs, snakes, and birds? A. Insects and ...
• What are the three main groups of vertebrates? A. Mammals, birds, and fish ...
• Which type of organism has a backbone: vertebrates or invertebrates? A. vertebrates ...
• What is the name of the process by which invertebrate organisms are classified and categorized? ...
• Name one example of a vertebrate organism. A. Butterfly B. Dog ...
• Which group of vertebrates includes animals like whales, dolphins, and seals? A. Fish ...
• Which group of invertebrates includes animals like ants, bees, and butterflies? A. Arachnids and ...
• What is the name of the process by which organisms are classified and categorized? ...
• Which group of invertebrates includes animals like snails, clams, and octopuses? A. Arthropods and ...
• What are the two main groups of vertebrates? A. Mammals, birds, and fish ...
• What is the name of the process by which organisms are grouped and identified? ...
• Name one example of an invertebrate organism. A. Pine tree B. Jellyfish ...
• What are the two main groups of invertebrates? A. Arthropods and Mollusks ...
• What is the role of blood in the circulatory system of animals? A. It ...
• What are the types of transportation in organisms? A. Transportation in organisms is only ...
• Explain the process of waste elimination in living organisms. A. Waste is eliminated through ...
• What is the excretory system in living organisms? A. The excretory system removes waste ...
• What is the role of the respiratory system in living organisms? A. The respiratory ...
• Name two types of transportation in organisms. A. Excretory system and immune system ...
• Explain the process of nutrient transportation in organisms. A. Nutrients are transported through the ...
• How are nutrients transported in organisms? A. Through the circulatory system B. ...
• Describe the circulatory system in animals. A. Responsible for transporting emotions and thoughts throughout ...
• Explain the mechanism of transportation in plants. A. Through the circulatory system ...
• What are the waste products eliminated by the excretory system in living organisms? A. ...
• How do animals transport oxygen and nutrients? A. Through the circulatory system ...
• How do plants transport water and nutrients? A. Through the leaves and stems ...
• What is the main site of gaseous exchange in humans? A. Lungs B. ...
• How do plants release oxygen during photosynthesis? A. Through the process of combustion ...
• Differentiate between aerobic and anaerobic respiration. A. Aerobic respiration produces more energy than anaerobic ...
• Why is oxygen important in the process of respiration? A. Oxygen is used to ...
• How do plants obtain oxygen for respiration? A. Through photosynthesis B. By ...
• How does the respiratory system in humans maintain the balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide ...
• Explain the role of diaphragm in the mechanism of breathing. A. The diaphragm helps ...
• What is the process by which oxygen is taken in and carbon dioxide is given ...
• Why is it important for cells to undergo respiration? A. To store genetic information ...
• What are the similarities and differences between respiration in plants and animals? A. Both ...
• Explain the process of glycolysis in cellular respiration. A. Glycolysis is the process of ...
• What happens to the carbon dioxide produced during respiration in organisms? A. It is ...
• What is the chemical equation for cellular respiration? A. C6H12O6 + 6O2 -> 6CO2 ...