Sitemap 78

• A person who is HIV positive cannot spread the virus. A. TRUE B. ...
• What is the most unique characteristic of bacteria? A. Their shape B. Their ...
• What are the sticky string-like projections that bacteria use to cling to surfaces? A. ...
• Bacteria possess several pairs of chromosomes. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Viruses use their spikes or tail fibers to attach to phospholipids of the cell membrane. ...
• What is the gel-like covering that bacteria have which makes many antibiotics ineffective? A. ...
• Some bacteria have a gel-like covering called a _______which makes many antibiotics ineffective. A. ...
• Bacteria aid many animals in digestion. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• When a viral DNA attaches to the host cell's DNA it is called a ...
• When a person has a cold sore ( fever blister) the herpes virus is in ...
• What is the most important function of bacteria? A. acting as decomposers B. ...
• Viruses contain DNA or RNA but never both. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• What do viruses use to attach to the host's cell? A. flagella B. ...
• Which of these systems functions to protect and support vital organs? A. digestive ...
• On a class field trip, Zach took a walk through the woods using his senses. ...
• Cells need nutrients for energy. Which system is responsible for breaking down food to provide ...
• The respiratory system in the human body is shown in ...
• Blood absorbs oxygen in the A. heart. B. lungs. C. stomach. ...
• Agnes learned that the brain, spinal cord, and nerves work together. What do they combine ...
• The structures in the bodies of many organisms have levels of organization that help the ...
• Miranda learned how the human body carries out life functions. Which is the MOST basic ...
• Which structure refers to a group of specialized cells that all perform the same function? ...
• From simplest to most complicated, how are multicellular organisms organized? A. organ system, organ, ...
• Different systems of the human body perform different functions. Which system takes oxygen from the ...
• Which is a function of the respiratory system? A. to provide the body with ...
• The table describes four different organ systems in the ...
• Which is a feedback mechanism the human body uses to maintain homeostasis? A. copying ...
• How do the digestive system and the circulatory system work together in the human body? ...
• Which statement describes the organization of living organisms? A. All organisms are composed of ...
• Plants have cells, tissues, organs, and systems that allow them to function as complete organisms. ...
• What is one way the respiratory system and the circulatory system work together in the ...
• Which best explains why muscle is considered a tissue? A. It is connected to ...
• One system of the human body works along with the skeletal system by assisting movement ...
• Which cells help to destroy pathogens such as bacteria that enter the human body? ...
• The heart, blood vessels, kidneys, and bladder working together are best described as A. ...
• Which body system is most responsible for the removal of waste? A. skeletal system ...
• How are tissues and organs related? A. Groups of tissues form cells, which work ...
• Blood is a fluid made up of several different parts. What level of structural organization ...
• In humans, the digestion process begins in A. the intestine, with squeezing. B. ...
• Cells in the body are specialized to perform certain functions. ...
• When a multicellular organism is damaged, it will repair itself as A. it mutates. ...
• A diagram of a sponge is shown. Sponges ...
• Mitochondria are cell organelles that play a large role in energy processes within the body. ...
• What enzyme forms covalent bonds between restriction fragments? A. DNA primase B. DNA ...
• Which DNA tech is responsible for multiple copies of a gene? A. Gel electrophoresis ...
• Which fragments travel farther? A. Small B. Large
• At what temperature does the Extension step of PCR occur? A. 95°C B. ...
• What happens in the Denature step of PCR? A. The DNA nucleotides are broken ...
• At what temperature does the Anneal step of PCR occur? A. 95° C ...
• What happens during the Anneal step of PCR? A. Primers are created. B. ...
• Why does the DNA move towards positive end? A. Deoxyribose is negatively charged  ...
• A technique for making millions of copies of a specific region of DNA. A. ...
• What cuts the DNA prior to running gel electrophoresis? A. DNA polymerase B. ...
• Why does PCR require a specific type of polymerase? A. Taq polymerase can withstand ...
• Which DNA tech involves adding plasmid to prokaryote? A. Gel electrophoresis B. PCR ...
• Which use of biotechnology most benefits North Carolina agriculture? A. producing human vaccines ...
• Bacteria cells can be used to produce insulin for the treatment of diabetes in humans. ...
• Which is the primary purpose of using restriction enzymes in gel electrophoresis? A. It ...
• This is the practice of inserting the DNA of another species into an organism's DNA ...
• The unpaired nucleotides produced by the action of restriction ...
• An enzyme that cut DNA molecules at a specific “recognition site” is called A. ...
• Which suspect was at crime scene? ...
• What does PCR stand for? A. Place for cellular respiration B. Primase cytosine ...
• Which of the following best describes restriction enzymes? A. Enzymes that cut DNA ...
• In order to insert a human gene into plasmid, both must  A. code for ...
• Which DNA tech separates fragments by size/charge? A. Gel electrophoresis B. PCR ...
• What is the function of a primer? A. To identify the particular region of ...
• At what temperature does the Denature step of PCR occur? A. 95° C ...
• Which two bear species are most closely related? ...
• Which of the following describes the orientation of the DNA found in a run gel ...
• If one fragment was placed in the thermocycler for a PCR experiment, how many fragments ...
• In gel electrophoresis, the largest DNA fragment will appear ...
• Which of the following statement is true concerning transformation; A. Bacterial transformation involves the ...
• Which of the following describes why some bands are darker in a gel electrophoresis? ...
• Heat shock A. Trap the plasmids inside the cell. B. Enlarges the pores ...
• The process of changing the genetic material of a living organism  A. Genetic Modification ...
• Why do the fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis travel away from the negative electrode? ...
• LB containing ampicillin (2nd plate) is inoculated with the E. coli bacteria that contains ampicillin ...
• Which of the following describes how a plasmid and gene of interest are combined to ...
• Which of the following allow for amplification of a DNA fragment abiotically? A. DNA ...
• Which is the primary purpose of using restriction enzymes in gel electrophoresis? A. It ...
• What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis? A. helps cut DNA B. count ...
• What is transformation? A. The use of viruses to transform or genetically engineer cells. ...
• Which of the following describes why Taq polymerase is required for PCR? A. The ...
• Based on these results whose blood was found in ...
• Which of the following describes why primers must be added to the thermocycler during a ...
• Observe the results above. What gene is present in ...
• DNA fingerprinting works because A. Most genes are dominant B. All organisms contain ...
• Cells within the retina that are responsible for color vision and function best in bright ...
• A lighted instrument for inspecting the retina and other parts of the eye. A. ...
• Surgical removal of all or part of the stapes of the middle ear, followed by ...
• To contract or shrink; become smaller A. Constrict B. Dilate
• A small bone in the middle ear which transmits vibrations of the eardrum to the ...
• Become wider, larger or more open A. Dilate B. Constrict
• Color blindness test A. Stapedectomy B. Snellen Chart C. Otoscope D. ...
• External part of the ear; also called the auricle. A. Incus B. Pinna ...
• A lighted instrument used to examine the ear. A. Otoscope B. Ophthalmoscope ...
• Three tiny bones in the middle ear that transmit sounds to the cochlea. A. ...
• A sensation of spinning dizziness, as though the room or surrounding environment is spinning in ...
• A type of specialized light-sensitive cell in the retina of the eye that provides side ...
• Projections on the tongue that contain taste buds A. equilibrium B. cones ...
• Surgical opening made in tympanic membrane and tubes placed in ear to drain fluids. ...
• Eye chart that can be used to measure visual acuity A. Ishihara test ...
• Jelly-like substance that fills the posterior chamber. A. Vitreous humor B. Aqueous humor ...
• The bone and cartilage in the nose that separates the nasal cavity into the two ...
• Small anvil-shaped bone in the middle ear, transmitting vibrations between the malleus and stapes ...
• Clear fluid that fills the anterior chamber of the eye. A. Aqueous humor ...
• Tiny hairs that move mucous and dust particles from the sinuses to the back of ...
• Canal that connects middle ear to back of the nose and throat A. Vitreous ...
• Ear wax A. Equilibrium B. Rhinitis C. Ossicles D. Cerumen
• Bony cavity in the skull that houses and protects the eyeball. A. Eustachian tube ...
• Balance A. Pinna B. Equilibrium C. Vertigo D. Cerumen
• Inflammation of the mucous membrane of the nose A. Rhinitis B. Pinna ...
• Inflammation of the tongue A. Cerumen B. Glossitis C. Rhinitis D. ...
• Small stirrup-shaped bone that transmits sound vibrations to the oval window of the ear. ...
• Which of the following is a phenotype? A. Aa B. red hair ...
• What is the dominant trait? A. ...
• Which of the following genotypes is heterozygous? A. Hh B. YY C. ...
• If a species of flower demonstrated incomplete dominance for color, a cross between a homozygous ...
• Phenotype refers to an organisms what? A. Physical appearance B. Combination of alleles ...
• Sex linked traits affect which biological sex more frequently? A. Female B. Both ...
• What scientist is known for inventing Punnett Squares to predict probability of traits? A. ...
• A breed of cow has one allele (B) that codes for brown hair and another ...
• Alleles are different forms of a single _________. A. Genotype B. Phenotype ...
• What are the possible genotypes for this cross? ...
• In mice, black fur (B) is dominant to white ...
• Which of the following is a homozygous dominant genotype? A. Hh B. Tt ...
• Mendel's law of Dominance says that ____________. A. A dominant trait requires two dominant ...
• In the cross AaBbCc × AaBbCc, what is the probability of producing the genotype AABBCC? ...
• Which of the following describes the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic ...
• Mendel was able to draw his ideas of segregation and independent assortment because of the ...
• How could you best predict the maximum number of alleles for a single gene whose ...
• The fact that all seven of the pea plant traits studied by Mendel obeyed the ...
• Mendel's observation of the segregation of alleles in gamete formation has its basis in which ...
• When crossing an organism that is homozygous recessive for a single trait with a heterozygote, ...
• Which of the following differentiates between independent assortment and segregation? A. The law of ...
• A sexually reproducing animal has two unlinked genes, one for head shape (H) and one ...
• Which of the following describes the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic ...
• Hutchinson-Gilford progeria is an exceedingly rare human genetic disorder in which there is very early ...
• Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio for a particular trait. ...
• Most genes have many more than two alleles. However, which of the following is also ...
• An ideal procedure for fetal testing in humans would have which of the following features? ...
• Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance? A. pink flowers in ...
• Which of the following calculations require that you utilize the addition rule? A. Calculate ...
• Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are ...
• What was the most significant conclusion that Gregor Mendel drew from his experiments with pea ...
• Why did Mendel continue some of his experiments to the F2 or F3 generation? A. to ...
• The frequency of heterozygosity for the sickle-cell anemia allele is unusually high, presumably because this ...
• Which of the following is the best statement of the use of the addition rule ...
• How many unique gametes could be produced through independent assortment by an individual with the ...
• Hydrangea plants of the same genotype are planted in a large flower garden. Some of ...
• Why did the F1 offspring of Mendel's classic pea cross always look like one of the ...
• Gabriel ate a rotten egg which is negatively impacting his  ___________________, which is the body ...
• Which substance is produced during cellular respiration?  A. Oxygen B. Sugar C. ...
• The breaking down of food in the human digestive system is both chemical and…. ...
• When a person chews food, the teeth grind the food into smaller pieces. This is ...
• The chemical reaction between oxygen and glucose that releases energy into cells. A. Metabolism ...
• Chemicals that regulate and control human body functions are known as... A. Fats ...
• The ________________ is the body’s use of molecules for energy and growth. A. Cellular ...
• The energy required for organisms to respond to the environment comes from... A. Vitamins ...
• Dashawn has asthma which affects the ___________________, which is the body system that takes in ...
• Which is true of the difference between healthy bodies vs. athlete bodies? A. There ...
• What are the negative effects of food deserts? A. Millions of people are unable ...
• Sam’s heart pumps blood to her  ___________________ which is the body system that transports molecules ...
• What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction? A. reusable ...
• In the diagram, what is letter A? ...
• Which of the following best explains why enzymes are necessary for many cellular reactions? ...
• The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells.Which ...
• Which of the following conclusionscan be drawn from this ...
• After the enzyme and substrate bind together and perform the reaction, what does the substrate ...
• Each enzyme only has 1 substrate that will fit its active site.  What is this ...
• Which letter represents the product? A. ...
• What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature? A. The enzymes die. ...
• What happens when an enzyme denatures? A. The enzyme becomes overused B. The ...
• Which enzyme is most efficient in a basic solution? ...
• Which of these is NOT true? A. Enzymes can denature (change shape) when the ...
• Letter c... A. active site ...
• The energy needed to start a reaction is known as... A. enzyme B. ...
• Why does the oxidation of organic compounds by molecular oxygen to produce CO2 and water ...
• Cellular respiration harvests the most chemical energy from which of the following? A. substrate-level ...
• The primary role of oxygen in cellular respiration is to A. combine with lactate, ...
• The ATP made during glycolysis is generated by A. electron transport. B. chemiosmosis ...
• Which process in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally whether oxygen (O2) is present or absent? ...
• Which of the following statements is correct about an oxidation-reduction (or redox) reaction? A. ...
• During cellular respiration, acetyl CoA accumulates in which location? A. mitochondrial matrix B. ...
• How many carbon atoms are fed into the citric acid cycle as a result of ...
• Where are the proteins of the electron transport chain located? A. cytosol B. ...
• Where does glycolysis takes place? A. cytosol B. mitochondrial amtrix C. mitochondrial ...
• All of the following are functions of the citric acid cycle EXCEPT A. addition ...
• In glycolysis, for each molecule of glucose oxidized to pyruvate A. two molecules of ...
• The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event? ...
• When hydrogen ions are pumped from the mitochondrial matrix across the inner membrane and into ...
• In addition to ATP, what are the end products of glycolysis? A. CO2 and ...
• What is the term used for the metabolic pathway in which glucose (C6H12O6) is degraded ...
• How many membranes does a mitochondria have? A. 1 B. 2 C. ...
• Which of the three steps of cellular respiration is anaerobic? A. Glycolysis B. ...
• Which process is the largest contributor to the release of CO2  A. Citric Acid ...
• Where does the Citric Acid Cycle (Krebs Cycle) happen in the cell? A. Cytosol ...
• What are the total outputs of glycolysis? A. 4 ATP, 2 pyruvate, 2 NADH ...
• Where does cellular respiration take place in eukaryotic cells? A. Mitochondria B. Chloroplast ...
• Which process does not occur in aerobic conditions?  A. Fermentation B. Pyruvate Oxidation ...
• Why is ATP considered the most significant energy carrying molecule?  A. It's delta G ...
• How many carbons are in glucose? A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 ...
• Pyruvate Oxidation creates a specific numbered carbon molecule at the end of it's process. What ...
• If ADP is phosphorylated then what is this indicating in the reaction?  A. ADP ...
• What is the main job of the electron carriers in cellular respiration?  A. Transport ...
• Does the mitochondria have its own DNA? A. Yes! B. No!
• Where does glycolysis take place in the cell? A. Mitochondria B. Cytosol ...
• Where is the Electron Transport Chain in the cell? A. Cytoplasm B. Cell ...
• Where are the sweat glands or sebaceous glands located? A. Dermis B. Muscle ...
• Cutaneous and renal glomerular vasculopathy is more commonly known as what? A. Alabama Rot ...
• The most common cause of canine pyoderma? A. E.coli B. Staphylococcus intermedius ...
• If you took a FNA from a pustules, you are likely to find? A. ...
• Which is NOT a sign of a aspergillosis infection? A. Depigmentation of the nose ...
• For which ONE of the following clinical conditions would a hair pluck be the most ...
• Which term describes large spots of haemorrhage? A. Ulcers B. Petechiae C. ...
• What is ringworm caused by? A. bacteria B. fungi C. virus ...
• Calluses are most commonly found where? A. Bottom of foot pads B. On ...
• Supination is facing upward A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The longest strongest bone in the human body is the A. humerous B. ...
• Fractures are classified by A. type of break and whether the skin is broken ...
• Joint A. place where one bone meets another B. place where two or ...
• Arthritis caused by an increased in uric acid levels A. rheumatoid arthritis B. ...
• It takes a few moments for a plaster cast to dry completely A. TRUE ...
• There are 3 types of joints A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Adult human body contains A. 156 B. 206 C. 300 D. ...
• Cartilage is made up of hard connective tissue A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Bones can break during repositioning and transfers of a patient who has osteoporosis A. ...
• Skeletal System help the reproductive system by enduring extra weight for growing babies A. ...
• If a patient has hip surgery never elevate the head of the bed more than ...
• Care for a patient who has had joint replacement surgery includes all of the following ...
• The brain has no control of the skeletal system A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Osteoporosis is a type of arthritis in which joint deformities are common A. TRUE ...
• –With decreased mass comes increased risk for injury due to decreased –Strength –Tone –Endurance –Elasticity ...
• What are the function (s) of the skeletal system? A. protects bones B. ...
• The skeletal system protect the lungs so that carbon dioxide can be taken in ...
• Compartment Syndrome is not serious A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Hip fracture is the term used to describe a A. fracture of the pelvic ...
• Patients with fibromyalgia have all of the following signs and symptoms except A. pain ...
• As a nursing assistant it is your responsibility to teach patients how to use their ...
• Moving away from the body is eversion A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Patients with arthritis are at high risk of A. falls B. infection ...
• Skeletal System work with the endocrine system by spreading hormones to strengthen bones A. ...
• The patient you are seeing today has a diagnosis of RA and their hands display ...
• Which list is anterior hip precautions? A. No femur flexion above 90 degrees, no ...
• Which type of femur fracture is repaired frequently with a THR? A. Femoral Neck ...
• When a bone is broken, the precautions tend to be related to what? A. ...
• What do the bones of the body provide? A. structure B. movement
• What type of precaution is the treating OT explaining to a patient in the following ...
• Which of the following would be appropriate body mechanics education to provide to a patient ...
• What is a functional implication of an anterior hip replacement? A. Can't bend to ...
• Which of the following diseases tends to be asymmetrical and results in bone-on-bone joints? ...
• Which of the following diseases causes progressive synovitis A. Osteoporosis B. Osteoarthritis ...
• What is the MOST correct definition of WBAT? A. patient can only put toe ...
• Which list is posterior hip precautions? A. No femur flexion above 90 degrees, no ...
• What is a functional implication of a posterior total hip replacement A. Difficulty donning ...
• When a joint is repaired or replaced, the precautions tend to be related to what? ...
• generally; when you consider everything A. Initially B. Finally C. Overall ...
• a type of very small organism that lives in air, earth, water, plants, and animals, ...
• able to be passed from one person, animal, or plant to another A. Infected ...
• not able to produce children or young animals A. Suppress B. Infertile ...
• the act or process of passing something from one person, place or thing to another ...
• to come together, or bring people/things together, in one place to form a group ...
• to experience something, especially a change or something unpleasant A. Overcome B. Transfer ...
• an amount of something that is provided or available to be used A. Supply ...
• a medicine or chemical that can destroy harmful bacteria in the body or limit their ...
• affected by harmful bacteria, a virus, etc A. Infected B. Polluted C. ...
• to have something as a result A. Result from B. Result in ...
• information, documents, etc. that show that something is true A. Claim B. Hypothesis ...
• for the reason that A. Result in B. Hence C. Result from ...
• the state of being in a place or situation where there is no protection from ...
• to fall down dramatically, often after breaking apart A. Replace B. Trasform ...
• to make a connection between people or things in your mind A. Correlate ...
• to put a drug or other substance into a person’s or an animal’s body using ...
• to prevent something (a physical process) from growing, developing or continuing A. Extinguish ...
•  for this reason A. Hence B. Because of C. Lead to ...
• to recognize the difference between two people or things A. Dismiss B. Overlook ...
• A disease that has appeared in the human population for the first time or that ...
• Vaping is an example of which hazard? A. Social B. Chemical C. ...
• The process of measuring the chance that an environmental hazard will cause harm is called ...
• Animals that live in Chernobyl after the nuclear fallout are at risk of which hazard? ...
• Mutations are a change in what? A. DNA B. tRNA C. genotype ...
• This genetic disorder is caused by non-disjunction of the 21st chromosome. It is one of ...
• The study of toxic substances A. Biology B. Toxicology C. Epidemiology ...
• Ebola is a type of which hazard? A. Social B. Chemical C. ...
• What are chemicals that cause cancer called? A. carcinogen B. hazard C. ...
• Who is considered the father of epidemiology? A. Edward Jenner B. Jonas Salk ...
• Cystic Fibrosis is a genetic disorder in which the body produces thick mucus in the ...
• Which is not a public health hazard category? A. Physical B. Social ...
• Skin cancer is a type of which hazard? A. Social B. Chemical ...
• Health care experts who study trends in health issues in populations and deploy public announcements, ...
• Fragile X A. causes cognitive impairment B. occurs on the X chromosome ...
• The amount of a harmful chemical that a person is exposed to is A. ...
• What is the effect as a result to exposure of a substance? A. dose ...
• A genetic disorder is an abnormal condition that a person inherits through genes or chromosomes? ...
• Any virus, bacteria, fungi, or parasite that can cause a disease in a living thing ...
• The agency that is responsible for determining if a food or drug is safe and ...
• A highly contagious viral disease characterized by fever, weakness, and skin eruption with pustules that ...
• highly contagious, acute viral respiratory illness that now has a vaccine; causes total body skin ...
• National organization that provides research for development of treatment of disease. A. CDC ...
• bacterial infection transmitted by ticks; causes rash, fever, fatigue, andpotential to spread to the heart, ...
• Virus transmitted through the bite of an infected mosquito; fever, headache, body aches, and continued ...
• inflammation of the liver, which is transmitted sexually or by exposure to contaminated blood or ...
• A virus that attacks and destroys the human immune system; leads to AIDS if not ...
• International organization that constantly monitors health problems throughout the world and takes steps to prevent ...
• viral infection caused by the virus Varicella zoster; attenuated vaccine available; airborne; treated via antiviral ...
• bacteria that affects the lungs causing a very severe form of pneumonia;spread via droplets of ...
• caused by bacteria that may come from soil or puncture wounds; When it enters the ...
• Helminith means: A. worm B. prion C. bacterial infection D. virus ...
• Helminth infection acquired from contact with water containing infected snails. A. Schistosomiasis B. ...
• an acute, deadly viral infection that is most commonly transmitted to humans by direct contact ...
• A Post partum female is referred with abnormal TFT, TSH is undetectable, T3 and T4 ...
• A 60 year old woman is detected to have DM on routine health checkup, and ...
• Caused by A. Neisseria Gonorrhoea ...
• Regarding Auscultation of Respiratory system, false is A. Wheeze are continuous musical sounds caused ...
• All are features of Hypothyroidism EXCEPT – A. Pallor B. Constipation C. ...
• Most common cause of anaemia is A. Iron deficiency B. B12 deficiency ...
• Regarding fever all are true except A. Hyperpyrexia is body temperature of more than ...
• Chest Xray showing Bilateral opacities progressing to ARDS may be seen in - A. ...
• Regarding Leptospirosis all are true except A. It is caused by Gram negative Spirochete ...
• False regarding history and clinical examination in patient with pallor – A. History of ...
• All are components of pre-test counselling for HIV except – A. Discuss meaning of ...
• Regarding Malaria all are true except A. Clinical features may include fever, malaise, pallor, ...
• False regarding management of acute diarrhea is – A. Isolation, hand hygiene and notification ...
• Usual causes of chronic diarrhea are all EXCEPT – A. Giardia lamblia B. ...
• All are usual features of hyperthyroidism except A. Palpitations and tremor B. Loss ...
• A female with oligomenorrhea is referred from OBG with the following TFT – TSH undetectable, ...
• 18 year old girl presents with syncopal episode and history ...
• A 54 year old, presented with altered sensorium, fever, and headache of 5 days. Lumbar ...
• Hanging drop test is used to identify A. Vibrio cholera B. Paratyphi A ...
• False statement regarding complications of DM is A. Pregabalin and duloxetine are approved for ...
• 14 year old boy came with complaints of abdominal ...
• Most common cause of acute diarrhea? A. Viral B. Bacterial C. Parasitic ...
• Diagnostic criteria for Diabetes Mellitus are all EXCEPT – A. Hba1c ≥ 6.5% ...
• Diarrhea due to preformed toxin usually have a short incubation period of
• All are indications for emergency blood transfusion EXCEPT A. Road accident victim having Hb ...
• Characteristic CT chest findings in COVID is A. Bilateral ground glass opacities, and crazy ...
• All of the following are true regarding Dengue fever except A. Positive tourniquet test ...
• All are correct matched treatment for DM except – A. Biguanides - Metformin ...
• Regarding Malaria, false statement is A. A malarial attack or paroxysm consists of initial ...
• A 53 y/o M comes in to the ED weekly with SOA. Work-up is always ...
• What is seen on EKG with TCA overdose? A. Bradycardia B. ST elevation ...
• With which sympathomimetic must you restrict fluids or use hypertonic saline? A. Amphetamines ...
• A patient is found to have sympathomimetic toxicity. What must be avoided? A. Physostigmine ...
• What is seen in the sympathomimetic toxidrome that differentiates it from the anticholinergic toxidrome? ...
• A farmer presents w/numerous symptoms after spraying his garden w/pesticides. Which is NOT a treatment ...
• A 21 y/o F presents with dizziness and chest pain. Exam, vitals, troponin, and EKG ...
• You diagnose a panic attack in the ED. What do you do next? A. ...
• What toxidrome causes pinpoint pupils? A. Anticholinergic B. Sympathomimetic C. Opioid ...
• A 23 y/o F patient presents to the ED with chest pain and SOA. What ...
• How do you differentiate the sedative-hypnotic toxidrome from the opioid toxidrome? A. HR/BP/RR/Temperature ...
• A paramecium is a single celled organism that reproduces ...
• You can think of DNA as a great library of information that exists to do ...
• Strands of DNA are tightly coiled in A. DNA B. Base Pairs ...
• Process that allows asexual reproduction A. mitosis B. meiosis C. both ...
• It's estimated that all the chromosomes together house about 20, 000 individual instructions called ...
• A planarian is a tiny flatworm that lives in ...
• Replicates body cells. A. mitosis B. meiosis C. both
• Creates unique set of DNA. A. mitosis B. meiosis C. both ...
• How many chromosomes does the human genome contain? A. 23 B. 46 ...
• What is heredity? A. The passing of traits from parent to offspring B. ...
• The entire genome (or, the book of you) is contained inside the _________ of the ...
• A gene carries coded information for the creation of a A. protein B. ...
• Passes along genetic material. A. mitosis B. meiosis C. both
• A whole new starfish can grow from a single ...
• What is the name for an organism’s genetic material? A. DNA B. Molecule ...
• Freshwater Hydra bulges off the side of a parent ...
• Occurs in many complex organisms such as plants, animals and fungi A. mitosis ...
• Every cell of every living thing on earth contains all the information it needs to ...
• DNA is made of chains of four smaller molecules called: A. nucleotides B. ...
• The four differing nucleotide parts, called bases, are made of a few: A. sugars ...
• Patients with HIV should avoid herbal supplements and high dose multi-vitamin minerals because they can ...
• The renal diet may be limited in the following minerals depending on the stage of ...
• Name the condition when a patient with HIV has an involuntary weight loss greater than ...
• Which of the following metabolic changes accompanies acute stress? A. elevated immune response ...
• All of the following foods increase risk for foodborne illness except: A. homemade eggnog ...
• What is considered the best index of overall kidney function? A. albumin B. ...
• Components of fruits and vegetables that are important for cancer prevention include all of the ...
• Which of these factors increases the risk of cancer? A. smoked, chargrilled meats ...
• Once a patient with renal disease starts dialysis, their diet can contain liberal amounts of ...
• Consequences of antiretroviral medications include: A. insulin resistance and wasting B. insulin resistance ...
• A side effect of antiretroviral medications is: A. muscle wasting B. anorexia ...
• Acidosis occurs when ....... A. too many free H+ ions aresent in the blood ...
• Urinary urge incontinence can be caused or exacerbated by what? A. sneezing B. ...
• What job of the kidneys does dialysis help with? A. filtration and secretion ...
• Urolithiasis is the the medical term for what? A. Tx used to break up ...
• What is considered to be the final stage of renal disease? A. 2 ...
• Which part of the urinary system carries waste for the kidneys to the bladder? ...
• Cations include __________, and anions include ___________. A. + charged ions; - charged ions ...
• What is an usual side effect of Pyridium ( phenazopyridine) A. Orange or reddish ...
• Which of the following would not be used for UTI's? A. Septra B. ...
• Nocturia is defined as ....... A. bedwetting B. inability to completely empty the ...
• Which of the following is a possible side effect of ALL diuretics? A. Photosensitivity ...
• Which of the following is NOT a loop diurectic? A. bumetanide B. torsemide ...
• A commonly prescribed thiazide diuretic is what? A. Aldactone B. Dyrenium C. ...
• Hyperphosphatemia is a major issue with renal failure that can be treated with what? ...
• How many divisions are in meiosis? A. 46 B. 23 C. 2 ...
• A type of cell division where the cell divides into two copies A. Vegetative ...
• How many chromosomes do the daughter cells have in meiosis? A. 23 B. ...
• How many chromosomes do the daughter cells have in mitosis? A. 23 B. ...
• a piece of an organism develops into a fully grown copy. A. vegetative propagation ...
• Where does a cell contain it's genetic material? A. nucleus B. nucleolus ...
• Before cells can divide, what must be copied? A. mitochondria B. cytoplasm ...
• If an organism reproduces asexually, its offspring will most likely be... A. genetically identical ...
• Why do cells go through mitosis? A. to make food from sunlight B. ...
• Involves only one parent A. Asexual Reproduction B. Sexual Reproduction C. Diverse ...
• occurs when a second organism develops from an outgrowth of the original. A. Vegetative ...
• Combining of egg and sperm A. Asexual Reproduction B. Sexual Reproduction C. ...
• The end result of mitosis is A. 4 Identical Cells are produced B. ...
• Timmy fell off his skateboard and scraped his knee. Which cell process is going to ...
• What protein is the smallest of the large proteins usually held back by the glomerular ...
• A rise in plasma creatinine reflects a fall in GFR A. TRUE B. ...
• Which of these is a cause of pre-renal AKI? A. Renal calculi B. ...
• What is clearance a measurement of? A. DKA B. Hypertension C. Acute ...
• The stages of CKD are based on the length of time GFR has been decreased ...
• Time of collection for creatinine clearance is 24hrs but it is inputted into the equation ...
• In a creatinine clearance test, urine and plasma creatinine are measured in what unit? ...
• Name a food that can impact on the colour of urine A. Aubergine ...
• What's one of the main limitations of using a dipstick to test urine samples? ...
• Which of these is a cause of post-renal AKI? A. Sepsis B. Blood ...
• An estimation of the efficiency with which substances are cleared from the blood by the ...
• The adult reference range for plasma urea is A. 3.3-6.7umol/l B. 3.3-6.7mmol/l ...
• AKI is an abbreviation for A. Adequate kidney involvement B. Acute kidney injury ...
• What is the most accurate measurement to use via clearance with regards GFR? A. ...
• Normal glomerular filtration rate is around.... A. 30-60ml/min B. 60-80ml/min C. 120-150ml/min ...
• Why is cystatin c not used routinely in clinical practice to estimate GFR? A. ...
• Which of these is a cause of intra-renal AKI? A. Nephrotoxins B. Sepsis ...
• The most widely used clearance test is A. Creatinine B. Urea C. ...
• CKD is defined as a GFR of less than what? A. 15ml/min B. ...
• For at least how long? A. 1 months B. 3 months C. ...
• What are the key differences between neurodegenerative disease and neurodegeneration? A. •Neurodegeneration gets progressively ...
• Which of the following is false? Decreased cortical activity will lead to: A. •Increased ...
• When you have visual changes which part of the brain is most likely affected? ...
• Where is the broca’s area located? A. •Temporal lobe B. •Occipital lobe ...
• Which type of food sensitivity should be considered in somebody with idiopathic sporadic ataxia? ...
• What is the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis? A. •Antibodies overstimulating the acetycholine receptors in ...
• The insular cortex integrates information from A. •Face and tongue B. •Visceral organs ...
• What are usually the first signs of MS? A. •Cognitive changes B. •Visual ...
• What type of tremor will you expect to find in PD? A. •Physiological tremor ...
• What smell can potentially be used to diagnose early signs of Alzheimer’s? A. •Coffee ...
• Which non MSK signs will you expect to find someone with PD to have? ...
• Which pathway in the hypothalamus is responsible for sympathetic response? A. •Hypothalamospinal tract ...
• What are the early signs of dementia? A. •Inability to walk B. •Inability ...
• Which tract originates from the frontal lobe? A. •Spinothalamic tract B. •Corticospinal tract ...
• Which part of the brain is primarily affected when you lack endurance? A. •Temporal ...
• When the anterior cingulate cortex controls/regulates the autonomics of our body, this is dependent on ...
• Which is not a sign of ALS? A. •Cognitive changes B. •Fasciculations ...
• What is the functions of the parietal lobe A. •Recognises where your limbs are ...
• What is the role of broca’s area? A. •Processes speech B. •Processes sensation ...
• When you have difficulty with directions which part of the brain is most likely affected? ...
• A cat in severe respiratory distress becomes cyanotic whilst placing a cephalic IV catheter. What ...
• Which of the following drugs is a loop diuretic licensed for use treating congestive heart ...
• When performing physiotherapy on a patient effleurage can be described as: A. gentle massage ...
• Which breed is most commonly associated with cutaneous mast cell tumours? A. CKCS ...
• Which ONE of the following is the term used to describe difficulty breathing? A. ...
• Which class of cardiac drugs, aim to increase the contractile force and chamber filling of ...
• Which heart valve is most commonly affected by disease in canine patients? A. Mitral ...
• A cat is showing signs of dyspnoea following a road traffic accident. Which position should ...
• Which test should be performed before each administration of chemotherapy (except for prednisolone)? A. ...
• Which of the following is a common site for metastasis? A. Oral cavity ...
• Which of the following is most typical of a benign cancer growth? A. Fast ...
• What effect does hyperkalaemia have on the heart? A. Tachycardia B. Hypertrophy ...
• Which of the following breeds has a genetic predisposition to mitral valve insufficiency? A. ...
• Which ONE underlying condition does NOT lead to hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in cats. A. Hyperthyroidism ...
• Which of the following is an effective antitussive in dogs and cats? A. Medetomidine ...
• The new grad RN is hanging a new bag of Ceftriaxone. The preceptor intervenes when ...
• A new grad RN is programming Vancomycin into the Alaris pump. The preceptor knows they ...
• The medication Gentamicin is eliminated by: A. Kidneys B. Liver C. Both ...
• A patient taking Vancomycin gets their 0600 lab results back. Which lab result would need ...
• The nurse is preparing to draw a peak for a patient prescribed Streptomycin IV. The ...
• A physician plans to prescribe ampicillin to a patient. When asking about their allergies, what ...
• A patient taking Ciprofloxacin calls the clinic complaining of new onset pain in her right ...
• A patient taking Azithromycin is going through medication reconciliation with the nurse. The nurse would ...
• A patient comes into the clinic for flu-like symptoms and is later diagnosed with Influenza. ...
• The medication ciprofloxacin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The patient taking Piperacillin gets their 0600 labs back. Their labs are: Hgb 12.2, Hct ...
• What needs to be done with Amphotericin B to reduce effects of nephrotoxicity? A. ...
• A patient with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus is being treated for a bacterial pneumonia. The nurse ...
• Which type of antibiotic is best for immunocompromised? A. Bacteriostatic B. Bactericidal ...
• T or F? Clonic seizures begin with a loss of consciousness and a sudden loss ...
• T or F? Generalized seizures begin locally and then progress to include abnormal electrical discharges ...
• Which type of generalized seizures consist of short episodes of muscle contractions that may occur ...
• Among the different types of seizures, this type is characterized by impaired consciousness and recall. ...
• What biomarker is used for epilepsy diagnosis? A. HVA Calcium B. MOA ...
• Which is the most common treatment for epilepsy? A. Surgery B. Medication ...
• Pregabalin works on presynaptic ion channels to inhibit the release of neurotransmitter and reduce neuronal ...
• Which drug is most useful for the treatment of absence seizures? A. Topiramate - ...
• A female, 38 yo, had multiple seizures and her blood glucose level was very high ...
• Barbiturates and benzodiazepines are anticonvulsant drugs used in the treatment of epilepsy. They both bind ...
• Atonic seizures are known as  A. Increased tone in the extension muscles B. ...
• Focal seizures involve how many hemispheres of the brain?  A. 1 B. 2 ...
• Characteristic of acute symptomatic seizure is ... A. Unprovoked seizure B. Recurrent ...
• The symptoms of a seizure may differ from person to person, but seizures are caused ...
• T or F? Carbamazepine should not be prescribed for patients with absence seizures because it ...
• Pregabalin binds to the α2δ site, an auxiliary subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels in the ...
• Which drug route would be used to administer a nasal spray? A. Topical ...
• What route can be used to administer solid drugs? A. Oral B. Buccal ...
• An immunization is an example of a ____ drug. A. Preventative B. Replacement ...
• Which type of drug allergy affects the entire body and causes an inability to breathe? ...
• Why might a medical assistant use the Prescribers' Digital Reference? A. To confirm the ...
• Which of the following is an example of a liquid drug form? A. Ointment ...
• What kind of drug is used to treat conditions and symptoms? A. Diagnostic drug ...
• What is the definition of drug? A. A chemical that has been approved for ...
• What is the therapeutic effect of a drug? A. The desired effect B. ...
• Which drug route is administered by injection or IV? A. Parenteral B. Oral ...
• Which are the most frequently-used drug routes? A. Topical and inhalation B. Oral ...
• Which type of drug action directly affects the area to which it was administered? ...
• Most oral medications use a ____ action, which results in medication being carried through the ...
• Which drug route would involve placing a tablet under the tongue? A. Transdermal ...
• What kind of drug may be used to help pinpoint the location of a disease ...
• An immune response that is mediated by secreted antibodies produced in the cells of the ...
• An immune response that involves the activation of T lymphocytes (Cytotoxic T and Helper T) ...
• An example of Adaptive immunity: A. Macrophages B. Natural Killer Cells C. ...
• Your teacher name is: A. Saif Alsafadi B. Alsafadi Saif C. Mohammad ...
• Any substance that causes your immune system to produce antibodies against it. Maybe a foreign ...
• An immunity that is the type of host defense that is always present in healthy ...
• An immunity that is a type of host defense that always require activation and stimulation ...
• Ensures that immune response are precisely targeted to microbial pathogens A. Specificity B. ...
• The site of synthesis of Immune cells is: A. Bone Borrow B. Thymus ...
• An example of Innate Immunity: A. Skin B. B cells C. T ...
• Also known as an immunoglobulin (Ig), this is a large, Y-shaped protein produced by plasma ...
• Which of the following cells responsible for immunity: A. WBCs B. RBCs ...
• Of the following histopathologic finding, the one best indicates that a neoplasm is malignant is: ...
• A 70 yrs old man presented to the ER with retention of urine, he had ...
• A 45 year old female was found to have an abnormal PAP smear 10 years ...
• All of the follwoig are predisposing factors for skin cancer EXCEPT: A. Smoking ...
• 25 yrs old lady who has been working as a radiology technologist for the last ...
• Metabolic acidosis in acute renal failure results from A. Hyponatremia V B. Reabsorption ...
• Mutations in mitochondrial genes are A. Inherited from the father B. Common cause ...
• All of the following are thought to be related to the capacity for tumor cells ...
• Grading of tumours depends upon the following except: A. Degree of anaplasia B. ...
• Respiratory acidosis is caused by: A. Mechanical ventilation B. Hypoxia C. Chronic ...
• Which of the following is true about oncogenes: A. Present in normal cell ...
• Which of the following is not a feature of stem cells: A.Capable of self ...
• Main source of lonizing radiation is: A. UV light A B. UVlight B ...
• . A 55 year old chroic smoker complained of difficulty in breathing and coughing up ...
• 40 yrs old female presented with right breast lump, this lump is 8x4 cm in ...
• Mendelian disorders are due to: A. Chromosomal abnormalities B. Single gene defect ...
• 70 years old male diagnosed as having a neoplasm in his colon which has been ...
• Active hyperemia is the result of: A. Dilatation of capillaries B. Venous engorgement ...
• Dysplasia is a known premalignant condition, which of the following is true regarding dysplasia: ...
• - X-linked disorders: A. Males are always carriers B. Females are always diseased ...
• Analgesics produced in the body as a reaction to pain or intense exercise are __________________.. ...
• Acute or angle-closure glaucoma is considered a medical emergency. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• The use of eye makeup during treatment with anti-infective drops should be avoided. A. ...
• Symptoms of an ear infection include ________________. A. Complete loss of hearing B. ...
• Drug addiction is defined as _____________. A. the use of a drug for other ...
• Side effects of anti-infective eye agents can include ___________________. A. Conjunctivitis B. Blurred ...
• Because pain can be experienced or perceived only by the individual, it is ________________. ...
• Which of the following statements is true regarding Rohypnol? A. It is not approved ...
• Tardive dyskinesia is _______________. A. Purposeless body movements, an extrapyramidal side effect associated with ...
• Determine the appropriate class for a medication used for sleep. For example, the controlled-release tablet ...
• Crystal, crank, and ice are all street names for which? A. methamphetamine B. ...
• Drugs given to calm and soothe. A. Adjuvants B. Analgesics C. Hypnotics ...
• Hypnotics are used to _______________. A. relieve mild to moderate pain, fever, and anti-inflammatory ...
• Treatment of acute alcohol poisoning is ___________. A. Vitamin B (thiamine), multiple vitamins, and ...
• Which of the following categories of medications treats eye swelling? A. Mydriatics B. ...
• Side effects of opioids can include ________________. A. Constipation B. Respiratory depression ...
• Long-term physiological effects of alcohol use include __________. A. Excitement, sedations, and anesthesia ...
• Which mechanism of action is descriptive of SSRIs? A. Potentiation of norepinephrine and serotonin ...
• Why do most people seek medical care? A. Preventative care B. Family history ...
• What is the appropriate class or description for moderate to severe pain; has no analgesic ...
• Earwax buildup may be treated with over-the-counter (OTC) products in many cases. A. TRUE ...
• What antidote should be considered or kept on hand to treat opioid overdose in a ...
• The classification of medications given to reduce fever. A. Adjuvants B. Analgesics ...
• An overdose of Tylenol could result in liver toxicity or renal damage. A. TRUE ...
• Anxiolytics are used to treat ____________. A. central nervous system dysfunction B. various ...
• Drops are preferred over ointments when used in children. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• NSAID with multiple actions including anti-pyretic and analgesic; often combined with opioids; acetylsalicylic acid. ...
• Antidepressant medications are used primarily to treat ___________________. A. Central nervous system function ...
• Which of the five categories of ophthalmic medications treat disorders associated with increased intraocular pressure ...
• Controlled substances must A. Be kept in a locked cabinet or safe B. ...
• T/F Diazepam is an example of a schedule I drug A. TRUE B. ...
• A licensed veterinarian must be registered with the ____ as an individual or through a ...
• A grain is about A. 73 mgs B. 15 mgs C. 65 ...
• the term used to describe the capacity to cause birth defects is A. repoductivity ...
• What is one way to assess the amount of money tied up in inventory? ...
• According to the Texas Administrative code - Rules of Professional Conduct all of the following ...
• What is a disadvantage to using a distributor? A. it means more storage space ...
• T/F The majority of veterinary drugs in use during the early 1900s were found naturally ...
• How long a drug remains stable and effective for use is known as its ...
• T/F All drugs are used to treat sick animals A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• What is considered a required special storage condition? A. high-volume storage B. shelving ...
• If your pharmacy is organized by oral solids, oral liquids, injectables, and ointments, then it ...
• The meaning of the abbreviation qod is A. every night B. every other ...
• Which of the following virtual care options must have a valid VCPR? A. Telemedicine ...
• Controlled substances are categorized into ____ schedules by the DEA based on their potential for ...
• A drug that has a margin of safety of 75 is A. safer than ...
• The margin of safety is another name for the A. effective dose B. ...
• Which therapeutic index is the safest of those listen below? A. 2 B. ...
• The majority of drug molecules move throughout the tissue fluid or across cellular membrane barriers ...
• What does OSHA require for all hazardous substances? A. theft and sale records ...
• T/F Prescription drugs are limited to use by or under the supervision of a veterinarian ...
• T/F Over-the-counter drugs are approved for human use only by the FDA A. TRUE ...
• According to the Texas Administrative code- Rules of professional conduct a label on a compounded ...
• Where should injectables be kept when organizing the pharmacy? A. near the needle and ...
• The higher the schedule number (e.g., V vs. I) of a controlled-substance drug, the ...
• When disposing of liquid drugs that will be sent to a landfill, what needs to ...
• A person studying how the body absorbs, uses, and eliminates codeine is engaged in the ...
• T/F The major requirement of the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 is the ...
• All of the following are advantages to buying in bulk except which one? A. ...
• The LD 50/ED 50 is the mathematical expression of what value? A. the leathal ...
• All veterinary _________________ must be labeled with the following statement: Caution: Federal law restricts this ...
• Which term refers to an illness is always present in a given population. A. ...
• A condition is characterized by the formation of atherosclerotic plaque, which narrows the arteries and ...
• A condition that is characterized by the formation of benign, fluid-filled cysts in the kidneys. ...
• Which of the following is a risk factor for developing a Cerebrovascualar Accident A. ...
• This is an inflammation in the ileum that reduces the small intestine's ability to absorb ...
• Which of the following diseases caused a historical pandemic that lead to the creation of ...
• This occurs when tissue protrudes at a surgical site. A. Incisional hernia B. ...
• A medical assistant should recognize that a worldwide, rapidly spreading novel infection can result in ...
• a progressive decrease in bone density and strength due to a decline in calcium deposits ...
• Which of the following viral diseases resulted in an epidemic in the U.S. and presents ...
• A pituitary gland disorder characterized by a lack of ADH production is called A. ...
• When the top portion of the stomach is protruding through the stomach it is called ...
• A CCMA is caring for a patient whose dietary choices have resulted in elevated uric ...
• Which of the following viral diseases presents with fever, throat spasms, profuse salivation, and uncontrollable ...
• What is the clinical purpose of contrast mediain diagnostic imaging? A. Indicates the location ...
• A CCMA recommend Rest, Ice, Compression and Elevation (RICE) to a patient who calls the ...
• A low-Fiber, high-fat diet is a risk factor for which of the following diseases? ...
• What is a Medical Assistant's role in an MRI in an office setting? A. ...
• WHich of the following can cause scarring of the cardiac tissue, which can lead to ...
• A patient recently underwent a right-sided radical mastectomy and Lymphadenectomy. The CCMA should inform the ...
• This occurs when a portion of the bowel protrudes into the inguinal canal. A. ...
• Which of the following is a rick factor for developing conestive heart failure (CHF)? ...
• Which of the following viral diseases presents with fever, nasal discharge, rash, and red eyes? ...
• Which of the following viral diseases presents with rash and swollen lymph glands? A. ...
• Which term refers to an existing number of cases of a particular disease in a ...
• Which of the following conditions is defined as a loss of bone density? A. ...
• a chronic neuromuscular disease that causes muscle contractions and weakness involving any voluntary muscles. This ...
• Which term refers to a suddenly occurring disease in a limited geographic area in unexpected ...
• Which of the following factors puts a patient at high risk of developing coronary artery ...
• This occurs when part of the bowel protrudes through the abdominal muscle wall. A. ...
• This is a chronic liver disease caused by alcohol use disorder, hepatitis C, and chronic ...
• Which of the following is caused by the formation of plaque in the arteries leading ...
• These are formed in the gallbladder from insoluble cholesterol and bile salt A. Cirrhosis ...
• An autoimmune disorder that leads to severe joint pain and deformity, causing synovitis A. ...
• Which type of immunity has effect on memory? A. Natural Immunity B. Adaptive ...
• Which cells increase during infection? A. All B. platelets C. red blood ...
• Creates antibodies A. T-Lymphocytes B. Lymphocytes C. B-Lymphocytes D. Leukocytes
• Foreign substances that invade the body A. Neutrophils B. Innate Immunity C. ...
• The cell which is part of the cell-mediated response is A. B-plasma cells. ...
• Vaccination is an example of A. Naturally acquired active immunity B. Artificially acquired ...
• B-lymphochytes... A. Actively destroy pathogens B. Secrete antibodies C. Act as markers ...
• Assist antibodies in destruction of pathogens by working together in 'cascades' using three routes of ...
• Newborns get their antibodies from mothers milk. This is an example of A. Naturally ...
• Specialized proteins that attach to specific antigens A. Innate Immunity B. Antigen ...
• Inflammation does all of the following EXCEPT  A. repairs tissue B. initiates antibody ...
• All of the following happen during inflammation EXCEPT A. vasodilation B. tissue repair ...
• What is herd immunity? A. The number of disease-fighting white blood cells in a ...
• White blood cells are an important part of the human immune response. Two types of ...
• Fluid in the spaces between tissues is called... A. Lymph B. Blood ...
• Lymph nodes are found in the: A. Neck B. Armpits C. Groin ...
• Develops throughout your life and improves as you are exposed to disease A. Passive ...
• a localized, tissue-level response that tends to limit the spread of an injury or infection ...
• What are monocytes, macrophages, lymphocytes?  A. They are white blood cells  B. They ...
• Which of the following is NOT a nonspecific defense? A. mucus B. sweat ...
• A motile cell which is able to engulf infected cells is called a A. ...
• Chemical messengers released by tissue cells to initiate local responses A. microphages B. ...
• Heaviest internal organ removed during an autopsy is the A. liver B. kidney ...
• The specific body failure that led to a person's death. A. manner of death ...
• Which organ do forensic investigators insert the thermometer to record the body temp of corpse? ...
• __________ performs autopsy.  A. Physician Assistant B. PA C. Forensic anthropologist ...
• Which organs are not weighed during an autopsy? A. Stomach and kidneys B. ...
• During an autopsy, what information can a PA get from the hands of a corpse? ...
• What is the first step of the external examination of the body in an autopsy? ...
• _________________  analyze skeletal remains to determine the identity of a victim as well as his/her ...
• This is the stage in decomposition when livor, rigor, and algor mortis occur. A. ...
• What is the next step after the body is opened by the Y-incision? A. ...
• Healthy people decompose slower than sick people A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What material is the slanted autopsy table made from? A. Stainless-steel B. metal ...
• During an autopsy, what information can a PA get from the shoulders of a corpse? ...
• When the heart stops beating, oxygen is deprived from body cells and they begin to ...
• _________________ Insects are so useful in crime investigation that there is a whole branch devoted ...
• A surgical procedure performed by a pathologist on a dead body to ascertain—from the body, ...
• Young decompose slower than the elderly. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Stitching on the incision is like that on a A. Baseball B. Basketball ...
• The odor from a corpse begins during Active Decay A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• The examination table of a pathologist is very specialized.  What special feature does an autopsy ...
• __________causes include disease, cancer, physical injury, stroke, heart attack etc. A. Natural death ...
• Lightest internal organ removed during an autopsy is the A. liver B. kidney ...
• What is sawn off to expose the internal organs? A. Ribs B. Chestbone ...
•   This type of immunity comes from having an infectious encounter in daily life.      ...
•  Specific cellular membrane responses, assist b-cells, kill foreign cells. A.  Dendritic cells B. ...
•  These cells are active in worm and fungal infections A.  neutrophils B.  basophils ...
•  Found mainly in mucus A.  IgA B.   IgD C.  IgE D. ...
• Involved in allergies  A.  IgA B.   IgD C.  IgE D. IgG ...
•    Transplant tissue taken from a different animal species and is not likely to be successful. ...
•  Differentiate into plasma cells and form antibodies (humoral immunity). A.  Dendritic cells B. ...
•  Can Cross the placental barrier A.  IgA B.   IgD C.  IgE ...
•  The most abundant phagocytes in blood, actively engulfs and kills bacteria. A.  neutrophils ...
•  These are found in blood, stain blue and function in inflammatory events. A.  neutrophils ...
• Two functions of the lymph Immune system include absorbing fats and vitamins from the digestive ...
•  Can fix a complement. A.  IgA B.   IgD C.  IgE D. ...
•  This type of immunity is passed through the placenta or from breast milk.     ...
• Related to T-cells, but no antigen specific immunity, active against cancerous and viral infected cells. ...
•  Which immune cell is responsible for the quickest release of histamine that causes the red ...
• The first line of defense against organisms entering the body is the skin & mucus ...
•  Transplant tissue taken from an unrelated person. A. Autografts B.  Isografts C. ...
• Blood phagocytes that mature into dendritic cells and macrophages A.  neutrophils B.  basophils ...
• Relative of macrophages, lives in tissues, phagocytizes and presents it to lymphocytes. A.  Dendritic ...
• Primary cells involved in specific immune reactions A.  neutrophils B.  basophils C. ...
• The role of this antibody class is Important in activation of B cells. A.  IgA ...
•    tissue transplanted from one site to another on the same person A. Autografts ...
• This type of immunity is created when you receive a vaccination (shot) at the Dr. ...
•   Tissue grafts from an identical person (identical twin) A. Autografts B.  Isografts ...
•  Specialized tissue cells, similar to basophils that trigger inflammation. A.  Dendritic cells B. ...
• Which of the following procedures uses a photocell to measure absorbance of a culture to ...
• which term best discribes an organism that can't exist in the presence of oxygen ...
• Which of the following reason jams and dried meats often do not require refrigeration to ...
• The term facultative anaerobic refers to an organism that A. doesn't use oxygen but ...
• The generation time of a culture that produces two generations per hour is A. ...
• Which of the following has more tolerance for acidic pH (lower pH)? A. Yeast ...
• Exponential phase of growth curve of bacteria is of limited duration because of A. ...
• An organism is completely dependent on atmospheric O2 for growth. This organism is A. ...
• Generation time of Escherichia coli is A. 20 minutes B. 20 hours ...
• Which phase in a population growth curve is associated with no increase or decrease in ...
• The term obligate anaerobe refers to an organism that A. doesn't use oxygen but ...
• Time required by the cell to undergo binary fission is called the: A. exponential ...
• The ability of Vibro fischeri to produce bioluminescence chemicals only when a certain population density ...
• Microorganisms that can be found thriving in icy-cold climates would be considered.... A. barophiles ...
• An organism that expands energy to grow in a habitat with a low water activity ...
• An organism has an optimal growth rate when the hydrogen ion concentration is very high. ...
• The organism which grows best above 45 degrees are called A. psychrophillic B. ...
• which microbe would you most likely find in large number in an extremely hypertonic salty ...
• What is the function of the Z ring in binary fission? A. It controls ...
• Starvation proteins are produced by culture during which of the following segments of the growth ...
• which category of microbes would you expect to grow best on or in your body? ...
• Psychrophiles would be expected to grow A. in hot spring B. on the ...
• The equation used to obtain bacterial population by binary fission is A. N=No2n ...
• Microoranism that grow best in a low-oxygen environment is called an (n) A. aerobe ...
• A visible cluster of cells that have arisen from one parent cell growing on the ...
• The stage in the population growth curve with the highest rate of cell division is ...
• The growth is normally expressed as in turbidimetric measurement A. cells per ml ...
• The period between inoculation of bacteria in a culture medium and beginning of multiplication is ...
• An obligate halophiles requires high A. pH B. temperature C. salt ...
• Microaerophilic bacteria are those which require A. 21% oxygen for growth B. low ...
• All living things are made up of... A. cells B. cell tissues ...
• What type of bond is formed when atoms share electrons? A. Covalent B. ...
• How many hydrogen atoms are there in a water ...
• A process for removing large quantities toxins and waste ...
• I am the outer most layer of an animal ...
• This type of lipid is solid at room temperature and found in animal sources. ...
• Elements are made of  A. many types of atoms  B. the periodic table ...
• What is the name of the reaction that breaks apart a polymer into monomers? ...
• Passive transport is called passive because it occurs WITHOUT A. cause. B. energy. ...
• Macromolecules are often POLYMERS. What are polymers? A. Really large molecules made from smaller ...
• Which of the following, found ONLY in plant cells, provides structure? A. cell wall ...
• Osmosis is the diffusion of _____ across a membrane A. glucose B. NaCl ...
• _____________ allows some things to enter and leave cells, ...
• Identify the structure that is indicated by the arrow ...
• What are organic molecules? A. Molecules based on oxygen B. Molecules based on ...
• Which subatomic part of an atom gives it a positive charge? A. Neutron ...
• Two or more atoms chemically bonded together are called a A. atom B. element ...
• What is the name of the reaction that builds polymers from monomers? A. hydrolysis ...
• Which region of an atom has a negative charge? A. The nucleus B. ...
• The jelly-like fluid that surrounds the organelles in the plant and animal cells is called ...
• The nucleus of an atom is made up of ___________________. A. Protons and Neutrino ...
• What do vacuoles do? A. They give the cells their shape. B. They ...
• This subatomic particle of an atom has NO charge. ...
• What is unique about carbon and its bonding ability? A. It can bond with ...
• Water, soil, air and climate make up the _________part of an ecosystem A. biotic ...
• This is a consumer that only eats producers. A. omnivore B. herbivore ...
• A deer who only eats grasses, plants, and flowers is an example of a _________________. ...
• These are the living things in an ecosystem: plants, animals, and other organisms. A. ...
• This is a living thing, such as a plant, that can make its own food. ...
• A rabbit that is hunted by a fox is an example of ________________. A. ...
• This is a consumer that eats both plants and animals. A. producer B. ...
• These are carnivores and omnivores that hunt and eat other animals. A. prey ...
• These are organisms that break down, or decompose, wastes and the remains of dead organisms. ...
• The lion who hunts the zebra is an example of a ________________. A. prey ...
• A hyena that eats the left over remains of a gazelle that a lion killed ...
• An animal that feeds on dead animals and plants that have died. A. scavenger ...
• A lion who eats a gazelle is an example of a _________________. A. omnivore ...
• A bear who eats both plants, berries, flowers, and other animals is an example of ...
• This is a consumer that only eats meat. A. producer B. carnivore ...
• Which sphere of the earth is named using the Greek root meaning ground? A. ...
• Which is not true about food webs? A. Food webs show the transfer of ...
• In this picture, the holly leaf miner is a ...
• Organisms that eat both plants and meat are called ______________. A. omnivores B. ...
• A coral snake is venomous while its mimic, the scarlet king snake, is not. This ...
• Cowbirds are known to lay their eggs in the nests of other birds. Mother birds ...
• A tiny filter-feeding barnacle sticks to a whale. The whale is unaffected by this new ...
• The unique role a species plays in its environment is its __________________. A. abiotic ...
• Two types of organisms consume dead and decaying matter. The difference between these two types ...
• Which level of an energy pyramid is most likely to have the highest number of ...
• Which kind of niche takes competition between organisms into account? A. Realized B. ...
• We know that energy from the sun is transferred into an organism because of __________________. ...
• The viceroy butterfly and the monarch butterfly look very similar. Both are distasteful to predators. ...
• Which of these is not an example of an abiotic factor? A. soil ...
• How much chemical energy is transferred from the producer level to the secondary consumer level ...
• Many species together in one place are called ______________________. A. a niche B. ...
• Rain carries soil into a nearby pond. This is an interaction between which two spheres ...
• All cells contain which of the following? A. Chloroplast B. Plasma membrane ...
• What has the Rough ER attached to it? A. Nucleolus B. Golgi apparatus ...
• Which of the following is not part of the cell theory? A. All living ...
• Plant cells have all of the following except____. A. Cell wall B. Nucleus ...
• Which of the following is NOT found in prokaryotes? A. DNA or the genetic ...
• Which organelle are sac-like tunnels that have ribosomes attached and whose main function is to ...
• Which of the following is NOT contained in a chloroplast? A. DNA B. ...
• Which of the following is the powerhouse of the cell that breaks down food into ...
• What is the small dark structure in the nucleus that produces ribosomes? A. Rough ...
• Which of the following is the site for protein synthesis? A. Cell membrane ...
• Which of the following is the sac-like structure involved in secretion, plasma membrane repair, cell ...
• Eukaryotic cells contain____. A. only ribosomes B. Membrane bound organelles C. DNA ...
• Which of the following is a saclike structure that stores water? A. Golgi apparatus ...
• Which of the following is the function of the cytoskeleton? A. Helps a cell ...
• The thin, flexible barrier around a cell is called the____. A. Plasma membrane ...
• The folds found inside the mitochondria that give more surface area for energy-releasing processes to ...
• The gel-like substance found in all cells is the___. A. Centrioles B. Cytoskeleton ...
• Who discovered cells and named them? A. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek B. Robert Hooke ...
• Which of the following organelles is long hollow, beaded tubular structure that facilitates the movement ...
• Which organelle is the packing center for the cell? A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. ...
• Which suspect was most likely present at the crime ...
• In what way is biotechnology useful to law enforcement agencies such as the police or ...
• What would be a negative side of genetically modified foods? A. Lower cost of ...
• A company that creates hair dye would most likely employ a bio-technician for which job? ...
• What are some examples of biotechnology being used in agriculture? A. Crop irrigation ...
• Personal medical records become more available and more detailed because of biotechnological research. Based on ...
• Which is most important when investigating ethical issues in biotechnology? A. cost of the ...
• How can agricultural biotechnology have a positive impact on the environment? A. By developing ...
• Which are most closely related to biotechnology? A. medicine and agriculture B. construction ...
• What would be a positive reason to genetically alter Fraser Fir trees in North Carolina ...
• Which is a concern of scientists when genetically modifying plants? A. Plants will pass ...
• Tomatoes are genetically modified to have a longer shelf-life. Which best describes a concern people ...
• What is the most useful change biotechnology has made in agriculture? A. Crops need ...
• Residents of North Carolina presently burn 5 billion gallons of imported petroleum-based liquid fuel per ...
• True or False: There are bacteria that can clean up oil spills. A. TRUE ...
• What would increase the money made by farmers in North Carolina through biotechnology? A. ...
• Which area of biotechnology is most likely to create ethical problems? A. insulin production ...
• What conformation of bacteria is this? ...
• This is the practice of producing a genetically identical cell or organism A. Cloning ...
• What full name for this bacteria shape/conformation? ...
• If a bacterial shape is described as being strepto smart patients know  the bacteria is ...
• What can an autotrophic organism do that a heterotrophic organism can NOT? A. Make their ...
• What full name for this bacteria shape/conformation? ...
• A hetertrophic, eukaryotic organism associated with the decomposition of dead material is a(n): ...
• Humans deciding what plant or animal traits they want in a future offspring is known ...
• What full name for this bacteria shape/conformation? ...
•  Bacteria that help break down dead material in the environment are called  A. vaccines ...
• A device that generate electricity from the metabolism of microorganisms A. Bioluminiscent Bacterial Biosensor ...
• Yeast can be categorized as _________ A. bacteria B. algae C. fungi ...
• These are microbes that can survive high temperatures. A. Psychrophile B. Thermophile ...
• Where can you find DNA (genetic material) inside a prokaryote? A. Nucleus B. ...
• Why do algae blooms happen? A. there are too many nutrients in the water ...
• When using bioremediation to clean up toxic contaminated soil, what happens to the bacteria when ...
• Doctors use biosensors in the medical field to test for: A. Mental illness. ...
• EIA is a short-form for _________ in environmental biotechnology A. Environmental Information Assessor ...
• The optimum temperature where most bacteria can survive A. 31-40 B. 30-37 ...
• What is one of the most common groundwater pollutants in the Malaysia? A. Agricultural ...
• Microorganisms that take up carbon from their source of energy A. Chemoautotrophs B. ...
• A process of adding specific microorganisms to enhance the existing populations and promote biodegradation process ...
• What is the example of biofuels? A. benzene B. carbon dioxide C. ...
• When using biosensors to fight pollution, the biosensor is helpful in telling us: A. ...
• What is the effect of hypotonic solution to bacterial cell? A. shrink B. ...
• What microbes can grow in an environment that has low pH? A. Acidophile ...
• The function of Ames test is ________ A. to measure on the mutagenicity level ...
• A practice of assessing environmental conditions or pollution levels using qualitative or semi-quantitative observations ...
• What is the purpose of restriction enzymes? A. To join fragments of DNA ...
• What is the role of dideoxynucleotides (ddNTPs) in DNA sequencing? A. They initiate DNA ...
• What is the typical temperature range for the denaturation step in PCR? A. 37-42°C ...
• What is the term for the resulting DNA molecule when two different DNA fragments are ...
• What is the function of a plasmid in DNA cloning? A. Amplifying DNA segments ...
• What is the function of DNA ligase? A. To join fragments of DNA ...
• What is the goal of PCR? A. To cut DNA at specific recognition sites ...
• Why do the fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis travel away from the negative electrode? ...
• How many cycles of denaturation, annealing, and extension are typically performed in a PCR reaction? ...
• What is the purpose of bacterial transformation in DNA cloning? A. To cut and ...
• Which of the following is NOT a component of a DNA sequencing reaction? A. ...
• In gel electrophoresis, the largest DNA fragment will appear ...
• Why do bacteria have restriction enzymes? A. To prevent being infected by viruses ...
• What is denaturation in the PCR process? A. The cooling of the reaction mixture ...
• Based on these results whose blood was found in ...
• What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis? A. To cut DNA at specific recognition ...
• What is the purpose of the extension step in PCR? A. To separate DNA ...
• DNA and RNA are examples of A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. Proteins ...
• True or False. The substances that enter a reaction are the reactants. A. ...
• Cellulose, Glycogen and Starch are examples of A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. ...
• True or False. Surface tension is the property of water caused by cohesion. ...
• The building blocks of Lipids are: A. Amino acids B. Fatty Acids and ...
• DNA and RNA are examples of which of the following? A. Carbohydrates B. ...
• The building blocks of Carbohydrates are: A. Amino Acids B. Fatty Acids and ...
• Which of the following is not a part of a nucleotide? A. Sugar ...
• The building blocks of Nucleic Acids are: A. Amino acids B. Fatty Acid ...
• Hemoglobin and muscle tissue are examples of A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. ...
• Which of the following serves as insulation? A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. ...
• True or False. All organic molecules must contain carbon. A. TRUE B. ...
• True or False. Neutrons are negatively charged particles within an atom. A. TRUE ...
• Which is a source of immediate energy? A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. ...
• True or False. Covalent bonds are formed from the sharing of electrons. A. ...
• Which of the following stores and transmits genetic information? A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids ...
• The building blocks of Proteins are: A. Amino Acids B. Fatty Acids and ...
• What type of bond is between two water molecules? A. Covalent bond B. ...
• Water is a universal solvent because it... A. It can be found anywhere ...
• What word describes when water is attracted to other ...
• Which of the following is a negatively charged subatomic particle? A. Electron B. ...
• The reason water sticks to your skin is ___. A. adhesion B. cohesion ...
• The building blocks of matter A. Mass Number B. Atoms C. Nobel ...
• The reason water beads up on a freshly waxed car is due to ___. ...
• Large bodies of water do not quickly fluctuate in temperature. Why? A. Water is ...
• Capillary Action is key for A. Water moving from roots to leaves in plants ...
• Particles in an atom that are neutral and have no charge are  A. negatrons  ...
• What type of bond forms when 2 or more electrons are SHARED? A. Covalent bond ...
• substance in a solution that dissolves the other substance ...
• Why does ice float? A. As water freezes, it expands and its density decreases. ...
• A molecule with electrically charged areas is called a ...
• What is the thin film that forms on the surface of a body of water; ...
• What is replication? A. Copying DNA B. Copying RNA C. Copying Amino ...
• What is this molecule? What does it do? ...
• What is this molecule? What does it do? ...
• What is a stop codon? A. signals the end of a growing polypeptide chain ...
• True or False: DNA is double stranded and RNA is single stranded. A. TRUE ...
• DNA contains the sugar _________, RNA contains the sugar ____________. A. deoxyribose, ribose ...
• What amino acid would GGA code for? ...
• True or False: DNA has uracil and RNA has thymine. A. FALSE B. ...
• What do the instructions in genes code for? A. proteins B. ribosomes ...
• What is translation? A. decoding mRNA to make proteins B. tRNA made from ...
• What is this molecule? What does it do? ...
• What is the shape of DNA? A. double helix B. single helix ...
• What structures make up a DNA nucleotide? A. deoxyribose sugar, phosphate group, nitrogen base ...
• In DNA, percentages of A are the same as ___, and the percentages of C ...
• What is transcription? A. making of RNA off of DNA B. making more ...
• Adenine pairs with thymine in DNA, but pairs with _________ in RNA. A. uracil ...
• The mRNA codon UCU has the anti-codon _____. A. AGA B. UCU ...
• True or False: DNA's sugar is deoxyribose, and RNA has ribose A. TRUE ...
• Deoxyribose sugar + phosphate group + cytosine could be found in A. DNA ...
• DNA is found in the _________ in eukaryotes, and in the _________ in prokaryotes. ...
• How many bases specify an amino acid? A. 3 B. 2 C. ...
• During DNA replication, if a strand has bases TGGATC, what are the complimentary bases? ...
• What is the study of how traits are passed on? A. genetics B. ...
• What is an allele that is masked in the phenotype by the presence of a ...
• What is the term for having two different copies of an allele? A. heterozygous ...
• What is the term for the presence of a dominant allele that masks the presence ...
• What is the term for having two copies of the same allele? A. homozygous ...
• What is an inherited characteristic of an organism called? A. trait B. genetics ...
• What is a gene for a particular trait called? A. allele B. chromosomes ...
• What is the term for the genetic makeup of an individual? A. genotype ...
• What are long rod-shaped bodies inside a cell's nucleus called? A. chromosomes B. ...
• What is the term for an allele that masks the presence of a recessive allele ...
• What is the term for the observable trait of an individual? A. phenotype ...
• for each adenine there must be one thymine, and for each guanine there must be ...
• Replication is A. when DNA is tripled B. when a new strand of ...
• Where does the DNA separate prior to replication? A. base B. chromosome ...
• What is the phrase to help you remember which nitrogenous base compliments the other - ...
• What happens in the process of DNA replication? 3 steps A. 1 unwind 2 ...
• what kind of bond holds the nitrogen base pairs together in a DNA strand? ...
• a long continuous piece of DNA which contains many genes A. chromosome B. ...
• DNA Replication produces ___ new DNA molecules; each with one _______strand and one _____ strand. ...
• What part of our DNA is different from other species and individuals who have different ...
• for each adenine there must be one thymine, and for each guanine there must be ...
• Where is the DNA located in a eukaryotic cell? A. genes B. nucleus ...
• What is the first step in replication of DNA? A. unzip the double helix ...
• What 3 things make up a nucleotide in DNA? A. sugar, phosphate, and nitrogenous ...
• The sugar ___________ is found in DNA. A. deoxyribose B. chromosome C. ...
• According to the principle of base pairing, bonds can only form between ________ and ____________; ...
• What is the function of DNA? A. allow sunlight for photosynthesis B. produce ...
• What is on the sides of the DNA molecule? A. base B. sugar ...
• What are the 4 biomolecules? A. Proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acids B. peanuts, ...
• What is the shape of the DNA molecule? A. single file B. double ...
• What is in the middle of a DNA molecule? A. base B. phosphate ...
• the twisted ladder of the DNA molecule A. nitrogenous base B. chromosome ...
• This organ is part of the digestive system. A. lung B. heart ...
• What is the function of the respiratory system? A. To digest your food ...
• From the smallest functional units to the largest, the body is organized as follows:  ...
• This system includes the skin, hair, and nails. A. integumentary B. nervous ...
• Which system in the human body includes the heart, blood, arteries, and veins? A. ...
• Which of the following is a component of the circulatory system? A. heart ...
• The three types of muscles are  A. skeletal, smooth, and cardiac.  B. skeletal, ...
• What is the function of the digestive system? A. It transports blood and oxygen ...
• This system filters and removes liquid wastes from the body. A. endocrine B. ...
• Which statement best describes the relationship between the nervous system and the muscular system? ...
• This system secretes chemical messages (hormones) to different parts of the body. A. excretory ...
• Which of the following is a function of both the excretory system and the digestive system?  ...
• Which two body systems work together to support the body and allow the body to ...
• Which one of the following systems DO NOT absorb nutrients or get rid of wastes? ...
• Which body system protects the organs of the body? A. digestive B. respiratory ...
• This system is the body's defense against attack. A. endocrine B. excretory ...
• In what way are the digestive and circulatory systems alike? A. Both protect organs ...
• A woman running in a marathon requires a constant supply of oxygen to her muscles.Which ...
• This system receives and proccesses information. A. respiratory B. immune C. nervous ...
• What function do the endocrine system and nervous system have in common? A. Both ...
• What is the percentage of water vapour in exhaled air? A. 78% B. ...
• What is the function of the ribs and intercostal muscles? A. To carry air ...
• What is the percentage of oxygen in exhaled air? A. 78% B. 14% ...
• What is the function of the alveoli? A. To carry air to and from ...
• What is the purpose of the breathing system? A. To carry air to and ...
• What is the percentage of carbon dioxide in exhaled air? A. 78% B. ...
• What is the purpose of inhaling through the nose? A. To carry air to ...
• What is the function of the trachea? A. To carry air to and from ...
• What is the process by which oxygen passes from the alveoli into the blood vessels? ...
• What is the main gas exchanged in the alveoli? A. Nitrogen B. Oxygen ...
• What is the function of the diaphragm? A. To carry air to and from ...
• What is the function of the bronchioles? A. To carry air to and from ...
• What is the percentage of nitrogen in inhaled air? A. 78% B. 21% ...
• What happens to our chests when we breathe? A. They get bigger when we ...
• What is the effect of substrate concentration on enzyme activity? A. Higher substrate concentration ...
• What happens to an enzyme when it is exposed to extreme temperatures? A. The ...
• What is the role of enzymes in catabolic reactions? A. Enzymes break down large ...
• Why are enzymes important in all living organisms? A. They help in the breakdown ...