Sitemap 16

• specimen collection procedures are part of which phase of a laboratory workflow cycle? A. preexamination ...
• Which of the following is the main area of responsibility for every phlebotomist? A. analytic ...
• Part of being a responsible member of a health care team involves A. being confident ...
• The following are the categories of professionalism except: A. respect B. support C. honesty ...
• This is another diseases that has diarrhea as a symptoms that caused protozoans from the ...
• Communicable disease is caused by very small living things or microorganisms that is called Pathogens. ...
• Pathogens is germs or disease agents that spread to people in different ways. A. TRUE ...
• This diseases caused by the bacterium vibrio Cholera. A. diarrhea B. Dysentery C. Amoebiasis ...
• This are are microscopic one-celled living things that can be found almost anywhere. A. virus ...
• This is a kind of gastroenteritis where infected person experiences diarrhea with blood. A. diarrhea ...
• It is a smallest type of pathogen. A. virus B. bacteria C. fungi D. parasites ...
• This are the simple organisms that cannot make their own food. A. virus B. bacteria ...
• A __________ is diseases that characterized by three or more watery, it loose bowel movements ...
• This are the simple organisms that cannot make their own food. A. virus B. bacteria ...
• Is it true that the causes of illness to spread is the microorganisms called pathogens ...
• Which disease is caused by injury to the developing brain? A. Cerebral Palsy B. Epilepsy ...
• In which of the following nervous system disorders do nervous tissues degenerate? A. Alzheimer's Disease ...
• Nervous tissue may degenerate or break down. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• A stroke may cause A. brain cells to die B. paralysis C. loss of normal ...
• When the immune system tries to fight of an infection in the brain, and may ...
• Which neurological disorder is characterized by abnormal brain activity causing seizures? A. Cerebral Palsy ...
• Which nervous system disease may result in movement, cognitive and behavioral disorders? A. Huntington Disease ...
• Which nervous system disease results from the immune system attacking and damaging the central nervous ...
• Which nervous system disease is associated with uncontrolled shaking, slowed movements, and problems with speaking? ...
• Which nervous system disease is genetic and can cause tumors to form on nerve tissue? ...
• A brain tumor is a mass or growth of abnormal cells that can only originate ...
• Alzheimer's disease is a non-progressive form of dementia that causes plaque buildup in the brain ...
• Meningitis may cause A. brain cancer. B. the brain to swell and lead to brain ...
• Which nervous system disease is characterized by memory loss, confustion, and the gradual loss of ...
• Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) leads to a gradual loss of higher brain functions. A. TRUE ...
• With which part of the nervous system is meningitis associated? A. The tissues covering the ...
• Human DNA is organized into 46 A. telomeres B. chromosomes C. centromeres D. proteins ...
• True or False: Whereas normal cells spend most of their time not dividing, cancerous cells ...
• After the chromosomes duplicate in the S phase of interphase, they are called
• The last checkpoint that happens. Proteins check to make sure the chromosomes are lined up ...
• Which of the following is/are risk factors of cancer? A. Exposure to toxins/chemicals B. Exposure ...
• The first checkpoint that happens. Proteins check that the cell is growing properly and that ...
• The first part of the cell cycle in which the cell is growing and replicating ...
• The second major part of the cell cycle in which the cell is actively dividing ...
• The phase of interphase in which the DNA duplicates so that each cell made can ...
• True or False: Multicellular organisms grow because their cells get larger. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• The second checkpoint that happens. Proteins check that the DNA was duplicated properly and that ...
• What are the purposes of the cell cycle? A. To repair damage B. To ...
• If at a checkpoint it is determined that a cell is damaged and cannot be ...
• A disease that results from DNA being damaged and is characterized by uncontrolled cell growth ...
• The last major part of the cell cycle in which the cytoplasm divides and the ...
• The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system plays a central role in blood pressure by increasing _________ and ________ ...
• The nurse observes a client care technician obtain a blood pressure on an obese client ...
• The extended, severe exposure of the walls of the blood vessels to the exaggerated pressure ...
• greater the stretch = greater the force of contraction describes which mechanism? A. Frank-Starling ...
• which statement is correct regarding the systemic circulation? A. moves blood through the lungs ...
• the ______ represents the average pressure in the arterial system during ventricular contraction and relaxation ...
• which statement correctly defines secondary hypertension A. accounts for 95% of cases B. no cause ...
• which statement is correct regarding the pulmonary circulation? A. moves blood throughout all the other ...
• select the response that best describes the pressure-sensitive receptors that respond to changes in the ...
• the ______ risk factors include a family history of hypertension, race, and age-related increases in ...
• cardiac output (CO) is used to measure the efficiency of the heart as a pump. ...
• A client with malignant hypertension is at risk for a hypertensive crisis, including the cerebral ...
• an elevation in blood pressure increases the workload of the ______ by increasing the pressure ...
• which of the following is NOT a part of a cell's nucleus? A. plasma membrane ...
• The longest phase of a Cell's Life Cycle: A. metaphase B. prophase C. cytokinesis ...
• This word means division of a nucleus A. interphase B. cytokinesis C. mitosis D. metaphase ...
• This cell organelle makes ATP for the cell. A. smooth ER B. rough ER ...
• These cells cover and line body organs. A. epithelial cells B. fat cells C. nerve ...
• These cells gather and send information. A. macrophages B. nerve cells C. fat cells ...
• This word means division of cytoplasm: A. cytokinesis B. mitosis C. prophase D. anaphase ...
• This plasma membrane specialization increases surface area. A. gap junctions B. chromatin C. membrane junctions ...
• Cell organelle that can be rough or smooth. A. lysosomes B. plasma membrane C. endoplasmic ...
• A form of Active Transport A. Exocytosis/Endocytosis B. diffusion C. filtration D. osmosis
• mRNA --> protein A. transcription B. translation C. mitosis D. cytokinesis
• These cells make connective tissue. A. fibroblasts B. sperm C. epithelial cells D. skeletal muscle ...
• Cell organelle that directs the formation of mitotic spindle. A. Golgi Apparatus B. Mitochondria ...
• These cells fight disease. A. fibroblasts B. oocyte C. macrophages D. fat cells
• cell organelle where proteins are made A. ribosomes B. mitochondria C. centrioles D. endoplasmic reticulum ...
• Cell organelle that detoxifies free radicals found in the cells. A. lysosomes B. mitochondria ...
• A form of Passive Transport. A. solute pumping B. endocytosis C. exocytosis D. Diffusion
• DNA --> mRNA A. translation B. transcription C. mitosis D. cytokinesis
• Cell organelle that digests unwanted materials. A. golgi apparatus B. ribosomes C. lysosomes D. mitochondria ...
• It is advisable that you drop the _______________ of the bow if it is too ...
• Tendonitis of the elbow is so common in archery, the disorder is also called “Archer’s ...
• If you experience pain drawing your bow, remember to _____________. A. keep quiet and don't ...
• Tendonitis is inflammation of a tendon. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Hand cuts and punctures may caused by ____________________. A. handling archery equipment in a correct ...
• Focus on keeping your chest open, shoulders back, and shoulder blades stable as you shoot. ...
• Archery arrows are extremely sharp, so it’s essential to ____________________. A. put it everywhere. ...
• Performing _______________________ both before and after practice is a great way to warm-up and condition ...
• To prevent chest bruising, you must wear _________________. A. arm guard B. chest guard ...
• Bruising may occur if your fingers are in the wrong position. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Rotator cuff injury involves a dull aching pain on the shoulder and your range of ...
• Although archery is a relatively safe sport, if done improperly it can be dangerous and ...
• To prevent string slap, you need to wear __________________. A. shoes B. chest guard ...
• The large back muscles cannot help the smaller arm and rotator cuff muscles when drawing ...
• The diagram above shows a A. torn rotator ...
• The most common archery injuries tend to be in the _______________. A. Foot B. Arm ...
• String slap happens when _________________________________. A. you release the bow string and it hurts your ...
• It is important to maintain the correct form when drawing your bow. A. TRUE ...
• Overtraining is always a good habit to overcome your weakness. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Applying ice to your shoulder for about 20 minutes before practice can keep unavoidable inflammation ...
• When you bring your bow to a full draw, it puts ______________________ strain on the ...
• Below are the symptoms of string slap, except _______________. A. Pain B. Bruises C. Swelling ...
• Description : Lightly muscled A. endomorph B. mesomorph C. ectomorph
• What is a 'Mesomorph'? A. Muscular B. Tall and thin C. Pear shaped body ...
• Description : Flabby A. endomorph B. ectomorph C. mesomorph
• What sport would be an example of having combinations of 'mesomorphic' and 'endomorphic'? A. Hammer ...
• What somatotype would you expect a tennis player to have? A. Endomorphic B. Mesomorphic ...
• An 'Endomorph' is somebody who has a 'pear shaped body'. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• What is a somatotype? A. The size of your foot B. A bunch of tomatoes ...
• What physical traits are associated with an Ectomorph? A. Thin Build B. Large Frame ...
• If a person is said to be 7-1-1, he or she is an A. Ectomorph ...
• Defining an athletes somatotype is important to help guide training, nutrition, recovery and competition and ...
• What is an 'Ectomorph'? A. Tall and thin B. Small and broad C. Muscular ...
• What does body composition refer to? A. % of Body Fat B. The shape of ...
• What somatotype reading would you expect the above athlete to have.
• Description : Round shape A. endomorph B. mesomorph C. ectomorph
• Description : Delicate built A. endomorph B. mesomorph C. ectomorph
• Description : Has trouble in losing weight A. endomorph B. mesomorph C. ectomorph
• Description : Hard muscular body A. endomorph B. ectomorph C. mesomorph
• What somatotype would you expect a Gymnast to have? A. Mesomorphic B. Endomorphic C. Ectomorphic ...
• Description : Athletic body A. endomorph B. mesomorph C. ectomorph
• A Rugby player would be categorised as a 'Mesomorph' A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What somatotype reading would you expect the above athlete to have.
• What does an Endomorph refer to? A. Wider hips than shoulders B. Longer legs than ...
• What is a 'Endomorph' suitable for? A. Pole vaulting B. Ballet C. Swimming D. Zumo ...
• What sport would an 'Ectomorph' be suitable for? A. Long distance running B. Weight lifting ...
• Description : Flat chested body A. ectomorph B. endomorph C. mesomorph
• During excretion, perspiration from the ______ glands is excreted through the skin. A. sudoriferous ...
• A raised, inflamed papule with a white or yellow center containing pus is in the ...
• The layer of the epidermis also known as the basal cell layer is the _____. ...
• A small elevation on the skin that contains no fluid but may develop pus is ...
• The clear, transparent layer of the epidermis under the stratum corneum is the ______. ...
• A fatty or oily secretion that lubricates the skin and preserves the softness of the ...
• The scalp has larger and deeper ___ than the skin on the rest of the ...
• The outer layer of the epidermis is the _____ layer. A. stratum corneum B. stratum ...
• Small, cone-shaped elevations at the base of the hair follicles are ____ A. melanocytes ...
• The coiled base of the sudoriferous gland is known as the _____. A. secretory coil ...
• The layer of the epidermis where the process of skin cell shedding begins is the ...
• Water makes up _____ percent of the body's weight and is necessary for virtually every ...
• The USDA recommends that people eat _____. A. zero salt and zero sugar B. large ...
• The sudoriferous glands excrete perspiration, detoxify the body and ______. A. preserve the softness of ...
• Vitamins are considered ______. A. nutritional requirements B. nutritional supplements C. cosmetic ingredients D. prescription ...
• Emotional stress and hormone imbalances can increase the flow of _____. A. sebum B. spinal ...
• Nerves that regulate the excretion of perspiration from the sudoriferous glands and control the flow ...
• Lack of water is the principal cause of ______. A. daytime fatigue B. daytime hunger ...
• ____ nerve fibers react to heat, cold, touch, pressure and pain. A. motor nerve ...
• The nutrient needed for energy to run every function within the body is _____. ...
• The amount and type of pigment produced in an individual is determined by his or ...
• One of the best ways to follow a healthy diet is to read _____. ...
• Skin gets its strength, form and flexibility from _______. A. collagen and keratin B. sebum ...
• The connective tissue that makes up the external ear is: A. dense collagenous connective tissue. ...
• Which of these connective tissue cells is NOT correctly matched with its function? A. blast ...
• Which of the following fiber types is not correctly paired with its function? A. collagen ...
• In connective tissue, cells whose names contain the suffix - clast: A. produce matrix ...
• Which of these is NOT one of the four basic tissue types? A. glandular ...
• Which of these epithelial types is correctly matched with its major function? A. simple squamous ...
• Cell connections that bind adjacent cells together and form permeability barriers are called: A. tight ...
• Pick out the FALSE statement about epithelial tissue. A. Epithelial tissue is vascular. B. Epithelial ...
• Epithelial cells A. cover body surfaces or form glands. B. usually have a free surface ...
• Understanding tissue structure and function is important because: A. There is a relationship between the ...
• During tissue repair, the clot is first replaced by _____, a delicate connective tissue that ...
• The most correct classification of an epithelial tissue consisting of many layers of cells, in ...
• antitussive A. medication suspended in a mist so that it may be inhaled B. medication ...
• Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) A. a malignant tumor that originated in the bronchi ...
• aerosol spray A. medication that caused the bronchi to dilate B. inhaling fluid or foreign ...
• bronchogenic carcinoma (lung cancer) A. progressive, chronic and usually irreversible condition which air flow to ...
• aspirate A. inhaling fluid or foreign object into airway B. condition in which lung tissue ...
• Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) A. medication to relieve the urge to cough B. medication suspended in ...
• atelectasis A. acute respiratory failure n adults characterized by tachypnea, dyspnea, cyanosis, tachycardia, and hypoxia ...
• asthma A. acute respiratory failure in adults characterized by tachypnea, dyspnea, cyanosis, tachycardia, and hypoxia ...
• asphyxia A. a malignant tumor that originates in the bronchi B. lack of oxygen that ...
• bronchodilator A. medication that causes bronchi to dilate B. medication to relieve the urge to ...
• arterial blood gases A. medication that causes the bronchi to dilate B. acute respiratory failure ...
• The main organ of your respiratory system is the A. heart B. lungs C. blood ...
• Which of the following components of blood responsible for carrying oxygen around the body? ...
• Physical digestion takes place in the A. oesophagus B. stomach C. rectum D. mouth
• Which of the following parts make up the male part of a flower and what ...
• What is the correct order for the levels of organisation within the human body? ...
• Enzymes help with A. Chemical digestion B. Keeping us regular C. communicating D. spelling
• The main role of your blood is to A. carry oxygen to the rest of ...
• Identify which part of the musculoskeletal system that causes the skeleton to move. A. Bones ...
• What part of the flowering plant swells into a fruit once the female gametes inside ...
• Your bones are held together at joints by A. cartilige B. ligaments C. tendons ...
• carbon dioxide + water + energy → sugar + oxygen What does this ...
• What are the upper most chambers of the heart called? A. Ventricles B. Atriums ...
• Which of the following parts of the digestive system is responsible for the removal of ...
• These joints allow the arm or leg to move in almost any direction. A. saddle ...
• Each movement that you consciously do, like walking, climbing, and punching, is enabled by the ...
• What is the substance within the epidermis which shields us from the harmful ultraviolet (UV) ...
• This group of bones consists of the upper and the lower limbs. A. joints ...
• What muscles are at work when you are doing activities such as running, lifting, and ...
• What is the point where the two or more bones meet and are held together ...
• This group of bones, protects the body’s vital organs such as the brain and the ...
• What muscles form parts of the internal organs like bladder, stomach, intestines, and blood vessels? ...
• The following are the classifications of joints according to the movement they allow, EXCEPT; ...
• What is the waste product excreted by the skin through pores? A. sebum B. melanin ...
• What is the largest organ of the body which is also one of the major ...
• What is the innermost layer of the skin which serves as fat storage? A. epidermis ...
• Which muscular condition is characterized by a sudden involuntary contraction of muscles? A. muscle cramps ...
• It is the abnormal curvature of the spine which affects one’s posture. A. osteoporosis ...
• In which part of the human body can you find immovable joints? A. elbow ...
• Another name for a host is A. Victor B. Vector C. Virginia D. Value
• This is a ???? A. Bacteria ...
• This is a ??? A. Bacteria ...
• Fungi reproduce by A. cloning themselves B. Spores C. Splitting into two fungi D. Mating ...
• Bacteria can be treated with an A. Antibiotic B. Vaccine C. Symptom
• This is a ??? A. Bacteria ...
• Viruses have flagella A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What is the system of your body that fights off diseases? A. Endocrine B. Immune ...
• True of False: Strep Throat is caused by a bacteria so it can be treated ...
• This is a ??? A. Bacteria ...
• Athletes Foot is a A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Fungi D. Parasite
• Which of the following are ways germs can spread? A. Through the air B. Contact ...
• True or False: A virus can be killed with an antibiotic. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Covid 19 is a A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Parasite D. Fungi
• True or False: All bacteria are bad for you. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Fever, Cough and Runny Nose are .... A. Illnesses B. Diseases C. Symptoms
• True or False: A germ can enter the body through the skin? A. TRUE ...
• What organ of the respiratory system is in purple. ...
• A chamber behind the nose and mouth that leads to the trachea and is part ...
• The walls of the alveoli and capillaries are permeable. What does this mean? A. Substances ...
• Label C is... A. Trachea ...
• Label B is... A. Trachea B. ...
• Label D is... A. Trachea ...
• Where does the transfer of oxygen into the bloodstream take place? A. In the heart ...
• Label A is... A. Trachea B. ...
• What can you infer about the function of the ribcage?
• Why is the left lung slightly smaller than the right lung ? A. to give ...
• Hair in your nose and mucus help to trap dust, bacteria, and other materials from ...
• What is the correct name for the voice box? A. Trachea B. Bronchus C. Bronchiole ...
• Bronchial tubes contract quickly causing shortness of breath, coughing, and wheezing A. Bronchitis B. Emphysema ...
• The two narrower tubes branching from the trachea that leads into the lungs A. nose ...
• What is the correct name for the windpipe? A. Trachea B. Bronchus C. Bronchiole ...
• an inflammation in the bronchial tubes that causes a person to have a nagging cough ...
• At the end of broncioles are thin walled sacs called what? A. trachea B. bronchi ...
• What are the names of the air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange takes ...
• Which of the following statements is true? A. Your lungs can store several hours' worth ...
• Lung volume might vary because of A. Activity level B. All of these C. Smoking ...
• The ability to utilize which of the following substances is needed to synthesize thyroid hormones? ...
• Which alteration of thyroid function is shown here? ...
• Hyperthyroidism is due to excessive production of ______, which are antibodies to the TSH receptor ...
• A patient with thyroid storm will present with all of the following except: A. Fever ...
• An elevation in thyroid hormone when evaluating a patient's laboratory results indicates: A. Diabetes Insipidus ...
• Myxedema coma is a medical emergency associated with A. Hyperthyroidism B. Hypothyroidism C. Normal Thyroid ...
• Thyroid hormones effect all of the following except: A. Metabolism B. Growth C. Development ...
• A patient with Gravess Disease would have ____ levels of Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) ...
• Primary hypothyroidism will present with the following lab values: A. Low T3 & T4 ...
• Which hormone is NOT released by the thyroid? A. T3 B. T4 C. T5 ...
• Hyperthyroidism is associated with all of the following symptoms EXCEPT: A. Weight Loss B. Enlarged ...
• TSH is secreted from the _______ pituitary gland A. Medial B. Lateral C. Anterior ...
• _______ serve as both a factory and a warehouse for the production of thyroid hormones. ...
• Which alteration of thyroid hormonal function is shown here? ...
• Which base can only pair up with Cytosine? A. Adenine B. Thymine C. Guanine ...
• Why is it so important to replicate DNA? A. so that each daughter cell is ...
• If one strand of DNA has the sequence GCCATT, what would you expect to be ...
• Why do organisms use the cell cycle? A. to grow and repair damaged cells ...
• What is different between how plant and animal cells use the cell cycle? A. Plant ...
• Which part of the cell cycle is divided into prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase? ...
• Simon looks at an image of a slide and notices that all of the chromosomes ...
• What happens at the end of interphase? A. the cell splits into 2 identical cells ...
• Which enzyme fixes the Okazaki fragments in the lagging strand? A. Helicase B. Polymerase ...
• Why is it crucial that living things are able to replicate their DNA? A. Each ...
• Which enzyme has the job of unzipping the double helix? A. Helicase B. Polymerase ...
• Which statement best describes chromosomes? A. They carry out cellular respiration B. They consist of ...
• Which enzyme is responsible for adding the free nucleotides to the replicating DNA? ​ ...
• The regular sequence of growth and division that cells undergo is known as the ...
• Cancer is best described as A. an infectious disease B. any harmful change that disrupts ...
• This scientist proposed that all cells come from other cells: A. Leeunwenhoek B. Schleiden ...
• During cell division, the genetic material in a cell needs to duplicate -- before it ...
• The ___?____ is the largest organ of the human body. A. liver B. small intestine ...
• All of the following are functions of cell division EXCEPT A. to form new cells ...
• There are 3 main layers of human skin. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• According to the picture, this is indicative of ...
• Which of the following examples below is a good example of an infectious disease? ...
• The basic unit of structure & function of living things is known as the ...
• Mitosis is accurately defined as the division of the nucleus (where genetic material is stored) ...
• After a cell divides (i.e. skin cell), the result is A. a daughter cell with ...
• Which instrument / tool is commonly used to study cells at a total magnification of ...
• All organisms are made of: A. organelles B. cytoplasm C. DNA D. cells
• The Cell Theory states... A. atoms create all matter B. living things evolve C. the ...
• This scientist was the first to identify cells and name them: A. Hooke B. Leeunwenhoek ...
• Chromosomes (genetic material) are located outside of the nucleus of the cell. A. TRUE ...
• Which one is not a venomous spider in Ohio? A. black widow B. grey house ...
• What word means the shedding of an exoskeleton after a growth period? A. exfoliating ...
• What are antennae used for? A. sight B. smell C. taste D. hearing
• What is the most common tick in Ohio? A. american dog tick B. deer tick ...
• What is the scientific name for the study of insects? A. hydrology B. ornithology ...
• Which one of these classes does not belong in the phylum arthropoda? A. arachnida ...
• What type of protection causes an organism that may not be dangerous to look like ...
• How many body regions do spiders have? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 8 ...
• Which body segment contains the major body organs of insects? A. head B. thorax ...
• What kind of eyes contain many facets to form a mosaic image? A. compound ...
• What tick is associated with lyme disease? A. american dog tick B. deer tick ...
• What word is the immature form of an insect going through incomplete metamorphosis? A. nymph ...
• Which is NOT a characteristic shared by all insects? A. three body regions B. one ...
• What is the correct order of a complete life cycle starting with birth? A. egg, ...
• What type of pheromone causes organisms to form large groups together, usually to feed? ...
• To which phylum do insects belong? A. echinodermata B. arthropoda C. chordata D. diplopoda
• Which is NOT a role of insects in nature? A. Herbivores B. Predators C. Autotrophs ...
• What type of organism can be used to determine the status of an ecosystem? ...
• In a muscle cell, which organelle is responsible for providing energy? A. Vacuole B. Nucleus ...
• Ms.Long took her science class to a buffet to test their digestion system. After eating ...
• Movements that you cannot control A. Strain B. Sprain C. Voluntary D. Involuntary
• These muscles are attached to your bones A. Skeletal B. Smooth C. Rough D. Cardiac ...
• Skeletal muscles are attached to the _________. A. Stomach B. Lungs C. Skeleton D. Involuntary ...
• Muscles cells will have more mitochondria cells than any other human cells because A. It ...
• Which of the following uses voluntary muscles? A. Digestion B. Heart breathing C. Raising your ...
• Cardiac muscle is only found where?  A. Lungs B. Heart C. Kidney's  D. Liver ...
• What are the 3 types of muscles? A. Cardiac, smooth and skeletal B. Cardiac, skeletal, ...
• These muscles work automatically without us doing any work.
• Homeostasis in the body maintains _____ in the body systems. A. an imbalance B. a ...
• What system does the muscular system work in conjunction with to allow our body to ...
• These muscles are found in your organs A. Skeletal B. Smooth C. Rough D. Cardiac ...
• Muscles are attached to the skeletal system to A. Increase energy through the mitochondria. ...
• What is a voluntary muscle? A. You have control over the muscle  B. You have ...
• How does the muscular system help the digestive system? A. It helps remove waste ...
• Area where the thick filaments are linked A. A band B. Z disc C. H ...
• Area where there's only thick filaments A. A band B. Z disc C. H band ...
• Area where there's only thin filaments A. A band B. Z disc C. H band ...
• Which part of the myofiber stores Ca2+ ? A. Sarcoplasm B. Sarcoplasmic Reticulum C. Myoglobin ...
• What do you call a skeletal muscle cell? A. Sacolemma B. Myofilament C. Myalgia ...
• Area where the thick and thin filaments overlap A. A band B. Z disc ...
• The thin filament is made up of what protein? A. Myosin B. Actin
• Why is the muscle red? A. Because of blood B. Because of hemoglobin C. Because ...
• What binds to the troponin? A. H+ B. O2− C. ...
• This is a hereditary disease where the muscles degenerate and are replaced by fat and ...
• The thick filament is made up of what protein? A. Actin B. Myosin
• This disorder is characterized by a shortening of the muscle, not caused by nervous stimulation. ...
• This disorder is characterized by the person's antibodies attach the neuromuscular junctions A. Contracture ...
• Emma has chronic muscle pain and tenderness. What disorder does she have? A. Fibromyalgia ...
• Where are the thin filaments and elastic filaments anchored? A. A band B. Z disc ...
• Which of the following are Signs and Symptoms of an Achilles Tendon Rupture:
• Which test is used to check for an achilles tendon rupture? A. Thompson's Test ...
• Which of the following are signs/symptoms of an achilles tendon strain or tendonitis? ...
• What other ligament is injured with an inversion sprain? A. Anterior Talofibular B. Anterior Tibiofibular ...
• What ligament is injured with an inversion sprain? A. Anterior Talofibular B. Anterior Tibiofibular ...
• Aching, squeezing pain, numbness, weakness, etc. when the muscles in the lower leg begin ...
• attaches gastrocnemius to the heel  A. peroneus B. achilles tendon C. deltiod D. fibula 
• This is not a medical emergency, it's due to being very active with pain in ...
• What does the acronym R.I.C.E. stand for: A. Respect, Integrity, Courage, Excellence B. Regular, Interlaboratory, ...
• Dorsiflexion with eversion A. Deltoid Sprain B. Talo-fibular Sprain C. Tibio-fibular Sprain
• When applying first aid to an ankle sprain. what is a good acronym to follow? ...
• Untreated tendinitis of the Achilles can result in? A. Tendinitis B. Rupture C. Sprain ...
• This is a medical emergency, due to being struck in the lower anterior leg, causing ...
• This is another name for Medial Tibial Stress Syndrome A. Shin Splints B. Vastus Lateralitis ...
• What is the most common ankle sprain? A. Inversion B. Eversion C. Plantarflexion
• Very common sport injury cause by repetitive microtrauma is an overuse injury, pain in anterior ...
• Which of the following are Signs and Symptoms of Tendonitis. Except
• What is a characteristic of antigens? A. They stimulate the production of antibodies B. They ...
• What activates fibrinogen? A. Thrombin B. Prothrombin C. Fibrin
• What is formed when a lysosome and a vesicle fuse? A. Phagolysosome B. Lysophagosome ...
• what is NOT about a leukocyte? A. White blood cell B. Phagocyte C. Lymphocyte ...
• Clotting factors... A. cause platelets to become sticky and adhere to the damaged region ...
• What is the function of T helper cells? A. release chemicals to activate B cells ...
• Which describes the protein molecules that trigger the immune response? A. antigen B. antibody ...
• Which line of defence is specific and adaptive to A. each pathogen? B. First ...
• Is mucus chemical or mechanical barrier? A. Chemical B. Mechanical
• What initiates clotting? A. clotting factors released by damaged cells B. cytokines released by t-cells ...
• Which is an example of a human's first line of defence? A. Mucus B. Fever ...
• Which statement about antibodies is correct? A. antibodies are polypeptides B. antibodies are produced by ...
• What type of cell produces antibodies when we encounter a foreign pathogen for the second ...
• Dendritic cells present the antigens of pathogens to... A. activate T helper cell to identify ...
• It is acquired through inhalation or following the ingestion of contaminated foods or liquids. ...
• Means the infection is spreading in your body and if your lungs are infected, you ...
• means that you have the tv causing bacteria in your body, but you cannot spread ...
• It is the most common disease. It occurs 25 times more often than other diseases. ...
• This is an inflammation of bronchi. It is caused by the spread of germs following ...
• This is an acute bacterial infection of the mucous membrane of the throat and the ...
• the surgical removal of the tonsils A. Chronic tonsilitis B. tonsillectomy
• This is cause by a virus. Its symptoms are high fever, redness of the respiratory ...
• refers to an acute infection of the lungs causing it to fill up with mucus. ...
• infections that is most often found in the lungs. It is easily spread to ...
• This is a sore throat or inflammation of the pharynx caused by bacteria or virus. ...
• If someone is stung in the mouth by a bee, what should you give them? ...
• If someone is bleeding badly, how long should you put pressure on the wound to ...
• An accident victim has a badly broken arm and you can see the bone. What ...
• How can you find out if a bandage is too tight around an arm? ...
• How many breaths a minute is the normal breathing rate for a healthy adult? ...
• A child has drunk some bleach. What should you give them? A. A drink of ...
• What is normal body temperature? A. 33° B. 35° C. 37° ...
• To remove an insect from someone's ear, you should sit them down with the affected ...
• If you want to know if someone is unconscious, what should you do? A. Tap ...
• How do you know if someone is going to faint? They feel faint and ...
• How many heart beats a minute is normal for a healthy adult? A. 40-60 ...
• How long should you hold a burn under cold running water? A. At least 2 ...
• Why are jellyfish stings difficult to avoid? A. Brightly coloured swimming costumes attract them ...
• Why do people who have just survived nearly drowning still need to see a doctor? ...
• Which of these items should you not use to cover a burn? A. A clean ...
• Is the SIDEWAYS curving of the spine? A. Scoliosis B. Overweight C. Cavities
• Is a common vision problem also known as NEARSIGHTEDNESS? A. Myopia B. Dandruff C. Halitosis ...
• The unpleasant smell of the human body usually caused by poor hygiene and changes in ...
• Is a hearing-related problem COMMON in CHILDREN because the tube that allows air in the ...
• Is flaking or drying of the skin on the scalp (HEAD SKIN)? A. Underweight ...
• Is another word for misalignment and the condition of CROWDED TEETH? A. Malocclusion B. Dandruff ...
• Is caused when the skin is exposed to the sun for a period of time? ...
• Is an oral condition that results to TOOTH DECAY? A. Myopia B. Swimmer's Ear ...
• Is a NAIL CONDITION when curved and grows into the skin usually at the sides ...
• Is a GUM DISEASE, the bacterial growth in the mouth that will cause tooth loss? ...
• Is also known as BAD BREATH caused by poor oral and dental hygiene? A. Halitosis ...
• Is a common vision problem also known as FARSIGHTEDNESS? A. Hyperopia B. Corns and Calluses ...
• Is also known as EARWAX formed when pushed against the eardrum by cotton buds that ...
• Is an increased body WEIGHT ABOVE NORMAL for the age and height? A. Overweight ...
• Is a result of MALNUTRITION with the body weight that is too LOW to be ...
• Thrombokinase together with calcium ion and vitamin K convers P to Q. A. P: prothrombin ...
• What substance is needed to convert fibrinogen to fibrin? A. Thrombokinase B. Thrombin C. Prothrombin ...
• Ariana lack of clotting factors that cause her blood to unable to clot when she ...
• Blockage in carotid arteries may lead to a heart attack while blockage in the coronary ...
• Blood clot can be formed within the artery and prevents blood from flowing normally through ...
• Which of the following is not the importance of blood clotting? Choose your answers. ...
• Why fibrin mesh is important in blood clotting mechanism? A. To attract more platelets. ...
• Thrombin, in turn, catalyzes the conversion of the soluble protein fibrin to fibrinogen, which serves ...
• Name the chemical substance that is secreted by platelets when it is exposed to the ...
• Thrombin is an enzyme that converts fibrin to fibrinogen A. TRUE B. FALSE
• A blood clot moving in the bloodstream is called an embolus A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• What is the role of fibrin in blood clotting? A. acts as an enzyme ...
• A boy accidentally cut his finger. the blood clots occur slowly. What caused the blood ...
• Why is defibrillation important? A. It prevents rearrest from occurring B. It is not ...
• A form of CPR without mouth-to-mouth breaths A. Rescue Breathing B. ABCs C. American Red ...
• What is the universal sign for choking? A. flailing around B. coughing C. holding hands ...
• What is another term for cardiac arrest? A. cardiopulmonary arrest B. heart attack C. myocardial ...
• A portable electronic device used to jump start or regulate the heart A. AED ...
• Do you need to give breaths in order to do Hands only CPR? A. TRUE ...
• When checking for a pulse you should use the ______ artery? A. Tibial B. Popliteal ...
• What's the ultimate purpose of CPR? A. to stop a heart attack B. to dislodge ...
• You must obtain consent before giving care to a responsive and unresponsive adult.  A. True  ...
• CPR stands for A. Cardio pulmonary resuscitation B. Cardiology Pulmonary respiratory C. Cardio plumonary Respiratory ...
• What does AED stand for? A. Automated Extra Defibulator B. Anti Exam Defense C. Automated ...
• What is the first step in CPR? A. check for signs of life B. check ...
• For an adult you should give ____ compressions ...
• When is the Heimlich Maneuver used? A. Heart Attack B. Chocking C. Bleeding. D. Stroke ...
• An emergency technique used to eject an object, such as food, from the trachea of ...
• When checking to see if an adult is responsive or unresponsive you should always tap ...
• How many breaths are given? A. 10 ...
• The first thing you should do when you approach the scene is make sure ...
• Using a Head Tilt as part of CPR helps ....
• How many times can you do the Heimlich on a person? A. 2 times ...
• This part of the brain is inside the brain; controls emotions like happiness, sadness, and ...
• This part of the brain is responsible for recieving and processing sound as well as ...
• This part of the brain is responsible for personality; movement of the body; emotional reactions; ...
• Transfers electrical impulse signals from the cell body to the synapse. A. Dendrite B. Axon ...
• Receive electrical impulses from neighboring neurons A. Synapse B. Dendrite C. Axon
• This part of the brain is responsible for touch and pressure; body awareness A. Parietal ...
• Send electrical impulses to neighboring neurons A. Dendrite B. Synapse C. Axon
• Cover the axon; insulation to help keep electrical signals inside the cell A. Myelin Sheath ...
• This part of the brain is responsible for balance and coordination. A. Occipital B. Frontal ...
• This part of the brain is responsible for vision. A. Frontal B. Occipital C. Parietal ...
• Cell body; contains most of the cell's organeles A. Soma B. Dendrite C. Axon ...
• Infectious nonliving agents much smaller than bacteria that invade cells and cause diseases such as ...
• The flu is also called what? A. Influenza Virus B. Lyme Disease C. Osteoporosis ...
• When germs get inside your body, multiply, and make you sick. A. infection B. germs ...
• What are the four structures that help protect the body from infection? A. skin, fingernails, ...
• To write down or draw the detailed plan for creating a solution to a problem. ...
• What is the function of cilia in defending our body from infection? A. Secretes hormones ...
• What is the function of mucus in defending our body against germs? A. Traps invading ...
• Tiny, non-living invaders are what? A. Bacteria B. Bugs C. Virus D. Fever
• An infectious disease that can be spread from person to person or from an animal ...
• What can you use to see bacteria up close? A. A mirror B. A table ...
• Cilia help protect the body from infection by doing what? A. Grabs germs and keeps ...
• This helps filter the bodily fluids, and trap and destroy any invading germs before they ...
• Very small organism, such as a bacterium, that cannot be seen with the naked eye. ...
• Tiny, one-celled organisms that get nutrients from their environment in order to live. A. stomach ...
• A microorganism that can make a person sick. The four major types are bacteria, viruses, ...
• Guidelines or rules used to judge or make a decision about something. A. criteria ...
• A person who is able to become infected by a communicable disease. A. susceptible ...
• When a person can spread their infection to someone else. Also called infectious. A. contagious ...
• Bacteria can be found where? A. Everywhere B. Nowhere C. Only in some places
• A person who asks questions, makes observations, and investigates ideas in order to acquire knowledge ...
• Bacteria can be in the food we eat. True or False? A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• A person who has a communicable disease. A. infected B. germs C. bacteria D. virus ...
• The system in the body responsible for identifying and fighting off unwanted bacteria, viruses, and ...
• Which part(s) of the body can the tuberculosis infection spread to? A. all organs of ...
• incomplete expansion of the lung A. atelectasis B. anthracosis C. pneumonai D. pneumectomy
• Which of the following breath sounds would you expect to hear in a patient with ...
• All of these are contributing factors of pneumonia except: A. Alcoholism B. post op lap ...
• Do people who are affected by tuberculosis always experience symptoms right away? A. Yes ...
• Which of the following is considered the hallmark of bronchiectasis? A. Chronic cough with large ...
• Can someone catch tuberculosis easily? A. yes B. no
• The trachea is the: A. esophagus B. throat C. windpipe D. voicebox
• Treatable with antibiotics, characterized by painful sinuses, fever, and pus in the mucus. A. cystic ...
• Tamiflu is an antiviral agent given for infants (less than 1 year old) with a ...
• What is the standard for diagnosis pneumonia? A. Sputum culture B. Chest radiograph C. Sputum ...
• The critical care nurse is caring for a client with an arterial line. The nurse ...
• Tuberculosis is a contagious disease. How can someone catch tuberculosis? A. through someone who sneezed ...
• PaO2 95 SaO2 100 pH 7.30 PaCO2 40 HCO3 18 A. Respiratory Acidosis B. Respiratory ...
• A 60-year-old smoker complains of a chronic productive cough with yellow sputum. Physical examination shows ...
• deficiency of oxygen in the blood A. hypoxia B. hypoxemia C. hypercapnia D. asphyxia
• Does tuberculosis bacteria spread to many different parts of the body? A. Always B. Never ...
• Air and blood in the pleural cavity is called: A. paracentesis B. pleuropneumonia C. pneumohemothorax ...
• What is the most common cause of CAP? A. Staphylococcus Aureus B. Haemophilus Influenzae ...
• Hyperventilation is the state of ventilation in which the lungs remove carbon dioxide faster than ...
• PaO2 90 SaO2 95 pH 7.48 PaCO2 32 HCO3 24 A. Respiratory Acidosis B. Respiratory ...
• Anoxia means: A. breathing that is deeper than normal B. deficiency of oxygen C. increased ...
• Lymph is a colorless or faintly yellow fluid that helps remove waste, toxins, and other ...
• Thrombocytes aid in _________. A. Immune surveillance B. Destroying pathogens C. Coagulation D. The inflammatory ...
• Which type of immunity is considered short-term and comes from antibodies produced by a body ...
• Which type of immunity are you born with? A. acquired immunity B. Natural immunity ...
• ________ is a combining form that means red. A. Hemat/o B. Leuk/p C. Kary/o ...
• __________ is a prefix that means self. A. -penia B. anti- C. auto- D. meta- ...
• Erythrocytes are small, round, biconcave cells that transport oxygen and carbon dioxide through the blood. ...
• Lymph differs from blood in that it does not contain erythrocytes or ___________. A. Thrombocytes ...
• Erthyrocytes are white blood cells that come in a variety of shapes and sizes. ...
• ____________ is a combining form that means bone marrow; spinal cord. A. Myel/o B. Erythr/o ...
• Which type of immunity is developed after exposure to a disease or vaccine? A. Natural ...
• ________ is a suffix that means formation A. -poeisis B. -oma C. -penia D. -phage ...
• Thrombocytes are irregularly shaped cell fragments that aid in coagulation (blood clotting). A. TRUE ...
• A medical term that can be used to describe platelets is ___________. A. lymphocytes ...
• Which body system serves to protect your body against infection and disease and is not ...
• __________ is a suffix that means deficiency. A. ly/o B. immun/o C. -oma D. -penia ...
• Enteral formula containing predigested nutrients and provides proteins in the form of small peptides ...
• A condition that results in a gastric residual volume of more than 150 ml ...
• Condition that requires the highest energy demands in surgery A. Major surgery B. Major trauma ...
• Part of the gastrointestinal tract responsible for absorption of carbohydrates and half of the proteins ...
• Based on ESPEN guidelines, the number of hours allowed for patients to eat solid food ...
• Primary nutrition goal in surgery A. Faster recovery B. Improve clinical outcome and restore function ...
• Metabolic disturbances that occur as a result of reinstitution of nutrition to patients who are ...
• Muscles checked for subtle sign of malnutrition are: A. Triceps and biceps muscles B. Gastrocnemius ...
• The process of identifying patients who are either malnourished or at risk for developing malnutrition ...
• Diagnostic examination used to determine nutritional status of a patient; prognostic indicator in surgery ...
• Preferred route for nutrition in surgery A. Oral route B. Parenteral route C. Enteral route ...
• Continuous infusion of hyperosmolar solution containing carbohydrates, proteins, fats and other necessary nutrients through an ...
• Fuel source of the brain in prolonged fasting A. Ketones B. Nitrates C. Carbohydrates ...
• Primary fuel source of the body A. Vitamins and minerals B. Ketones C. Carbohydrates ...
• Number of hours for stored carbohydrates to be depleted A. 8 hours B. 12 hours ...
• When the left ventricle contracts, the ____________ valve opens. A. aortic B. bicuspid C. tricuspid ...
• Which structures contain deoxygenated blood? A. Pulmonary veins and right ventricle B. Superior vena cava ...
• Atria contract, pushing blood into the ventricles. A. Cardiac diastole B. Atrial systole, ventricular diastole ...
• The ___ side of the heart receives blood from the lungs and it is ______. ...
• Which of the following paths correctly orders blood flow through the systemic circuit of the ...
• Prevents blood movement from left ventricle to left atrium A. Tricuspid valve B. Bicuspid valve ...
• What is the function of the right atrium? A. Receives blood from the systemic circuit ...
• What is the proper path of a drop of blood through the vascular system, starting ...
• An obstruction in the pulmonary artery would cause an immediate increase in blood pressure which ...
• The circulation of blood to and from the lungs is know as A. systemic circulation ...
• Distributes blood to body parts A. vena cava B. aorta C. pulmonary vein D. brachial ...
• Inner lining of heart chamber A. Myocardium B. Endocardium C. Epicardium
• The ___ side of the heart receives blood from the body and it is ___________. ...
• The Systemic Loop Goes All Over the Body A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The pumping cycle begins when oxygen deprived blood returns from the body through the _______________ ...
• All chambers are relaxed, and blood flows into the heart. A. Atrial systole, ventricular diastole ...
• The purpose of heart valves is to A. set the pace at which the heart ...
• The oxygen rich blood flows back to the heart via the __________________________________. A. pulmonary artery ...
• After the atria relax, the ventricles contract, pushing blood out of the heart. A. Cardiac ...
• Which heart chamber is more muscular and why? A. The left ventricle requires more muscle ...
• Strong, fibrous strings that attach to the cusps of the tricuspid valve on the ventricular ...
• The muscular middle layer of the heart is called the A. epicardium B. myocardium ...
• The _________ PUMPS blood to the lungs. A. Right Atrium B. Right Ventricle C. Left ...
• This vessel carries blood to the lungs A. Pulmonary veins B. Pulmonary arteries C. Aorta ...
• The process of removing dead skin from a burn is called? This is the 1st ...
• What is the difference between benign and malignant tumors? A. Benign tumors are not life ...
• This type of Skin Cancer is the most curable A. Basal Cell Carcinoma B. Squamous ...
• When diagnosing melanoma, which of the following does B stand for in ABCD? A. bigger ...
• What is the most painful type of burn? A. First-degree burns, because the outer skin ...
• A first degree burn appears A. blistered B. red C. through several layers D. with ...
• When diagnosing melanoma, which of the following does C stand for in ABCD? A. color ...
• The rule of _________ is used to calculate the percentage of body surface burned. ...
• Which treatment would not be needed for a superficial 2nd degree burn? A. Covering ...
• Skin can regenerate after most second degree burns because A. The dermis is loaded with ...
• Which type of cancer is shown in this picture? ...
• Which is the most common skin cancer? A. Basal Cell Carcinoma B. Squamous Cell Carcinoma ...
• Which type of Skin Cancer is shown here? ...
• A First Degree Burn damages which layer of the skin? A. Hypodermis B. Dermis ...
• Which type of Skin Cancer is most likely shown in this picture?
• This degree of burn causes blistering of the skin. A. First Degree Burn B. Second ...
• Blackened skin, caused by some type of burn or other skin problem is A. convulsions ...
• Why can you often not feel third-degree burns? A. Because they severely damage the nerve ...
• Sebaceous glands A. grape-shaped collections of cells with a common duct that surround hair follicles ...
• Sweat is a means by what A. by which the hypothalamus can induce a degree ...
• True or False: Hair shafts rise from epidermal follicles and are not found in thick ...
• What are hair shafts composed of? A. layers of keratin surrounded by layers of follicular ...
• Sweat glands A. coiled tubular glands in the deep dermis B. grape-shaped collections of cells ...
• Pegs A. Has a strong attachment to the basement membrane and contains vessels, nerve endings, ...
• Sweat glands- the cells produce: A. sweat, a filtrate of plasma B. tears, a filtrate ...
• What has a more sense fibrous character A. Reticular layer B. Papillary layer C. Follicular ...
• Sebum A. coats the skin and hairs, providing a degree of waterproofing B. coats the ...
• The upper or most superficial layer of the dermis A. papillary layer, characterized by a ...
• What constitutes sebum? A. the secretary product and cell debris B. keratin C. hair shafts ...
• How do the sweat glands traverse the epidermis A. by spiraling around the keratinocytes and ...
• What is a sign of increased vigilance A. hair standing on end in mammals ...
• What does the dermis consist of? A. a fibrous connective tissue supporting arteries and veins, ...
• What results in burst cells A. continued lipid engorgement B. continued muscle engorgement C. continued ...
• Arrector pili muscle A. an obliquely placed bundle of smooth muscle attached to the outer ...
• a resident has a lower denture, the person needs which of the following: A. sponge ...
• you should assume an unconscious patient can: A. hear you B. see you C. respond ...
• A resident wants to brush his teeth before lunch what should you do? A. help ...
• to clean a residents lower dentures you need to: A. line the sink with a ...
• a patient receiving oxygen therapy needs frequent oral care because of: A. dry mouth ...
• when giving oral hygiene you need to wear: A. gloves B. gown C. mask ...
• Infants do not need oral hygiene until the first tooth erupts? A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Oral hygiene does which of the following? A. Increases oral pain B. decreases the ability ...
• flossing removes: A. cavities B. enamel C. food from between teeth D. food from the ...
• Flossing begins: A. when 2 baby teeth touch B. when all permanent teeth have erupted ...
• a patient needs oral hygiene, the nurse and care plan tell you which of the ...
• the unconscious person is at risk for: A. periodontal disease B. plaque C. tartar ...
• a resident has the following oral hygiene equipment, which should you report to the nurse? ...
• a resident uses a cleaning agent for his dentures. when using the cleaning agent you ...
• what should you do with dentures when a patient takes them out for sleep: ...
• when removing lower dentures for a patient use: A. gauze squares B. a washcloth ...
• how do you position an unconscious patient to do oral hygiene: A. Fowler's position ...
• a resident flosses once a day, when is the best time to floss? A. in ...
• to give mouth care to an unconscious you need to use: A. toothbrush B. mouthwash ...
• to keep the unconscious person's mouth open during oral care you need to use: ...
• when flossing teeth the floss is moved? A. left to right B. right to left ...
• you finish brushing a patient's teeth what should you do next? A. let the person ...
• Inflammation of tissues around the teeth: A. periodontal disease B. plaque C. oral hygiene ...
• before using a sponge swab you need to: A. check the care plan B. make ...
• Which statement about dentures is correct: A. they are slippery when wet B. they are ...
• when flossing you should: A. move to a new section of floss after every second ...
• when flossing a person's teeth you need to: A. use sponge swabs B. break off ...
• when brushing an unconscious person's teeth you: A. position the brush at a 45 degree ...
• label a patients denture cup with their name and: A. room and bed number ...
• flossing is usually done: A. before breakfast B. after each meal C. after brushing teeth ...
• What are the bones of the feet called? A. Sternum B. Metacarpals C. Metatarsals ...
• The bone between your abdomen and your thighs A. Patella B. Pelvis C. Carpal ...
• What is another name for your knee cap? A. Phalanges B. Patella C. Cranium
• What is the bone in your lower arm on your pinky side? A. Ulna ...
• What is the larger bone in the lower leg called? A. Ulna B. Tibia ...
• What are the bones of the ankle called? A. Tarsals B. Carpals C. Radius
• What is another name for your shoulder blade? A. Sternum B. Scapula C. Ribs ...
• What is the name of the bones in your fingers and toes? A. Patella ...
• What is the bone in the upper arm? A. Hunger B. Hammer C. Humerus ...
• What is the bone in the middle of your chest? A. Scapula B. Sandcastle ...
• What is the name of your bone in your thigh? It is also the largest ...
• The purpose of the bones is to support the body, protect organs and tissues, store ...
• The bones in the hand are called....? A. Metacarpals B. Metatarsals C. Ulna
• What is another name for the skull? A. Cranium B. Crayons C. Mandible
• What is the bone in your lower arm on your thumb side? A. Ulna ...
• The bones are in the wrist are called....? A. Metacarpals B. Carpals C. Tarsals ...
• What is the smaller bone in the lower leg? A. Tibia B. Fibula C. Carpal ...
• What are the bones in the middle of your torso that protect your organs? ...
• Why does the blood turn dark red as it circulates through the body? A. Because ...
• As a general rule, what type of blood vessels carry oxygenated blood? A. Arteries ...
• The semilunar valves are the: A. Aortic and pulmonary B. Pulmonary and Tricuspid C. Aortic ...
• What vessels carry deoxygenated blood away from the heart? A. Neither coronary arteries or pulmonary ...
• The large blood vessel that returns blood to the right atrium is called the: ...
• What is the function of a valve? A. Helps blood to clot B. Keeps blood ...
• When blood exits the left ventricle, it must go through which valve? A. Aortic ...
• The area of the heart that divides the right and left ventricles is called the: ...
• ___ takes place when oxygen-rich blood travels to all body tissues except the lungs. ...
• ___ takes place when blood travels from the heart, through the lungs, and back to ...
• Oxygen is released to the tissues through what type of blood vessel? A. Artery ...
• Rank the following blood vessels in order of their average pressure, from highest to lowest: ...
• Excessive movement of fluid from the pulmonary vascular system to the extravascular system and air ...
• Cor-Pulmonale describes right sided heart failure and is caused by chronic pulmonary disease A. TRUE ...
• The most common cause of cardiac pulmonary edema is left sided heart failure, commonly known ...
• Two major categories of Pulmonary Edema A. Cardiogenic and Noncardiogenic B. Noncardiogenic and Vascular ...
• Pulomnary Edema includes ? EXCEPT A. FWS(frothy white secretions) B. IE( interstitial edema) C. RBC( ...
• Normal ejection fraction is____, but can fall as low as 20% in severe cases ...
• in CHF over time it decreases the compliance of the ventricle and reduces the pumping ...
• In Pulmonary Edema fluid that accumulates in the tracheobronchial tree is turned into a frothy ...
• interstitial edema occurs when fluid leaks out of the pulmonary capillaries and into the interstitium. ...
• Pulmonary Edema is a _____ disorder A. restrictive B. non restrictive C. non life threatning ...
• Primary right sided heart failure rarely leads to left heart failure, but left heart failure ...
• Increased surface tension leads to collapsed alveoli or difficulty opening the alveoli A. TRUE ...
• In pulmonary edema, the alveoli become filled with fluid A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Congestive heart failure- Right sided heart failure A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Can washing your hands before you eat wash away germs keeping you healthy? A. TRUE ...
• Is a healthy person someone who gets many diseases? A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Do foods that are unhealthy such as hamburgers and french fries contain a lot of ...
• Is your brain part of the circulatory system or the system in which blood moves ...
• Are blood vessels part of the body that allow a person to hear sounds? ...
• Is a jelly bean more nutritious than an apple? A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Are most of the organs of your body on the outside where we can see ...
• Is the heart an important muscle that pumps blood throughout your body? A. TRUE ...
• Does a chair support your body when you sit in it? A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Does a complicated recipe have only one step and is it very easy to follow? ...
• Is digestion the process that breaks down food into a form the body can use? ...
• Do messages travel back and forth from the brain to other parts of the body ...
• Are the muscles in a person's hand voluntary meaning you can choose to move them?  ...
• Is the skeleton the frame that supports the body and is made up of bones? ...
• Does the human body have many systems, such as the digestive system, circulatory system, nervous ...
• These blood vessels take oxygenated blood to the body cells. A. heart B. artery ...
• Produced by B cells and designed to mark antigens to be destroyed. A. Antigens ...
• There are more than one type of blood cell. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The purpose of the immune system is to: A. Help germs invade your body ...
• The system that sends electrical signals to the heart that tell it to beat. ...
• The system that delivers oxygen and gets rid of carbon dioxide. A. respiratory B. skeletal ...
• Produces antibodies to fight the antigen and marks the antigen A. Macraphage B. T Cells ...
• The system that makes white blood cells. A. lymphatic B. respiratory C. nervous D. digestive ...
• Small blood vessels that diffuse oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nutrients. A. heart B. arteries ...
• White blood cells are the main cells of the immune system.  Where are they produced? ...
• A chromosomal disorder in which a fragment of a chromosome is repited is: A. A ...
• Using humans as subjects for genetic experiments is difficult because: A. We can arrange crosses ...
• Tumours that can migrate to other parts of he body are called: A. Mutations ...
• Genes found in the sex chromosomes produce illnesses called: A. Sex-linked disorders B. Inheritance influenced ...
• When a female is heterozygous for a recessive sex-linked disorder, she: A. Is a carrier ...
• Female gametes in humans are: A. X B. XX C. Y D. X and Y ...
• Genes found in the autosomes that have different degrees of dominance depending on the sex ...
• Male gametes in humans are: A. X B. XX C. Y D. X and Y ...
• Hair colour is an example of a character that is: A. Acquired B. Hereditary ...
• A chromosomal disorder in which it happens a loss of a chromosomal fragment is: ...
• A chromosomal disorder in which an exchange of fragments between chromosomes is produced is: ...
• The recessive allele in blood type in humans is: A. A B. AB C. B ...
• Characters used to cathegorize members of a species into different groups are: A. Discontinuous ...
• A. Epilepsy B. Meningitis C. Bone joint inflammation D. Pot's spine
• In context with tuberculosis term for redness is A. edema B. erythema C. inflammation ...
• Which of the following enhances immune system response but binds with the antigen or immunogen? ...
• The kind of interferons produced by macrophages during granuloma formation is A. Interferon alpha ...
• T cell interacts with APCs in .................... in ..................... A. Follicle, Spleen B. PALS, Spleen ...
• Immunoglubulins having the most antigen binding sites A. IgA B. IgM C. IgE D. IgD ...
• Chemicals released by the Helper (Th) cell is called A. MHC 2 B. Interleukin ...
• what is not true about APC? A. activate T helper cells B. APCs include macrophages, ...
• Tuberculin might be used for? A. As a medicine to cure Anthrax B. As a ...
• Activation of naïve T lymphocytes is best achieved by which antigen presenting cells? A. Macrophages ...
• CD4 cells are also called as A. NK cells B. Suppressor T cells C. Cytotoxic ...
• Which of the following is a cure for Tuberculosis? A. Capecitabine B. Rice C. Cyclophosphamide ...
• Vaccines are produced from killed or weakened A. phagocytes B. pathogens C. helper T cells ...
• Which of the following immunogens are somewhat less potent? A. Proteins B. Glycolipids C. Carbohydrates ...
• Which is the major immunoglobulin in terms of concentration A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM ...
• How are infectious diseases spread? A. through coughing, sneezing, or physical contact B. through contaminated ...
• If a patient reports with positive skin test with no persistent cough, he is having ...
• Many countries have started to use the __________________ vaccine in order to stop the development ...
• Which of the following cell types is not considered a professional antigen-presenting cell? A. macrophage ...
• Which of the following is not the constituent of cell wall of Mycobacterium. A. Arabinose ...
• Which of the following is one of the constituent of Lowenstein Jensen's Medium. A. Malachite ...
• Which of the following species is the example of Photochromogens. A. M.aquae B. M. avium ...
• One difference between viruses and bacteria is that viruses A. cannot reproduce on their own ...
• Immunoglobulins: most abundant in tears A. IgA B. IgM C. IgE D. IgD E. IgG ...
• Which of the following is NOT a symptom of tuberculosis? A. Coughing B. Fever ...
• What are the names of the structures A. ...
• Cytosolic antigens are usually presented on ........... A. MHC I B. MHC II C. MHC ...
• Which one of the following blood components helps it to clot when the skin is ...
• The process whereby a person receives blood is called blood ... A. transgression B. diffusion ...
• What is the function of the valves in the heart? A. To separate the chambers ...
• Which of the following does NOT describe the veins? A. Thin walls B. Thick walls ...
• Which of the following blood groups is known as a universal recipient? A. A ...
• Which one of the following is NOT a blood group? A. A B. O ...
• A biker of blood type O was in a serious accident; he lost a lot ...
• Which component in blood carries oxygen around the body? A. Red blood cells B. White ...
• Define fainting? A. Is it circulation problem caused when tissue doesn't receive enough oxygenated blood ...
• True or false shock can be life threatening? A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Sometimes ...
• If someone has fainted, ... A. lift your friend's legs off the ground a little, ...
• How to treat a nosebleed? A. Sit down and pour a warm water on your ...
• The following is NOT a sign or symptom of fainting? A. Pale or sweaty ...
• When children experience epistaxis, we can observe that there is _________. A. a steady ...
• To stop shock you should? A. Call 911 B. Treat the underlying cause C. Place ...
• What is shock? A. When you meet your celebrity crush in person. B. Is it ...
• Which of these factors that cause nosebleeds are directly within our control? A. physical ...
• What most often happens when 1. Standing long without moving 2. Suddenly stands after ...
• Which of these options help treat a nosebleed? A. applying a cold compress on ...
• Which is NOT a reason someone might faint? A. Fear, anxiety, fatigue, hunger B. Severe ...
• Which of these causes of a nosebleed are within our control? A. allergies ...
• What are the signs/symptoms of shock? A. Blue lips, clamy skin, feeling nauseous B. A ...
• Cold, clammy skin combined with rapid breathing and pale skin may all be signs of ...
• A. a nosebleed B. a broken leg ...
• What can cause shock? A. Any injury or illness B. Finding out that you are ...
• What is the function of the Bronchioles A. It's are a type of Dinosaur ...
• What is the function of the Diaphragm A. Muscle for respiration B. Unflattened pizza ...
• What is the function of the Trachea A. Fillters the blood out B. Let's air ...
• What is the function of the Bronchi A. They are infinte braches of the trachea ...
• When you breathe, your lungs take in ___ and release ___. A. air/oxygen ...
• What are bronchi? A. connects the brain and spinal cord B. number of protons ...
• Which of the following is a part of the respiratory system? A. lungs B. stomach ...
• What type of cells carry oxygen? A. red blood cells B. white blood cells ...
• What is the function of the Pharyx A. Let's the air down the airway ...
• What is the function of the Alveoli A. It's a name for a muscle ...
• What is the function of The Respiratory System A. A way of breathing B. Brings ...
• The larynx is also known as the... A. Voice box B. Passage to the lungs ...
• What is the pharynx? A. Outward physical appearance B. Tube-like passage way for air, ...
• The air sacs that are covered with capillaries where gas exchange takes place are found ...
• What is a diaphragm? A. Muscle beneath the lungs that contacts and relaxes to move ...
• What is the funtion of the Nose and Mouth A. Is used to sneeze ...
• What is the function of the Lungs A. Allows oxygen to be draw into the ...
• A. esophogus B. bronchi C. trachea D. alveoli
• What is the function of the Larynx A. Another name for mouth B. A type ...
• DNA is replicated during ______ of the cell cycle. A. G1 B. S C. G2 ...
• Cells need to produce new cells in order to... A. replace cells that have died. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a reason we need mitosis. A. Growth B. Recovering ...
• Which of the following is not a part of interphase? A. G2 B. M ...
• During interphase, a cell grows, dublicates organelles, and... A. copies DNA B. divides the nucleus ...
• A cell produces more cells by first copying its... A. centioles B. DNA C. chromatids ...
• The cell carries out normal functions during.. A. interphase B. cytokinesis C. mitosis
• What are the life stages of a cell called? A. cell cycle B. mitosis ...
• A. cytokinesis. B. the first stage of the eukaryotic cell cycle. C. the third stage of ...
• What does NOT happen during interphase? A. growth B. DNA replication  C. obtaining nutrients ...
• What is the division of cytoplasm called? A. chromosome B. mitosis C. cytokinesis D. the ...
• Cells spend the majority of their lifes in A. interphase B. M C. S ...
• Stage in which the cells nuclear material divides and seperates A. G1 B. Synthesis ...
• What is the structure in which DNA, hereditary material that controls cell activities, can be ...
• Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle? A. Mitosis-> G1->S->G2->cytokinesis ...
• Which of the following statements is true of cytokinesis A. takes place in plant cells ...
• The synthesis (S) phase is characterized by A. cell division B. the division of cytoplasm ...
• The part of the cell cycle that divides the cytoplasm of the cell A. Synthesis ...
• the uncontrolled division of cells that results in malignant growth  A. tissues B. cancer ...
• In which stage of the cell cycle is the cell preparing for division?  A. G1 ...
• A distinct structure made up of at least 2 different types of tissues A. Tissue ...
• cube shaped cells A. Neuron B. columnar epithelial cells C. cuboidal epithelial cells D. squamous ...
• Muscles attached to the bones that control voluntary movements A. Skeletal muscle tissue B. Smooth ...
• A group of similar cells that perform the same function A. Organ B. Tissue ...
• flat cells A. squamous epithelial cells B. neuron C. cuboidal epithelial cells D. columnar epithelial ...
• Supports, protects, insulates, transports, and bind other tissues together A. Muscle Tissue B. Nervous Tissue ...
• Make up nervous system organs that control communication and regulation A. Epithelial Tissue B. Muscle ...
• muscles of the heart that involuntarily contract to propel blood into circulation throughout the body ...
• Secreting internally A. Exocrine B. Endocrine C. Exocytosis D. Endocytosis
• Tightly packed cells working together to allow contractions that cause movement A. Muscle Tissue ...
• Muscles that involuntarily propel substances or objects along internal passageways A. Skeletal muscle tissue ...
• Highly specialized nerve cells that make up nervous tissue and generate and conduct nerve impulses ...
• One or more cells that create and secrete different products A. Organ B. Tissue ...
• tall and column shaped A. squamous epithelial cells B. columnar epithelial cells C. neurons ...
• Covers body surfaces and lines body cavities to form boundaries as well as protect, absorb ...
• secreting externally A. Exocrine B. Endocrine C. Exocytosis D. Endocytosis
• What is the effect of hypotonic solution to bacterial cell? A. shrink B. burst ...
• Which microbes use Carbon as a source of energy? A. photoheterotrophs and photoautotrophs ...
• growth occurs in high concentrations of oxygen (top of tube) A. obligate aerobes B. facultative ...
• Which microbes use organic compounds for energy (fats, proteins and carbs)? A. photoautotrophs and chemoautotrophs ...
• Microorganism that requires light energy and gains nutrients via catabolism of organic compounds (fats, carbs, ...
• Which microbes use sunlight as a source of energy? A. photoheterotrophs and photoautotrophs B. chemoheterotrophs ...
• Bacteria that obtain their carbon source from carbon dioxide (inorganic compounds) are called? A. Chemotrophs ...
• Bacteria that are able to get their carbon source from organic compounds (carbs, fats, proteins)are ...
• Microbes that grow better without oxygen, but grow slowly when in the presence of oxygen. ...
• The chemical growth requirements essential for bacterial growth are ...? A. Water, carbon, Nitrogen & ...
• Which term best describes a bacteria that can't exist in the presence of oxygen? ...
• Which group of organisms will use/ prefers oxygen if it is present, but can survive ...
• When a cell is placed in a hypertonic environment, water  A. moves out of the ...
• Microbial growth is A. Increase in cell size, not number of cells B. Increase in ...
• Which microbes use inorganic compounds for energy (sodium, magnesium, oxygen etc.)? A. photoheterotrophs and chemoheterotrophs ...
• Organism that manually obtain their C and energy from the chemicals, preferably organic compounds ...
• Microorganisms that take up carbon (a chemical) from their organic energy source (fats, carbs, proteins). ...
• Which of the following is the first step to take to control a bleeding leg ...
• You notice that blood has soaked through the dressing and bandage. You would do this ...
• Define hemorrhage? A. uncontrollable bleeding B. sudden death C. heart attack
• small vessels that carries oxygen to the body cells A. artery B. vein C. capillary ...
• What is the easiest way to control external bleeding? A. band aid B. Direct Pressure ...
• What does it mean when a person is hemorrhaging? A. sudden excessive blood loss in ...
• This type of bleeding occurs inside the body with various organs and tissues . . ...
• signs and symptoms associated with inadequate supply of blood to body organs A. shock ...
• What is the first step in the process for bleeding control? A. Apply direct pressure ...
• To stop external bleed you should A. open wound B. apply pressure directly to the ...
• When preparing to provide first aid care for a bleeding patient, which of the following ...
• Which of the types of bleeding requires very little attention? A. arterial bleeding B. capillary ...
• Carry blood away from heart; mostly oxygen-rich A. Arteries B. Veins C. Capillaries
• What's the best way to stop bleeding of wounds to the extremities? A. Bend the ...
• If bleeding does not slow or come to a stop with pressure, a tourniquet will ...
• You are with a patient who is bleeding from his leg. You determine it is ...
• How might a person look when they are experiencing shock? A. Panic B. Sweaty ...
• Carry blood toward heart; mostly oxygen-poor A. Arteries B. Veins C. Capillaries
• When should you use Hemostatic dressing? A. On any and every open wound B. When ...
• What are the functions of the blood? A. Transfer oxygen Protect against diseases and ...
• What type of bleeding produces bright red blood spurts with each heartbeat? A. arterial bleeding ...
• Of the following, which is an example of capillary bleeding? A. A paper cut ...
• External Bleeding A. happens inside the body B. Happens outside the body, you can see ...
• Pressure on the wound should slow the bleeding A. TRUE B. FALSE
• When your patient demonstrates signs of internal bleeding, you should NOT do which of the ...
• These are the signs and symptoms of shock. A. confusion, High heart rate, low blood ...
• This type of shock is when the heart cannot pump the blood effectively because the ...
• Which of the following bone is known as a irregular bone? A. patella B. bone ...
• Which of the following bones is NOT part of the eye socket? A. Frontal ...
• What does the word articulate mean? A. join together B. seperate C. pull apart ...
• Which spine is shown in picture? A. hunchback ...
• What causes a scoliosis in the spine? A. sleeping in the wrong position B. lifting ...
• How many bones are in the cerival spine (neck)? A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 ...
• Which suture seperates the frontal bone from the parietal bone? A. sagittal suture B. coronal ...
• Which of the following is a facial bone? A. temporal bone B. mastoid process ...
• What is the function of the intervertebral disc? The disc in between the vertebrae? ...
• Which of the following is NOT a facial bone? A. zygomatic B. maxillae C. lacrimal ...
• What is the anatomy term of the Big Toe? A. Pollex B. Hallux C. Atlas ...
• Which ribs are know as True Ribs? A. 1-7 B. 7-11 C. 11-12 D. 13-16 ...
• Which of the following is used to treat a scoliosis? A. wearing a brace ...
• Which bone is know as a flat bone? A. vertebrae B. bone in the wrist ...
• Which suture seperates the left and right parietal bones? A. coronal suture B. sagittal suture ...
• Which of the following is NOT a bone of the sternum? A. manubrium B. sternal ...
• Which bone is known as a short bone? A. patella B. humerus C. femur ...
• Which of the following bones is considered a long bone? A. bone in the wrist ...
• Which suture seperates the parietal bone from the occipital bone? A. squamous suture B. lambdoid ...
• Which of the following is NOT a cranial bone? A. temporal B. vomer C. sphenoid ...
• What do CD4+ helper cells do? A. regulate both innate and adaptive immunity B. regulate ...
• What are infected cells? A. MHC expresses some pathogen peptides B. LCM expresses some pathogen ...
• What antigen-specific T cell attaches to class II MHC? A. CD4+ helper T lymphocytes ...
• Explain memory cells? A. for rapid response to re-exposure B. cell-mediated immunity or humoral response ...
• What antigens are NOT present in class I? A. HLA-A B. HLA-B C. HLA-C ...
• What is phagocytosis? A. microbes that are engulfed by phagocytes which destroys, removes, confines antigens ...
• What antigens are NOT in class II A. HLA-DR B. HLA-DP C. HLA-DQ D. HLA-DT ...
• What is antigen presentation? A. antigen fragments, cell peptides or epitope sequences that are loaded ...
• When in doubt choose... A. A B. B C. C D. D
• Explain effector cells? A. cell-mediated immunity or humoral response B. rapid response to re-exposure
• What is the worst subject? A. physiology B. quant skills C. genes D. immune & ...
• Define class I MHC A. defines self on all nucleated cells, presentation of extracellular pathogens ...
• T or F. T cells require presentation of linear epitope sequences following Ag processing ...
• What are normal cells? A. MHC proteins contain self peptide B. MHC proteins contain self ...
• What is the colour of the sun? A. white B. yellow C. orange D. big ...
• What are NOT the first cells in an infectious encounter? A. dendritic cells B. T ...
• What antigen-specific T cell attaches to class I MHC? A. CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes ...
• What do CD8+ cells do? A. migrate to the site of infection and target cells ...
• Define class II MHC A. mostly restricted to pAPCs, presentation of extracellular pathogens B. always ...
• The purpose of translation is to – A. create new organelles and recycle old ones. ...
• Which of the following is the best explanation of the process of translation? A. An ...
• The process of synthesizing RNA from DNA is known as – A. translation. B. transcription. ...
• DNA is _____________ stranded. A. quadruple B. double C. single D. triple
• A codon chart is provided. A. AAUUUC ...
• A defective protein can be produced by a cell when a mutation has which of ...
• Which of the following stages is the first step during the process of transcription? ...
• An animal leaves its footprint in wet mud, and later, when the mud dries, the ...
• A codon chart is provided. What amino acid sequence was created by the following strand ...
• The environment has the greatest effect on the expression of genes when which of the ...
• DNA replication occurs just before A. translation B. mitosis C. transcription D. respiration
• Sickle cell anemia is a disease in which red blood cells become irregularly shaped. The ...
• Students are modeling how genes produce proteins by using wooden tiles with letters to ...
• Which of the following is the most complete and accurate description of mutation? A. Three ...
• Telomerase... A. is responsible for rebuilding telomeres B. is responsible for breaking down telomeres ...
• DNA replication turns one strand of DNA into two new strands of DNA. What percent ...
• How are the centromere and telomere different? A. The centromere is the center of the ...
• How can mutations affect proteins? A. A change in the DNA sequence will affect the ...
• How is facial tumor disease spread between Tasmanian devils? A. biting B. virally passed on ...
• Why does DNA replication have to occur? A. So that it can fix any mistakes ...
• Sometimes, DNA is called semi-conservative. Why might this be? A. The old strand is conserved ...
• What are two potential contributing factors that may lead to high rates of cancer in ...
• The Hayflick limit involves A. the size a cell can reach before dividing B. a ...
• In a healthy cell, if p53 identifies a mutation in the DNA of a cell ...
• What gene is often mutated to become inactive which can lead to cancers? A. p57 ...
• How many more copies of p53 gene do elephants have compared to humans? A. 2 ...
• What is the relationship between cancer rates and the body mass of animals?
• What happens first in DNA replication? A. The molecule twists tightly B. The molecule unwinds ...
• The _____ nervous system initiates skeletal muscle movement, whereas the _____ nervous system regulates the ...
• The neurons in the spinal cord are part of the _____ nervous system. A. central ...
• Sensory information is best described as _____ information. A. afferent B. efferent C. internal ...
• The peripheral nervous system transmits information between the _____ and the _____. A. central nervous ...
• Parkinson’s disease motor symptoms are most commonly associated with A. an excessive amount of dopamine ...
• A major function of the somatic nervous system is to A. carry neural messages between ...
• A major function of the spinal cord is to A. protect the spinal column. ...
• The two major divisions of the central nervous system are the _____ and the two ...
• The division of the nervous system that is generally self-regulating is called the _____ nervous ...
• The substantia nigra is located in the _____ region of the brain. A. midbrain ...
• Sensory pathways carry information to the _____ and motor pathways carry information from the _____ ...
• An important role of an axon is to A. carry a neural message towards a ...
• The single projection from a neuron’s soma is the A. dendrite B. axon C. collaterals. ...
• Jana was diagnosed with paraplegia after a horse riding accident and can no longer walk. ...
• The ______ carries a neural message within a neuron. A. soma B. action potential ...
• The _____ nervous system automatically restores bodily systems to their normal level of functioning after ...
• A neurotransmitter will have its effect when it A. reaches an axon terminal. B. binds ...
• Which of the following bodily functions results from parasympathetic nervous system action? A. increased salivation ...
• You are working quietly in the library when a friend sneaks up from behind and ...
• A mosquito lands on your arm. You watch it carefully then move your hand to ...
• The autonomic nervous system A. controls movements of skeletal muscles. B. initiates movements of skeletal ...
• A synapse is A. a neural connection. B. a type of neurotransmitter. C. the place ...
• What are the two main types of earwax? A. dry and sticky B. extra sticky, ...
• What are two other names for the outer ear? A. Pinna and Auricle B. Cochlea ...
• What is NOT the parts of the ear? A. Outer ear B. Vestibule C. Middle ...
• Where is the eardrum located? A. Outer ear B. middle ear C. inner ear ...
• What causes the eardrum to vibrate and produce sound? A. Nerve signals B. Sound waves ...
• What does the ear canal do? A. Creates ear wax and Channels sounds from outside ...
• What creates the ear wax? A. Vestibular canal B. Renal Canal C. Ear canal ...
• What two parts make up the inner ear? A. pinna and eustachian tube B. incus ...
• What do the hairs of the cochlea do? A. create nerve signals B. trap dirt ...
• What is the eardrum? A. Bundle of nerves B. a small muscle C. small bones ...
• What is the small curled tube filled with liquid and hairs called? A. vestibule ...
• Which part of the brain controls behaviour and decision-making? A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe ...
• During an activity you observed that your patient has difficulty catching or kicking a ball. ...
• Mr Raja has difficulty understanding much of what other people say and feel as though ...
• What is the major risk factor for stroke? A. Obesity B. Diabetes C. High blood ...
• What is the most common treatment for stroke? A. DASH B. Aerobic exercise C. Bed ...
• Aneurysm is what type of stroke A. hemorrhagic B. Ischemic C. Lacunar D. Brain stem ...
• A type of stroke where an emboli is dislodge from the heart and blocks the ...
• Why is proper positioning and handling important when facilitating patients during treatment? A. Increase stimulation ...
• Which steps would ensure proper positioning in a chair at rest? A. Place hands on ...
• If the left side is paralyzed, what part of the brain is oxygen-deficient? A. Both ...
• Germs produce substances called ________ which harm the enamel. A. pulp B. saliva C. cavities ...
• Fungi grow on _______ and __________ material. A. alive and smelly B. dead and rotting ...
• You have ___ kinds of teeth A. 8 B. 4 C. 2 D. 7
• The outer layer of the crown is made of a substance called __________. A. dentine ...
• Avoid fizzy drinks because they have acids in them A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Fungi cause skin problems such as ringworm and dandruff. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Disease-causing microbes are called acids. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Some microbes are useful to us, whereas some are harmful A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Avoid eating fruits and vegetables A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Wash your mouth after every meal. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• There are millions of big non things in the air, in water, in soil, and ...
• Bacteria, Fungi, Protozoa, and Viruses are the four kinds of microbes A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• When you eat, small bits of food get stuck between your teeth.If these bits of ...
• What is the other name of incisors? A. (Cutting Teeth) B. (Tearing Teeth) C. (Crushing ...
• The sharp and pointed teeth in your mouth is called __________. A. incisors B. canines ...
• Beneath the enamel is a layer of _________. A. germs B. water C. gum ...
• What is the other name of molars A. (Cutting Teeth) B. (Tearing Teeth) C. (Crushing ...
• What is the other name of premolars A. (Cutting Teeth) B. (Tearing Teeth) C. (Crushing ...
• Your teeth are located in the ___________. A. small intestine B. stomach C. mouth ...
• Drink plenty of milk and eat eggs and green leafy vegetables. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Viruses cause diseases like the ______________________. A. common cold, influenza, measles, mumps and polio ...
• By the time a child is three years old, he or she usually has ____ ...
• What is the other name of canines? A. (Cutting Teeth) B. (Tearing Teeth) C. (Crushing ...
• Bacteria are found everywhere.They are the most common living things on Earth.They are of different ...
• Protozoa live in wet places and in the bodies of plants and animals.Some of these ...
• Viruses are the ________ of all. A. hugest B. biggest C. tinniest D. smallest
• The part of the tooth that can be seen above the gum is called the ...
• Don't brush your teeth twice a day A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Harmful bacteria cause diseases such as typhoid and food poising.They also cause tooth decay ...
• Caused by interactions between multiple variant forms of genes and environmental factors A. Chromosomal Disorders ...
• Most severe form of Gaucher disease characterized by acute neuropathic form (infantile); progressive CNS involvement ...
• Results from an inherited defect in an extracellular glycoprotein called fibrillin-1 A. von Gierke ...
• All of the following statements are true, EXCEPT A. Mutations can interfere with gene expression ...
• Loss of one arm followed by the duplication of the two remaining arms of the ...
• The expression of the defect tends to be more uniform than in autosomal dominant disorders. ...
• A single mutant gene may lead to many end effects termed A. Codominance B. Pleiotropism ...
• Due to deficiency of enzyme that degrades GAGs A. Spingolipidoses B. Sulfatidoses C. Mucopolysaccharidoses ...
• Classification of LDL receptor mutation that affects the LDL-binding domain of the receptor; the encoded ...
• Disorder is transmitted by heterozygous females to their sons, who manifest the disease A. Autosomal ...
• Metabolic Autosomal Recessive Disorder include A. Thalassemia B. Cystic Fibrosis C. Both A and B ...
• Make up the largest category of Mendelian disorders. They occur when both alleles at a ...
• Enzyme defect consequence in a1-antitrypsin deficiency A. Accumulation of the substrate B. Metabolic block and ...
• Enzyme proteins are not affected in autosomal dominant disorders A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Manifested as early atherosclerosis and tendon xanthomas A. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome B. Familial Hypercolesterolemia C. Tay-Sachs ...
• The largest portion of the brain, is responsible for most of the brain's functions such ...