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• What does NPO mean on a medical chart? A. Nothing by mouth B. ...
• What does stat mean in medical terms? A. Immediately B. Slowly C. Daily ...
• What does IM mean in medical terms? A. Intravenous B. Intramuscular C. Inhalation ...
• What does Dx mean? A. symptom B. diagnosis C. treatment D. disease
• Why do farmers use genetically modified (GM) crops? A. To eliminate the need for ...
• Why is DNA fingerprinting considered a reliable method for identification? A. Each person has ...
• How might biotechnology help solve the global food crisis? A. By increasing fossil fuel ...
• What is the shape of a DNA molecule? A. Linear chain B. Double ...
• What is biotechnology? A. The study of ecosystems B. The use of living ...
• What ethical issues might arise from genetic engineering? A. Overproduction of food B. ...
• What is the basic unit of heredity? A. DNA B. Gene C. Chromosome ...
• What does a dominant allele do? A. It masks the effect of a recessive ...
• If two heterozygous parents for a trait (Tt) are crossed, what is the probability of ...
• How can CRISPR technology be used in genetic research? A. To amplify DNA strands ...
• What would happen if a mutation occurred in a gene responsible for protein synthesis? ...
• What is genetic engineering? A. Crossing plants to create hybrids B. Manipulating an ...
• What structure carries genetic information in the nucleus? A. Cell membrane B. Chromosome ...
• What might happen if genetically modified organisms (GMOs) escape into the wild? A. They ...
• What is the role of restriction enzymes in genetic engineering? A. They amplify DNA. ...
• Who is known as the father of genetics? A. Charles Darwin B. Gregor ...
• Which type of organism is commonly used in genetic modification? A. Mammals B. ...
• What is a genome? A. A specific gene that determines height B. The ...
• Which molecules store genetic information? A. RNA B. DNA C. Protein D. Lipid ...
• How could gene therapy be used to treat genetic disorders? A. By removing all ...
• The sandwich ELISA is used to test for the presence of specific antibodies in a ...
• In flow cytometry, what is forward-scatter signal a measure of? A. Fluorescence intensity ...
• Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding HAT selection? A. B cells are ...
• What is the primary role of secondary antibody in immunofluorescence? A. Amplifying the signal ...
• Which of the following is a fermentation process? A. Batch process B. Continuous ...
• Which part of the cytometer brings the cells to the interrogation point where the cells ...
• The PCR technique designed to minimize amplification of non-specific PCR products by using 2 primer ...
• The hybridomas are made by? A. Fusion T cells with myeloma cells B. ...
• RNA is copied into complementary DNA (cDNA) by... A. Taq DNA polymerase. B. ...
• What is the main purpose of using a control in an ELISA test? A. ...
• What is the primary purpose of immunofluorescence? A. Quantification of DNA B. RNA ...
• Which of the following statements about agarose gel electrophoresis is False? A. Electrophoresis in ...
• Which is not the property of real-time PCR assays? A. Incorporate dyes that bind ...
• Which of the following is an upstream process? A. Product recovery B. Product ...
• In flow cytometry, what is side-scatter signal a measure of? A. Fluorescence intensity ...
• What is the purpose of adding trypsin to cell culture in the experiment? A. ...
• Citric acid is an example of ..........and Produced by.. A. primary metabolite, Lactobacillus ...
• The technology used for the production of monoclonal antibodies. A. Mass culture technology ...
• Which of the following is not essential equipment for cell culture? A. Cell culture ...
• Which part of the cytometer converts the light signal to voltage so it can be ...
• Which part of the cytometer converts the light signal to voltage so it can be ...
• Which of the following cell is made deficient of hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRT) enzyme? ...
• The direct ELISA test requires: A. known antibody B. known antigen C. complement ...
• Which of the following statements are True for handling of cells and culture media? ...
• Which of the following is a characteristic of a bioreactor? A. It cannot be ...
• Single cell protein (SCP) is the production of? A. Extracellular proteins B. Fermentation ...
• What would be the effect on the PCR reaction if any of the following circumstances ...
• MTT assay is a colorimetric assay. Based on this concept, yellow MTT is converted through ...
• Which of the following is a common method for preserving cell cultures? A. Freezing ...
• In normal healthy cells, phosphatidyl serine is located in the extracellular surface. A. TRUE ...
• Monoclonal antibodies are: A. Heterogeneous antibodies produced from single clone of plasma cells ...
• Product formation (monitored as color intensity) is _____ the concentration of the antigen solution in ...
• Reverse transcription PCR uses: A. RNA as a template to form DNA B. ...
• What is the function of a primer in PCR? A. To identify the particular ...
• Which one of the following statements is NOT true for a continuous culture-based fermentation? ...
• What is genome sequencing and how could that be beneficial in a person's life? ...
• A genome is A. part of a chromosome B. a gene inserted into ...
• What is the benefit of using bioremediation in soil and water? A. It increases ...
• What are some examples of Current biotechnology being used in agriculture? A. Crop irrigation ...
• The purpose of selective breeding is to A. get bigger animals B. get ...
• The idea that scientists must think about how their actions or products will affect other ...
• What does genome sequencing allow scientists to do? A. Predict weather changes B. ...
• What is a genetically modified organism (GMO)? A. An organism that has been naturally ...
• What is Biotechnology? A. The study of historical biological processes B. The use ...
• Using biotechnology techniques to solve environmental issues. A. biotechnolgy B. bioremediation C. agriculture ...
• How can biotechnology help countries without freshwater access? A. By increasing fossil fuel use. ...
• Which field would most likely NOT incorporate  biotechnology? A. Agriculture  B. Genetics  ...
• Scientists have been able to cause some bacteria to produce insulin. In which area of ...
• Without quick identification of biological threats, what could happen? A. Increase in global travel ...
• Which use of biotechnology most benefits agriculture? A. producing human vaccines B. producing ...
• How does biotechnology contribute to healthcare? A. By reducing the need for medical research. ...
• Which of the following is the best example of biotechnology in a medical setting? ...
• What are the three main areas where biotechnology is researched? A. Space exploration, medicine, ...
• What can CO2 do if not harnessed as an energy source? A. It can ...
• Which of the following is a use of biotechnology in the medical field? A. ...
• What is the role of biotechnology in waste management? A. It increases waste production. ...
• If a company genetically modifies corn to produce an odor that repels insects, which best ...
• Questions or concerns about genetic engineering that need to be researched and answered before genetic ...
• Which would be reduced as a result of the development of pest-resistant crops? A. ...
• What might be a potential disadvantage of using biotechnology in agriculture? A. introduction of ...
• Which is a career that would use microorganisms to remove pollutants from water? A. ...
• Plants that have been genetically modified so that certain insects are toxic to it. ...
• Who is dolly the sheep? A. A cloned sheep B. A ordinary sheep ...
• GMO stands for A. Genetically Modeled Organisms B. Genetically Modified Organism C. I ...
• The first genomic libraries were cloned in _______________ A. Plasmid B. Bacteria ...
• What is recombinant DNA? A. Adding DNA from one organism into the DNA of ...
• Southern blot is the technique for _____________ blot A. RNA B. Lipid ...
• The term Biotechnology was first used before A. 18th century B. before 20th ...
• If you want to isolate a particular gene from a plasmid or genome of an ...
• name the first restriction enzyme discovered? A. Hind II B. EcoRI C. Hind ...
• What technique is used for separating DNA fragments? A. Gel electrophoresis B. Chromatography ...
• Another name for GMO (Genetically Modified Organsim) is ____________. A. Transgenic B. Transplanted ...
• This is the practice of inserting the DNA of another species into an organism's DNA ...
• What are selectable marker ? A. a radium labelled marker B. a type ...
• This is the practice of producing a genetically identical cell or organism A. Cloning ...
• The enzyme used in the polymerase chain reaction is a A. DNA dependent RNA ...
• What is the purpose of restriction enzymes? A. To join fragments of DNA ...
• This is the practice of producing a genetically identical cell or organism A. Cloning ...
• Why is Dolly the sheep considered a clone? A. the source of Dolly's DNA ...
• A lab technique used in crime fighting to prove a suspects innocence or guilt is ...
• GEAC stands for A. Genome Engineering Action Committee B. Ground Environment Action Committee ...
• The process of changing the genetic material of a living organism  A. Genetic Modification ...
• Fill in the blank: Covalent bonds are represented by ______ lines in chemical structures. ...
• What type of glycosidic bonds are found in cellulose? A. α glycosidic bonds ...
• What type of bond joins amino acids together in a polypeptide? A. Hydrogen bond ...
• Cellulose forms ______ chains due to its β glycosidic bonds. A. flexible B. ...
• Which of the following is an example of a protein involved in transport? A. ...
• What are triglycerides commonly known as? A. Proteins B. Carbohydrates C. Fats or ...
• What is the main structural difference between phospholipids and triglycerides? A. Phospholipids have a ...
• Fill in the blank: The reaction where two molecules combine into one bigger molecule is ...
• Water is most dense at ____. A. 0°C B. 2°C C. 4°C ...
• What is the charge on the oxygen atom in a water molecule? A. Slightly ...
• Phospholipids form a double-layered structure known as a ________. A. micelle B. bilayer ...
• Which of the following is a monomer of carbohydrates? A. Fatty acids B. ...
• What is one of the primary uses of triglycerides in the body? A. Energy ...
• Water is known as a good solvent because it can dissolve many substances. Which of ...
• What is the primary role of enzymes in biological reactions? A. They slow down ...
• Fill in the blank: The structural formula for α-Glucose is ______. A. C5H10O5 ...
• Which of the following is a plant storage polysaccharide? A. Glycogen B. Cellulose ...
• Monosaccharides have the general formula (CH2O)n, where n can be 3-7. Which of the following ...
• Triglycerides with no C=C double bonds are called ________ fatty acids. A. Unsaturated ...
• Enzymes are proteins that have a specific area where the substrate binds. This area is ...
• What type of bond is formed when two monosaccharides join together to form a disaccharide? ...
• The secondary structure of proteins is held together by ______. A. Ionic bonds ...
• Fill in the blank: One molecule of glycerol joins with three fatty acid molecules by ...
• Fill in the blank: The structure of glucose, starch, glycogen, and cellulose relates to their ...
• Which of the following is a hexose sugar? A. Ribose B. Glucose ...
• What does cohesion in water molecules mean? A. Water molecules stick to other surfaces ...
• What is the significance of the dipole nature of water? A. High specific heat ...
• Louis Pasteur demonstrated that particles of dust, carrying bacteria on their surface were the main ...
• Small pox vaccine was first discovered by A. Robert Koch B. Louis Pasteur ...
• Cell theory describes that all the living things are composed and come from preexisting cells. ...
• Hand Washing to prevent childhood fever was introduced by A. Joseph Lister B. ...
• Who is considered the 'Father of Microbiology'? A. John Tyndall B. Robert Koch ...
• Which of the following pairs of scientists were most directly responsible for the adopting of ...
• Louis Pasteur had discovered .... A. Pasteurization B. Inoculation C. Spontaneous generation ...
• Edward Jenner is the person who discovered ... A. Vaccination B. Jenner's experiment ...
• Antiseptic surgery was discovered by A. Joseph Lister B. Robert Koch C. Louis ...
• How is the antibiotic penicillin is made? A. Secreted from a fungus B. ...
• Antoni van Leeuwenhoek was the first person in history to A. Ause a magnifying ...
• Which scientist gave the first direct demonstration of the role of bacteria in causing disease? ...
• The device invented by Anton van Leeuwenhoek was a(n) A. simple microscope. B. ...
• Who first isolated the anthrax bacillus in 1876? A. Robert Koch B. John ...
• Who proposed the Koch's postulates in 1884? A. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek B. Louis ...
• Father of microbiology is A. Louis Pasteur B. Robert Koch C. A.V. Leeuwenhoek ...
• Which of the following discovered by Alexander Fleming ? A. Bacteria B. The ...
• Mycology is the study of what? A. fungi B. mice C. parasites ...
• Francesco Redi attempted to disprove the theory of abiogenesis by demonstrating A. that bacteria ...
• Who proposed the concept of Pasteurization? A. John Tyndall B. Robert Koch ...
• This scientist experimented with raw meat: one was sealed and the other was left to ...
• Which scientist conducted experiments to disprove the theory of spontaneous generation using a goosenecked flask? ...
• Which of the following describes Koch experiment ? A. Microorganisms are isolated from a ...
• What is the role of carbohydrates in energy storage? A. Carbohydrates are stored as ...
• What is the significance of ATP in cellular metabolism? A. ATP is a waste ...
• What is the role of enzymes in biochemical reactions? A. Enzymes are not involved ...
• Explain the process of glycolysis in carbohydrate metabolism. A. Glycolysis converts pyruvate into glucose, ...
• What are the main components of metabolic pathways? A. Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and vitamins ...
• How do lipids contribute to membrane fluidity? A. Lipids, particularly unsaturated fatty acids and ...
• How do proteins differ from amino acids in structure? A. Proteins are simple molecules, ...
• Describe the structure of nucleic acids. A. Nucleic acids consist of fatty acids and ...
• What are the key characteristics of phospholipids? A. Phospholipids have a hydrophobic head and ...
• What are the different types of carbohydrates? A. The different types of carbohydrates are ...
• Explain the concept of enzyme specificity. A. Enzyme specificity refers to the temperature range ...
• Describe the structure and function of triglycerides. A. Triglycerides consist of one fatty acid ...
• Define catalysis and its importance in metabolism. A. Catalysis is the acceleration of chemical ...
• What is the role of coenzymes in enzymatic reactions? A. Coenzymes are proteins that ...
• Explain the difference between anabolic and catabolic pathways. A. Anabolic pathways occur in the ...
• What are the major classes of amino acids? A. Hydrophobic, Hydrophilic, Aromatic, Aliphatic ...
• How do enzymes affect the activation energy of a reaction? A. Enzymes increase the ...
• List the functions of lipids in biological membranes. A. Protein synthesis B. DNA ...
• What are the four main types of nucleotides? A. Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, Alanine ...
• What is the primary structure of a protein? A. The three-dimensional shape of a ...
• Which of the following is not an example of a function of a lipid? ...
• Which inorganic compound plays a role in maintaining body temperature? A. carbon dioxide ...
• Synthesis reactions occur in our bodies when we A. digest food B. grow ...
• Which of the following is true regarding lipids? A. 2nd energy source B. ...
• A type of bond, unequal sharing of electrons; otherwise, assymetrical. A. covalent B. ...
• Which sugars are best providing consistent energy over time? A. monosaccharides B. disaccharides ...
• Which element is not commonly found in carbohyrates? A. sulfur B. oxygen ...
• Which diagram represents a molecule found in fats, oils, ...
• Disaccharides - A. glucose B. sucrose C. glycogen D. fructose
• Which of the following is true regarding enzymes? A. operate according to the lock ...
• The pH of the blood is usually between A. 3.35-4.35 B. 8.35-9.45 ...
• The human body stores sugar (in muscles & liver) in the form of - ...
• Which of the following is organic? A. H2O (water) B. O2 (oxygen gas ...
• A lipid molecule is best represented by which diagram. ...
• Which diagram represents a molecule that is found in ...
• Althletes tend to eat a lot of this organic compound when preparing for a game/meet? ...
• Which organic compound is made of amino acids? A. lipids B. nucleic acids ...
• A polysaccharide is broken down into samller parts through A. hydrolysis B. double ...
• Which of the following does not affect an enzyme? A. changes in pH ...
• Which of the following is NOT paired correctly? A. glucose- carbohydrate B. fat- ...
• Which characteristic of enzymes allows them to catalyze specific reactions? A. Their size ...
• Which molecule is a polymer made of amino acids? A. Lipid B. Protein ...
• What is the building block of a lipid? A. Amino acid B. Nucleotide ...
• How does temperature affect enzyme activity? A. Higher temperatures always increase activity. B. ...
• What type of bond forms between water molecules? A. Ionic B. Hydrogen ...
• Which macromolecule stores genetic information? A. Protein B. DNA C. Lipid D. Carbohydrate ...
• Which molecule is responsible for coding the traits of an organism? A. RNA ...
• Enzymes are classified as: A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. Proteins D. Nucleic acids ...
• Which of these is an inorganic molecule? A. Water B. Glucose C. Protein ...
• What is a polysaccharide? A. A simple sugar B. A chain of amino ...
• Which property of water enables capillary action in plants? A. Polarity B. High ...
• Enzymes are _________ that __________ chemical reactions. A. proteins, slow down B. proteins, ...
• What elements are common to all 4 biomolecules? ...
• What is the primary function of carbohydrates in living organisms? A. Storing genetic information ...
• Which molecule forms the structure of the cell membrane? A. Protein B. Phospholipid ...
• Which molecule is an energy-storing compound? A. ATP B. RNA C. Protein ...
• Which biomolecule is this a picture of? ...
• Based on the graph, what temperature does this enzyme ...
• Which of the following conclusionscan be drawn from this ...
• What property of water allows it to regulate temperature effectively? A. Cohesion B. ...
• . What is the effect of temperature on enzyme activity? A. Temperature increases enzyme activity ...
• . Where is amylase produced? A. In the stomach B. In the pancreas ...
• . The function of lipases is to: A. break down proteins B. synthesize carbohydrates ...
• . Two factors that affect the rate of activity of an enzyme are: A. temperature ...
• . The function of proteases is to: A. break down proteins into smaller peptides or ...
• . The effect of pH on enzyme activity is: A. Enzymes work best at a ...
• . What are the five levels of organisation in living organisms in order of smaller to ...
• . What is the optimum pH for protease in the stomach? A. pH 2 ...
• . An organ system is a group of organs that work together to perform one or ...
• . Where are proteases produced? A. In the salivary glands B. In the stomach ...
• . Which enzyme catalyses the reaction of lipids into fatty acids and glycerol? A. Lipase ...
• . Which enzyme is produced in the salivary glands and pancreas? A. Amylase B. ...
• . The lock and key theory of enzyme action is explained by the specific fit between ...
• . The function of saliva in digestion is to: A. Break down carbohydrates B. ...
• . Lipases are produced in: A. stomach B. pancreas C. liver D. large intestine ...
• . What happens to an enzyme at extreme pH or high temperatures? A. It denatures ...
• . Enzymes are described as specific because: A. they can catalyze any reaction. B. ...
• . Which of the following is an example of an organ? A. Heart B. ...
• . Which of the following is an example of a tissue? A. Liver B. ...
• . Name the five levels of organisation. A. Cells, Tissues, Organs, Organ Systems, Organisms ...
• . Which of the following enzymes are produced in the pancreas? A. Amylase, Lipase, and ...
• . What is a tissue? A. A group of similar cells that perform a specific ...
• . The function of amylase is to: A. break down proteins into amino acids ...
• . Different digestive enzymes have different optimum pHs because: A. they are adapted to work ...
• . The function of the liver in digestion is to: A. produce bile to help ...
• . Denatured in the context of enzymes refers to: A. The process of an enzyme ...
• . Which of the following are key terms related to enzymes and the digestive system? ...
• . Enzymes are: A. Proteins that act as biological catalysts B. Lipids that store ...
• . The role of the small intestine in digestion is to: A. absorb nutrients and ...
• . Denatured means: A. Changed in structure, often by heat or acidity B. Made ...
• . What organ is responsible for absorbing water and getting rid of waste? A. Small ...
• . What do we call the process of breaking food into smaller pieces using the teeth? ...
• . What is the waste left over after digestion called? A. Nutrients B. Saliva ...
• . Which of the following is NOT part of the digestive system? A. Heart ...
• . What is the function of the liver in digestion? A. It absorbs food ...
• .  What is the main job of the digestive system?  A. break down foods into ...
• . What happens to food in the stomach? A. It turns into waste B. ...
• . What organ helps control blood sugar and releases digestive enzymes? A. Liver B. ...
• . Which organ is responsible for starting the digestion process? A. Stomach B. Small ...
• . What happens if the large intestine doesn’t absorb enough water? A. The food stays ...
• . What organ produces stomach acid to help break down food? A. Liver B. ...
• . What do we call the flap that prevents food from going into the windpipe? ...
• . Why is chewing food important? A. It makes food taste better B. It ...
• . ______secretes pancreatic juice. A. Liver B. Brain C. Pancreas D. Skin
• . Bile is produced by the _______ and stored in the _______. A. Pancreas; Gallbladder ...
• . What helps push food down the esophagus into the stomach? A. Gravity B. ...
• . What is the tube that connects the mouth to the stomach? A. Esophagus ...
• . What should you do to keep your digestive system healthy? A. Eat a lot ...
• . What is the main function of the small intestine? A. To store waste ...
• . What organ follows the small intestine in the digestive system? A. Large intestine ...
• . What is the role of saliva in digestion? A. It makes food taste better ...
• . What organ stores and releases bile to help break down fat? A. Stomach ...
• . Imagine you're a superhero like Jariah, and you need to know what the special band ...
• . Zamaria is practicing ballet and imagines herself as a graceful swan. To perfect her pose, ...
• . In a lively gym class, Getse and Elli are on a mission to discover the ...
• . In an anatomy class, Aubrey and Gaby are having a friendly competition to see who ...
• . During an exciting soccer match, Jariah, with a swift move, kicks the ball to the ...
• . Patience and Celeste were having a friendly debate about how our bodies work. Patience pointed ...
• . Imagine Ini and her friend Paola are having a fun race to see who can ...
• . During an exciting soccer match, Preston, with his eyes on the ball, skillfully moves his ...
• . Imagine Jariah is at the gym, and she's showing off her muscles by curling a ...
• . During a lively yoga session, Natalie gracefully stretches her arm to the side like a ...
• . Imagine Zamaria is at a magic show, and she needs to hold a bowl of ...
• . During a lively gym class, Getse and Ariana were having a friendly competition to see ...
• . Jariah and Sonia are on a treasure hunt and are examining a mysterious map. Jariah ...
• . After a thrilling race with her friends, Ini felt her heart pounding like a drum. ...
• . During a lively swimming class, Vanessa is playfully learning to move her arm in a ...
• . Jariah and her friends, Celeste and Gaby, are on a thrilling adventure exploring the mysteries ...
• . During a lively dance-off, Ariana twirls around, performing a graceful circular movement with her arm ...
• . Patience and Gisel are on a mission to explore how muscle or nerve cells react ...
• . What is the main role of carbohydrates? A. protecting your nerves B. forming ...
• . Nutrients that build and repair tissues and cells e.g. meat, milk, eggs. A. Fat ...
• . The three classes of nutrients that supply our body with energy are A. Glucose, ...
• . Proteins are found in... A. dried beans, peas, and nuts B. milk and ...
• . Is it possible for two meals that contain the same number of calories to have ...
• . What are they two types of digestion? A. water soluble and fat soluble ...
• . Water is extremely important to your health because it A. makes us sweat ...
• . Carbohydrates should make up________ percent of your daily caloric intake. A. 20-45 B. ...
• . Which of the following foods is NOT a carbohydrate? A. rice B. bread ...
• . Proteins should make up _________ percent of your daily caloric intake. A. 10-35 ...
• . Carbohydrates is the primary source of fuel for the body, what is the secondary source ...
• . The process of maintaining a steady state inside your body is called A. homeostasis ...
• . Which description BEST represents a healthy diet? A. Eating only carbohydrates B. Eating ...
• . Fats should only make up_______ percent of your daily caloric intake A. 20-35 ...
• . WHAT ARE THE 6 NUTRIENTS? A. Carbs, Meats, Fibers, Water, Protein, and Dairy ...
• . Which nutrient gives you energy? A. calcium B. fiber C. carbohydrates
• . Which of the following nutrients is NOT used by the body for energy? A. ...
• . The chemical process by which your body breaks down food to release energy is called ...
• . Bread is a great source of which energy nutrient? A. Carbohydrates B. Fats ...
• . The amount of energy released when nutrients are broken down is measured in units called ...
• . Which organ connects the mouth to the stomach? A. Stomach B. Small intestine ...
• . Why do we need a balanced diet? A. To eat as much food as ...
• . Where does digestion begin? A. Stomach B. Small intestine C. Mouth D. Liver ...
• . Which food group should we eat the least of? A. Proteins B. Vitamins ...
• . Which of the following is a healthy school snack that includes foods from three food ...
• . Which enzyme breaks down carbohydrates? A. Lipase B. Protease C. Amylase D. Lactase ...
• . Which food group should we eat the most of? A. Fats and oils ...
• . Where is amylase produced? A. Stomach and pancreas B. Mouth and pancreas ...
• . What is the function of the large intestine? A. Absorb nutrients B. Produce ...
• . Which food group helps build muscles and helps us grow? A. Proteins B. ...
• . Which enzyme helps break down proteins? A. Protease B. Amylase C. Sucrase ...
• . What does lactase break down? A. Protein B. Fat C. Lactose D. Starch ...
• . Why does our body need to digest food before using it? A. To make ...
• . Which organ is responsible for absorbing nutrients from food? A. Stomach B. Small ...
• . What is the function of the stomach? A. Absorb water B. Break down ...
• . What are enzymes? A. Proteins that help break down food B. Cells that ...
• . Where is sucrase found, and what does it break down? A. Small intestine; breaks ...
• . Which part of the digestive system removes undigested waste? A. Small intestine B. ...
• . Which enzyme breaks down fats? A. Protease B. Lipase C. Sucrase D. Lactase ...
• . What is digestion? A. The process of making food tasty B. The breakdown ...
• . What nutrient helps to provide energy for physical activities? A. Proteins B. Carbohydrates ...
• . What does the Food Pyramid represent? A. The types of foods to avoid ...
• . Which is an example of manipulative movement skill? A. Running B. Twisting ...
• . Eating a variety of food ensures that we get: A. Enough calories B. ...
• . Which activity would improve cardiovascular endurance? A. Lifting heavy weights B. Dancing for ...
• . Which of the following is NOT a benefit of eating a balanced diet? A. ...
• . Which of these is a good example of moderate physical activity? A. Sitting ...
• . What is the function of vitamins in the body? A. To store energy ...
• . The Nutritional Guidelines for Filipinos suggest: A. Eating more fruits and vegetables than sweets ...
• . Which of the following helps the children grow and strong? A. Eating junkfood ...
• . How can we make sure our food is safe to eat? A. By washing ...
• . Which of the following is the most important when choosing healthy foods? A. How ...
• . What type of nutrient is most important for protecting the body from diseases ? ...
• . What does moderate to vigorous physical activity mean? A. Activities are easy ...
• . Why is water considered an essential nutrient? A. It provides energy B. It ...
• . Which of the following is a sign that you are eating a balanced diet? ...
• . Why do we need carbohydrates in our diet? A. They help in muscle repair ...
• . When engaging in rhythmic activities, which element is related to the way the body moves? ...
• . What does agility refer to in physical activity? A. The ability to maintain balance ...
• . Which of these is a benefit of eating a balanced meal? A. It makes ...
• . Why it is important to have a physical activity activity like dancing in a healthy ...
• . Which of the following is an example of a non-locomotor movement? A. Running ...
• . Which of the following best describes the role of DNA in cells? A. DNA ...
• . How does the structure of DNA facilitate its replication? A. The double helix structure ...
• . What is the basic structural unit of DNA? A. Nucleotide B. Amino acid ...
• . How do alleles contribute to genetic variation? A. Alleles are identical in all individuals. ...
• . Which part of the cell is primarily responsible for assembling proteins? A. Nucleus ...
• . Explain how the sequence of nucleotides in DNA determines the structure of proteins. A. ...
• . What is the relationship between DNA, genes, and chromosomes? A. Genes are made of ...
• . What is the role of mRNA in protein synthesis? A. mRNA provides energy for ...
• . What is the function of tRNA during protein synthesis? A. tRNA provides energy for ...
• . Describe the process by which DNA is transcribed into RNA. A. DNA is directly ...
• . Which process involves the conversion of mRNA into a protein? A. Mutation B. ...
• . What is the primary function of ribosomes in a cell? A. Ribosomes break down ...
• . Identify the process by which DNA is replicated. A. Transcription B. Translation ...
• . What evidence supports the idea that DNA determines protein structure? A. Proteins are made ...
• . How do chromosomes relate to the inheritance of traits? A. Chromosomes are unrelated to ...
• . What role do histones play in the structure of chromosomes? A. Histones are enzymes ...
• . Which of the following processes involves the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template? ...
• . Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix during replication? A. DNA ...
• . How can a mutation in DNA affect an organism's traits? A. Mutations always improve ...
• . What is the function of red blood cells? A. To produce energy from glucose. ...
• . Which organ is responsible for pumping blood throughout the body? A. Liver B. ...
• . What is the main function of the digestive system? A. To help you breathe ...
• . What are molecules? A. Large structures that make up organs. B. The small ...
• . What is the role of the kidneys in the human body? A. To convert ...
• . What is a system in the context of the human body? A. A single ...
• . What are organs? A. Proteins that speed up chemical reactions. B. Parts of ...
• . Which system in the body helps you breathe? A. Digestive System B. Circulatory ...
• . What is the function of the circulatory system? A. To break down food into ...
• . What is the primary role of the respiratory system? A. To convert glucose into ...
• . What is the role of the nervous system? A. To help you breathe in ...
• . What is cellular respiration? A. The process of breaking down food into nutrients. ...
• . What is metabolism? A. The process of breathing in oxygen and breathing out carbon ...
• . What is the primary function of the liver in the human body? A. To ...
• . What are nutrients? A. Gases needed for cellular respiration. B. Substances in food ...
• . What is asthma? A. A condition where the body struggles to control blood sugar ...
• . What is diabetes? A. A condition where the body struggles to control blood sugar ...
• . What is glucose? A. A type of protein that speeds up chemical reactions. ...
• . What is ATP? A. A type of sugar used for energy. B. A ...
• . What is the role of enzymes in the body? A. They are gases needed ...
• . Which gas is needed by your body to make energy? A. Carbon Dioxide ...
• . Describe the negative feedback mechanism involved in blood glucose regulation. A. The release of ...
• . What is the primary function of insulin in blood glucose regulation? A. To increase ...
• . Explain how insulin and glucagon work together to maintain blood glucose homeostasis. A. Insulin ...
• . What is the net yield of ATP molecules from one molecule of glucose during glycolysis, ...
• . Which of the following is NOT a unique enzyme used in gluconeogenesis to bypass the ...
• . Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate in gluconeogenesis? A. Hexokinase ...
• . Which of the following is a common complication of uncontrolled diabetes? A. Neuropathy ...
• . Why is the pancreas important in blood glucose regulation? A. The pancreas controls blood ...
• . Which type of diabetes is typically associated with an autoimmune attack on the pancreatic beta ...
• . What happens to blood glucose levels when insulin is released? A. Blood glucose levels ...
• . After glycolysis, what are the three primary metabolic fates of pyruvate? A. Conversion to ...
• . Which of the following is the most common cause of type 2 diabetes mellitus? ...
• . Gestational diabetes refers to: A. Diabetes caused by a genetic defect B. Diabetes ...
• . Explain the role of the liver in maintaining blood glucose levels. A. The liver ...
• . In type 2 diabetes, the body primarily develops resistance to the action of which hormone? ...
• . What are the two main products of the pentose phosphate pathway (PPP) and what are ...
• . Which enzyme catalyzes the hydrolysis of fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate in gluconeogenesis? A. Phosphoglucose isomerase ...
• . What is the primary treatment approach for type 1 diabetes? A. Insulin therapy ...
• . What is the role of NAD+ in glycolysis? A. It phosphorylates glucose B. ...
• . How does glycogenolysis differ from glycogen synthesis, and what is the primary product released by ...
• . In what situation is glucagon released to increase blood glucose levels? A. When blood ...
• . What is the net gain of ATP molecules produced during glycolysis? A. 1 ATP ...
• . How many ATP molecules are consumed during the production of one molecule of glucose by ...
• . Transketolase requires what cofactor? A. Niacin (B3) B. Riboflavin (B2) C. Thiamine (B1) ...
• . Which of the following is NOT a substrate for gluconeogenesis? A. Lactate B. ...
• . What role does the hormone glucagon play in blood sugar regulation? A. It lowers ...
• . Which step of glycolysis is catalyzed by phosphofructokinase? A. Conversion of dihydroxyacetone phosphate to ...
• . How does glucagon help regulate blood glucose levels? A. By stimulating the liver to ...
• . How does a high concentration of ADP affect the activity of phosphofructokinase (PFK), and what ...
• . Obesity contributes to the development of type 2 diabetes primarily by: A. Reducing insulin ...
• . What is the primary product of glycolysis? A. Ethanol B. Pyruvic acid ...
• . The classic triad of symptoms in uncontrolled diabetes includes: A. Hypertension, weight gain, fatigue ...
• . What is the immediate precursor to glycogen in glycogen synthesis, and what molecule is required ...
• . How does the primary metabolic pathway of fructose in the liver differ from that of ...
• . Which of the following hormones is known to raise blood glucose levels and can oppose ...
• . GSSG is reduced through the use of what co-factor and enzyme in RBC? A. ...
• . What is the fate of pyruvate under anaerobic conditions? A. Converted to ethanol ...
• . In which forms is glucose primarily stored in living organisms? A. Starch in animals, ...
• A 21 y/o Soldier presents with a rash for 14 days. Soldier states it started ...
• What disease is categorized has having coin shaped lesions typically the size of a quarter? ...
• An 18 y/o Soldier presents with a rash on their face after being in the ...
• What is the Atopic Triad? A. Atopic dermatitis, atopic vaginitis, atopic keratitis B. ...
• What disease has an erythematous illumination under a woods lamp? A. Erythrasma B. ...
• What is the key sign for candidiasis? A. Itch before the rash B. ...
• What do you call tinea located on the left lower quadrant of the abdomen? ...
• Which one of these lesions is a secondary lesion? A. Tumor B. Nodule ...
• What do you call a lesion filled with clear fluid that is 1.9cm in size? ...
• What do you call a raised lesion that is 1.4cm in size? A. Papule ...
• A young Soldier presents with a rash with central clearing, you treated with a topical ...
• Which skin cancer has the highest risk of metastasizing? A. Basal Cell Carcinoma ...
• What do you call a lesion filled with green fluid that is 1.1cm in size? ...
• Patient reports to the clinic after an increase in eye pain. Visual acuity is decreased ...
• What do you call a flat lesion that is 0.8cm in size? A. Papule ...
• What do you call a raised lesion that is 0.6cm in size? A. Papule ...
• What is the medical term for a white lesion? A. Hyperpigmentation B. Hypopigmentation ...
• What do you call a flat lesion that is 1.2cm in size? A. Papule ...
• What do you have to warn a Soldier about if they have Verruca vulgaris? ...
• Which phototype on the Fitzpatrick Skin Scale has the highest risk for skin cancer? ...
• . Why is it important for cosmetologists to study skin structure, growth, and nutrition? A. ...
• . How many square inches would the skin of an average adult cover if stretched out? ...
• . What is the deepest layer of the epidermis called? A. Stratum corneum B. ...
• . What is one of the key responsibilities of cosmetologists regarding skin health? A. To ...
• . How much thicker is the dermis compared to the epidermis? A. 5 times ...
• . Which cells in the basal cell layer produce melanin? A. Keratinocytes B. Melanocytes ...
• . How many years of medical school do dermatologists attend? A. Two years B. ...
• . What is the main component of hair and nails found in the stratum corneum? ...
• . What is the role of sebaceous glands? A. Produce sweat B. Produce oil ...
• . What is the role of a dermatologist in relation to skin diseases? A. To ...
• . What is the focus of twenty-first century skin care? A. Traditional methods B. ...
• . Which layer of the epidermis is clear and transparent? A. Stratum corneum B. ...
• . What texture should healthy skin ideally have? A. Rough B. Smooth C. Scaly ...
• . What is one reason for studying skin structure and nutrition? A. To learn about ...
• . What is the outermost layer of the epidermis? A. Stratum germinativum B. Stratum ...
• . Which skin pigment is responsible for red to yellow coloring? A. Eumelanin B. ...
• . What causes skin to wrinkle and sag as we age? A. Increased collagen production ...
• . Inflammation of the skin due to irritating chemicals is called: A. Contact dermatitis ...
• . Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin? A. Protection ...
• . What is the primary role of a dermatologist? A. To diagnose and treat hair ...
• . The stratum corneum forms a protective barrier using which substances? A. Collagen and elastin ...
• . Which type of nerve fibers control the arrector pili muscles causing goosebumps? A. Motor ...
• . Which layer of the skin is the thickest? A. Epidermis B. Dermis ...
• . The reticular layer of the dermis contains all of the following EXCEPT: A. Blood ...
• . What is the role of the papillary layer of the dermis? A. It forms ...
• . What factor increases melanin production in the skin? A. Genetics B. Aging ...
• . Which of the following is a characteristic of healthy skin? A. Dry and cracked ...
• . What type of nerve fibers regulate the sweat and oil glands? A. Motor Nerves ...
• . Which layer of the epidermis is responsible for producing new skin cells and melanin? ...
• . What layer of the epidermis produces keratin? A. Stratum Lucidum B. Stratum Granulosum ...
• . The subcutaneous tissue is primarily composed of: A. Collagen fibers B. Melanin ...
• . What is the role of sensory nerves in the skin? A. To regulate oil ...
• . Which layer of the epidermis forms fingerprints and footprints? A. Stratum Corneum B. ...
• . Melissa has been to tanning bed frequently. She has a lesion with irregular borders and ...
• . What function does the subcutaneous tissue serve in the skin? A. It helps in ...
• . Which type of skin gland is responsible for producing sweat to regulate body temperature? ...
• . What is the role of the sebaceous glands? A. To produce collagen B. ...
• . What happens to collagen fibers as a result of aging and UV exposure? A. ...
• . Which function of the skin is associated with the acid mantle? A. Protection against ...
• . What happens when elastin production decreases with age? A. The skin becomes more elastic ...
• . Which skin function involves removing toxins through sweat? A. Absorption B. Protection ...
• . How does sun exposure affect melanin production? A. It decreases melanin production B. ...
• . What condition affects blood circulation outside the heart and brain, often in the legs? ...
• . Which valve controls blood flow between the left ventricle and the aorta? A. Mitral ...
• . What is the surgical procedure that creates a new route for blood flow around a ...
• . What treatment is used to restore normal heart rhythm in cardiac arrest? A. Echocardiogram ...
• . What is chest pain due to reduced blood flow to the heart called? A. ...
• . What is the absence of electrical activity in the heart called? A. Asystole ...
• . What is the buildup of plaque in the arteries called? A. Aneurysm B. ...
• . What imaging test is used to visualize the heart’s movement and function? A. Electrocardiogram ...
• . What procedure is used to open blocked coronary arteries using a balloon? A. Electrocardiogram ...
• . What test records the electrical activity of the heart? A. Coronary angiogram B. ...
• . Which heart chamber pumps oxygenated blood into the aorta? A. Right atrium B. ...
• . What condition occurs when the heart cannot pump blood effectively? A. Congestive heart failure ...
• . What substance contributes to plaque formation in arteries? A. Cholesterol B. Beta blocker ...
• . What is the term for reduced blood supply to the heart muscle? A. Myocardial ...
• . What device is implanted to regulate heartbeats? A. Defibrillator B. Pacemaker C. Echocardiogram ...
• . What is the leading cause of heart attacks? A. Aneurysm B. Coronary artery ...
• . What is an abnormal bulging of a blood vessel called? A. Aneurysm B. ...
• . What is inflammation of a vein called? A. Phlebitis B. Ischemia C. Aneurysm ...
• . What condition occurs when the mitral valve does not close properly, allowing blood to flow ...
• . What type of medication prevents blood clots? A. Beta blocker B. Anticoagulant ...
• . What is the main artery that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest ...
• . What is the inflammation of the inner lining of the heart called? A. Endocarditis ...
• . Which artery supplies blood to the brain? A. Aorta B. Carotid artery ...
• . Which structure in the heart serves as the natural pacemaker? A. Aortic valve ...
• . What type of medication reduces heart rate and blood pressure? A. Beta blocker ...
• . What term describes the contraction phase of the heart cycle? A. Ischemia B. ...
• . What condition is characterized by narrowing of the coronary arteries? A. Congestive heart failure ...
• . What is the function of the right side of the heart? A. Pumps oxygenated ...
• . Venules are vessels that take blood from capillaries and join to form a ______. ...
• . What is the definition of the heart? A. A two-chambered muscle B. A ...
• . Which of the following is a characteristic of veins? A. Thick walls B. ...
• . Red blood cells carry oxygen with the help of ______. A. Hemoglobin B. ...
• . Fill in the blank: All animals have blood, but its nature varies from one species ...
• . What is the primary function of white blood cells? A. Transport oxygen B. ...
• . The circulatory system helps prevent ________ by maintaining stable blood pressure. A. Shock ...
• . What is the main function of the circulatory system? A. To digest food ...
• . Fill in the blank: The _______ is the chamber of the heart that receives blood. ...
• . The heart is divided into four compartments. Which of the following is not one of ...
• . What is the primary function of red blood cells? A. To carry oxygen from ...
• . The left side of the heart pumps _______ blood all over the body. A. ...
• . White blood cells produce ______, a kind of protein that destroys bacteria, viruses, and other ...
• . Which of the following is NOT a type of blood vessel? A. Arteries ...
• . What is one of the functions of the circulatory system? A. Stabilizing body temperature ...
• . The circulatory system consists of the heart, veins, and ______. A. Lungs B. ...
• . Arteries carry blood away from the heart and divide into ______, which are small arteries ...
• . What is blood? A. A solid in the circulatory system B. A liquid ...
• . The _______ valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle. A. Bicuspid ...
• . Which part of the horse's heart is responsible for carrying oxygenated blood from the lungs ...
• . What is active immunity? A. Protection acquired after exposure to a pathogen B. ...
• . What is the term for disease transmission through contaminated objects? A. Vector transmission ...
• . Which of the following is a component of the innate immune system? A. Skin ...
• . What is a carrier of disease? A. An animal that contracts and spreads a ...
• . What is vertical spread in the context of disease transmission? A. Transmission of disease ...
• . Which of the following is NOT a component of the innate immune system? A. ...
• . What is adaptive immunity? A. A non-specific immune response that acts immediately B. ...
• . What is horizontal spread in the context of disease transmission? A. The spread of ...
• . What is a characteristic of passive immunity? A. Requires exposure to the pathogen ...
• . What role does the innate immune system play in animals? A. Provides energy ...
• . Which of the following is a route of transmission for diseases? A. Direct contact ...
• . What is a reservoir of disease? A. A population of animals carrying a disease ...
• . How is herd immunity typically achieved? A. Through vaccination of a small group ...
• . Which route of transmission involves breathing in tiny particles? A. Ingestion B. Inhalation ...
• . How can vertical spread occur? A. Through contaminated food B. Transplacentally or through ...
• . What is the role of innate immunity in animals? A. It provides immediate protection ...
• . What does herd immunity refer to? A. The resistance to the spread of a ...
• . What is a characteristic of adaptive immunity? A. It is initiated without exposure to ...
• . How is passive immunity obtained? A. Through exposure to the pathogen B. Only ...
• . What is the primary mode of transmission for the common cold? A. Through contaminated ...
• . What does active immunity lead to? A. Activation of adaptive immunity and long-term defense ...
• . What is it called when a large part of ...
• . Communicable diseases can't be spread from animals to other animals. A. TRUE B. ...
• . Which of the following is NOT true about passive immunity? A. It requires exposure ...
• . What is vector transmission? A. Transmission through direct contact B. Transmission through ingestion ...
• . The study of the distribution and determinants of health-related events in populations is known as: ...
• . Herd immunity refers to the resistance of a group to a disease because a sufficient ...
• . Predisposing factors for diseases include lifestyle choices and environmental conditions. A. TRUE B. ...
• . Diseases can be categorized into three groups based on the frequency of occurrence: common, rare, ...
• . A non-living resource that can contribute to disease transmission is: A. Air B. ...
• . Which of the following categories of disease occurs most frequently in a population? A. ...
• . Non-communicable diseases are often caused by: A. Bacteria and viruses B. Poor lifestyle ...
• . The pattern of diseases refers to the analysis of how diseases are distributed within populations. ...
• . Herd immunity is achieved when: A. A majority of the population becomes immune to ...
• . Healthcare-associated diseases are infections acquired in hospitals or healthcare settings. A. TRUE B. ...
• . A resource in the context of disease refers only to living organisms. A. TRUE ...
• . Which of the following is an example of a communicable disease? A. Diabetes ...
• . Which of the following is NOT a method of disease transmission? A. Direct contact ...
• . A compromised host is an individual whose immune system is weakened, making them more susceptible ...
• . A compromised host may be a result of which of the following conditions? A. ...
• . Non-communicable diseases cannot be transmitted from one person to another. A. TRUE B. ...
• . Animal resources are important vectors in the transmission of certain diseases like malaria. A. ...
• . Which of the following is a predisposing factor for disease? A. Eating a balanced ...
• . Healthcare-associated infections (HAIs) are typically acquired: A. During community contact B. Through contaminated ...
• . Communicable diseases are diseases that can spread from one person to another. A. TRUE ...
• . Larger vessels may have: A. Increased resistance and decreased blood flow B. Decreased ...
• . Common arrhythmia in STEMI: A. Atrial fibrillation B. Ventricular tachycardia / fibrillation ...
• . Chest discomfort lasting >10 minutes indicates: A. Stable angina B. NSTEMI C. STEMI ...
• . Nitrates treatment mechanism of action: A. Increase LV end-diastolic pressure and volume B. ...
• . Biomarker of cardiac necrosis: A. Troponin I B. BNP C. CRP D. D-dimer ...
• . BP 130/85 - 135/85 mmHg is classified as: A. Normal blood pressure B. ...
• . Morphine’s effect in cardiac treatment is to: A. Increase preload B. Decrease preload ...
• . 5 minutes of heart pain indicates: A. Unstable angina B. Stable angina ...
• . Hepatomegaly is associated with: A. Left heart failure B. Right heart failure ...
• . Nitrate mechanism of action includes: A. Decrease preload and afterload B. Increase preload ...
• . Lifestyle modifications for hypertension include all except: A. BMI < 30 B. Regular ...
• . Pressure natriuresis is found in: A. Hypothyroidism B. Hypertension C. Heart failure ...
• . STEMI affects which layer of the heart? A. Subendocardial B. Transmural C. Epicardial ...
• . Recurrence of elevation of cardiac biomarkers is observed in: A. 6-12 hours B. ...
• . Cardiac biomarkers elevated in NSTEMI: A. Troponin I B. CK-MB C. Both Troponin ...
• . Pulmonary edema is associated with: A. Left heart failure B. Right heart failure ...
• . To exclude myocardial infarction, which cardiac biomarker is used? A. CK-MB B. Cardiac ...
• . Cirrhosis leads to what kind of effusion? A. Transudative B. Exudative C. Purulent ...
• . End-stage renal disease may have hypertension with volume retention – true or false? A. ...
• . Beta blockers: A. Increase myocardial contractility B. Decrease myocardial contractility C. Have no ...
• . When PCI is unavailable, what is immediately needed? A. Antiplatelet therapy B. Fibrinolysis ...
• . Gregor Mendel is considered the father of genetics because he... A. studied pea plants ...
• . The heart has 4 chambers called... A. atria and ventricles B. aorta and ...
• . You can extract DNA from all of the following EXCEPT A. strawberries B. ...
• . Which infection of the alveoli leads to fluid in the lungs? A. Pneumonia ...
• . Which blood type is considered the Universal Donor (they can safely donate to any blood ...
• . Which is the BEST way to properly clean our hands? A. Warm water and ...
• . DORSAL means which side of the body? A. back/top B. front/bottom C. above ...
• . Most specifically, where does DNA live inside of an organism? A. Inside our blood ...
• . Our heart has 2 paths for blood flow - one from the heart to the ...
• . Which body plane divides the body into superior and inferior parts? A. Transverse ...
• . Which scientist originally used x-ray crystallography to discover DNA? A. Watson B. Crick ...
• . What is the white part of our eyes that serves as the outer layer, helping ...
• . How do the lungs expand and collapse in order for us to breathe? A. ...
• . What are the characteristics offspring can inherit from their parents? A. traits B. ...
• . What are different forms of the same trait? A. genes B. alleles ...
• . What is the function of white blood cells? A. To carry oxygen through the ...
• . Which layer of the skin contains your blood vessels? A. epidermis B. dermis ...
• . Which type of sugar is in your blood? A. glucose B. fructose ...
• . The integumentary system refers to your... A. Skin B. Ability to fight off ...
• . When talking about the positioning of the body, what does superior mean? A. Above ...
• . Which body systems work together to help our body move? A. Muscular/Skeletal B. ...
• . You may want to write this one out! Use the letter e for eye color. ...
• . Which blood type is considered the Universal Recipient (they can safely receive any blood type ...
• . What shape is DNA? A. double helix B. triple helix C. single helix ...
• . How are cow eyes different from human eyes? A. Cow eyes have a tapetum ...
• . When we built our (totally perfectly performing) lung models, the straw represented our... A. ...
• . What is the most common blood type? A. A B. B C. AB ...
• . Where are red blood cells made? A. bone marrow B. heart C. arteries ...
• . The eye's iris is... A. a muscle B. an organ C. a sensory ...
• . How do infectious diseases spread? A. magically and mysteriously B. people, environment, animals ...
• . Your blood is made up of ___ different parts A. 2 B. 4 ...
• . Your skin does all of the following EXCEPT A. regulate body temperature B. ...
• . What color is blood? A. Red if it's oxygenated and blue if it's de-oxygenated ...
• In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant over brown ...
• The chromosomes that determine gender are A. X and Y B. Chromosome 14 ...
• If two parents are carriers for sickle cell disease, then their children have a ____ ...
• Which of the following is true about X-linked recessive disorders? A. They are more ...
• During mitosis, the number of chromosomes in the cell ___________. A. Stays the same ...
• A pedigree can be used to __________________. A.   predict what chance an individual ...
• In a pedigree, which of the following represents a female carrier? A. A colored ...
• In a pedigree chart, what does a filled square represent? A. A male with ...
• How many kids did the mother and father from ...
• Huntington’s Disease is an autosomal dominant condition. This means A. Two recessive copies are ...
• Look at the pedigree. What are the chances that ...
• The ability to curl your tongue up on the sides is dominant to not being ...
• Genes contain instructions for assembling A. Chromosomes B. Lipids C. Carbohydrates D. Proteins ...
• A man with hemophilia would have which of the following genotypes? A. XHY ...
• Look at the pedigree. What are the chances that ...
• If a disorder shows a recessive pattern of inheritance, then an affected individual must inherit ...
• During meiosis, the number of chromosomes in the cell ___________. A. Stays the same ...
• Sickle cell anemia is caused by  A. a lack of red blood cells ...
• Organisms that have two different alleles for a particular trait are said to be ...
• If a mother is a carrier for a recessive genetic disorder and the father is ...
• What are the 4 components of blood? A. plasma, marrow, rbc, wbc B. ...
• Adult red blood cells push out their nucleus to... A. carry more oxygen ...
• If a criminal leaves only red blood cells behind at a crime scene, the detective ...
• The adult red blood cell does not have... A. hemoglobin B. DNA ...
• A person who studies the blood. A. cardiologist B. orthopedist C. hematologist
• Made in the bone marrow. A. platelets B. wbc C. rbc D. all ...
• There are about 5, 000, 000 rbc in one drop of blood. A. TRUE ...
• wbc fight... A. infection B. rbc C. platelets D. plasma
• Cells in blood that fight infections. A. platelets B. plasma C. wbc ...
• platelets A. the clotting component in blood B. fight infection C. have hemoglobin ...
• about 90% water A. plasma B. wbc C. rbc D. platelets
• Waste that is carried by blood. A. oxygen B. hemoglobin C. carbon dioxide ...
• Erythrocytes A. white blood cells B. red blood cells C. platelets D. plasma ...
• These become all forms of blood cells in the marrow. A. stem cells ...
• A RBC lives... A. 120 days B. 3 to 4 months C. both ...
• The scientific name for red blood cells. A. erythrocyte B. leukocyte C. platelets ...
• The yellowish liquid portion of the blood that contains proteins, nutrients, vitamins, hormones, platelets, and ...
• Leukocyte. A. a red blood cell B. a white blood cell C. platelet ...
• A protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen to our cells and makes the ...
• The nucleus of a cell holds the... A. mitochondria B. DNA C. lysosome ...
• These will clot and make a scab. A. plasma B. wbc C. rbc ...
• The process of platelets clotting together to seal a wound and prevent blood loss. ...
• A patient’s hematocrit value is significantly higher than normal. What medical condition should be considered?  ...
• In the Specific Gravity Method, what happens to a drop of blood with a high ...
• Why is it important to never open the centrifuge lid while it is running?  ...
• If a microcentrifuge tube cracks during centrifugation, what is the most likely cause?  A. ...
• A technician is preparing samples for centrifugation and realizes that some tubes are underfilled. What ...
• If the hematocrit value for a patient is 0.60 L/L, what condition does this likely ...
• A student notices that the hematocrit reading is unusually low. What could be a possible ...
• What is a common cause of falsely high hemoglobin readings in a hemoglobin test?  ...
• Which CBC parameter is used to determine the percentage of red blood cells in a ...
• A centrifuge starts making a loud rattling noise. What is the first action the student ...
• If a student incorrectly seals a capillary tube for hematocrit testing, what is the most ...
• During a microhematocrit test, a student accidentally overfills the capillary tube. What potential issue could ...
• If a student forgets to clean the centrifuge after a hematology lab, what is the ...
• Which wavelength is used to measure absorbance in the Cyanmethemoglobin Method? A. 450 nm ...
• Which of the following is NOT a source of error in hemoglobin testing? A. ...
• A student forgets to balance the microcentrifuge before starting it. What risk does this pose?  ...
• A student is unsure of the proper centrifuge speed for a hematocrit test. What should ...
• What is the primary difference between a micropipette and an automatic dispenser? A. A ...
• A lab group forgets to mix the blood sample before filling capillary tubes. How might ...
• What is the function of potassium ferricyanide in Drabkin’s reagent? A. Binds to hemoglobin ...
• What is the principle of the Cyanmethemoglobin Method for hemoglobin determination?  A. Hemoglobin binds ...
• A student mistakenly loads only one tube into a microcentrifuge. What should they do before ...
• A student forgets to wear gloves while handling blood samples. What is the biggest risk?  ...
• Why is it necessary to dispose of used capillary tubes in a sharps container?  ...
• If the centrifuge stops suddenly before completing the set time, what is the best course ...
• What is the main use of the Rule of 3 in RBC analysis? A. ...
• A student sets up a centrifuge but notices excessive vibration. What is the most likely ...
• A student sets the centrifuge to a speed higher than recommended. What is the greatest ...
• After centrifugation, a student removes a hematocrit tube and sees a thick buffy coat. What ...
• Which RBC INDICES is used to assess the variation in red blood cell size? ...
• Which muscle is involved in forearm pronation? A. Supinator B. Biceps Brachii ...
• What condition results from overuse of the Biceps Tendon due to Rotator Cuff weakness? ...
• What is the normal range of motion (ROM) for forearm supination? A. 0° to ...
• What is the nerve innervation for the Pronator Quadratus? A. Musculocutaneous nerve B. ...
• What is the origin of the long head of the Biceps Brachii? A. Supraglenoid ...
• What is the normal range of motion (ROM) for elbow flexion? A. 0° to ...
• Which muscle assists with the extension of the elbow joint? A. Brachialis B. ...
• What is the action of the Triceps Brachii? A. Flexes the elbow B. ...
• What can result from a contracture in elbow extension? A. Increased joint mobility ...
• What is the function of the Supinator muscle? A. Flexes the elbow B. ...
• What is the nerve supply for the Brachioradialis muscle? A. Ulnar nerve B. ...
• What is the origin of the Brachioradialis muscle? A. Lateral supracondylar ridge of the ...
• What is the action of the Brachialis muscle during elbow flexion? A. Supinates the ...
• Which muscle works to stabilize the scapula during shoulder movement? A. Serratus Anterior ...
• What is the primary action of the Biceps Brachii during elbow flexion? A. Extends ...
• What condition may occur if the Triceps Brachii is weakened? A. Inability to extend ...
• What is the function of the Rotator Cuff in shoulder stability? A. Flexes the ...
• Which muscle primarily assists in elbow extension? A. Triceps Brachii B. Biceps Brachii ...
• Which muscle group assists in elbow flexion? A. Extensor muscles of the wrist ...
• What can result from weakness in the Rotator Cuff muscles? A. Shoulder stability ...
• Which of the following muscles contribute to the dynamic stabilization of the shoulder? A. ...
• Which muscle helps stabilize the forearm during pronation? A. Biceps Brachii B. Pronator ...
• Which of the following muscles assists with supination of the forearm? A. Biceps Brachii ...
• What happens when the Triceps Brachii long head is shortened over both the shoulder and ...
• What is the main purpose of stabilizing the proximal joint segment during ROM assessment? ...
• In elbow flexion testing, what command is given to the patient for a Grade 5 ...
• Which nerve innervates the Biceps Brachii? A. Radial nerve B. Musculocutaneous nerve ...
• Which muscle is responsible for the contraction that causes the elbow joint to extend? ...
• Which muscle is responsible for forearm pronation? A. Biceps Brachii B. Supinator ...
• What does the term ROM stand for in joint movement assessments? A. Range of ...
• Which type of bone is typically found in the interior of flat bones? A. ...
• What is the main difference between compact and spongy bone? A. Compact bone is ...
• What is the role of osteoblasts in bone tissue? A. To form new bone ...
• What is the function of the periosteum in bone? A. To produce red blood ...
• Which part of the bone is covered by articular cartilage? A. Diaphysis B. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a type of bone based on shape? A. ...
• Which type of bone is primarily involved in the protection of internal organs? A. ...
• What is the function of the medullary cavity in long bones? A. To produce ...
• What is the primary structural unit of compact bone? A. Osteoclast B. Osteon ...
• Which type of bone cell is responsible for resorbing bone tissue? A. Chondrocyte ...
• Which of the following is a characteristic feature of spongy bone? A. It is ...
• Which type of bone is characterized by a dense and smooth appearance? A. Spongy ...
• What is the primary function of compact bone? A. To produce blood cells ...
• Which type of bone is primarily responsible for the production of red blood cells? ...
• Which part of the bone is responsible for the production of blood cells? A. ...
• What is the function of the trabeculae found in spongy bone? A. To store ...
• What is the role of osteocytes in bone tissue? A. To break down bone ...
• What is the primary function of red bone marrow? A. To connect muscles to ...
• What is the primary mineral stored in bones? A. Sodium B. Potassium ...
• Ganglion cells in the retina are responsible for _______. A. Sending visual information to ...
• The 'Retina' is responsible for which of the following functions? A. Focusing light ...
• The function of the retina’s rods and cones is to: A. Detect light and ...
• What type of cells in the retina detect light and convert it into electrical signals? ...
• Fill in the blank: The 'Optic nerve' transmits visual information from the eye to the ...
• What role does the lens play in focusing light on the retina? A. It ...
• Why are Meibomian Glands essential for the eyes? A. They secrete oils that prevent ...
• How does light enter the eye? A. Through the cornea B. Through the ...
• The 'Choroid' is part of which layer of the eye? A. Uvea B. ...
• Which part of the eye controls light entry? A. Cornea B. Iris ...
• Iris: ________ the amount of light entering the eye. A. Controls B. Regulates ...
• Which cells process the signals before they travel to the brain? A. Ganglion cells ...
• Fill in the blank: The 'AQUEOUS HUMOUR' is found between the ______ and the ______. ...
• What is the function of the optic nerve? A. Transfers visual information from the ...
• Which condition commonly affects Meibomian Glands? A. Blepharitis B. Conjunctivitis C. Glaucoma ...
• What is the function of the third eyelid (nictitating membrane)? A. Spreads tears evenly. ...
• Where are Meibomian Glands located? A. Eyelids B. Nose C. Ears D. Mouth ...
• Which of the following is a function of the sclera? A. Provides vision ...
• What is the primary function of the lacrimal gland? A. Produces saliva B. ...
• Ciliary Body: ________ and produces aqueous humour. A. Controls lens shape B. Regulates ...
• The role of the 'Ciliary body' in the human eye is to: A. control ...
• What is another name for the third eyelid? A. Nictitating membrane B. Cornea ...
• Which part of the eye is responsible for focusing light onto the retina? A. ...
• What type of eyes do predators have for depth perception? A. Side-facing eyes ...
• Which cells in the retina are responsible for detecting low light and color vision? ...
• What does the brain do with the signals it receives from the retina? A. ...
• Prey species have lateral eye placement because: A. it helps them see predators approaching ...
• What is the white outer layer of the eyeball called? A. Sclera B. ...
• Choroid: ________ and prevents light scatter. A. Provides blood supply B. Reflects light ...
• Lens: ________ onto the retina for clear vision. A. Focuses light B. Reflects ...
• What is one of the functions of the eyelids? A. Protects the eye from ...
• What is the function of pigmented cells in the retina? A. Send visual information ...
• The sclera provides structure and ________. A. protection B. vision C. color ...
• The lacrimal gland ensures hydration and provides nutrients to the ______. A. cornea ...
• The cornea helps focus light onto the _______. A. retina B. pupil ...
• What condition can result from the dysfunction of Meibomian Glands? A. Dry Eye Syndrome ...
• The function of the 'Iris' is to: A. control the amount of light entering ...
• What is the function of the fovea in the retina? A. It is responsible ...
• What is the term for the outer covering of a bone? A. Epiphysis ...
• What term describes the stability of the body's internal environment? A. Physiology B. ...
• What is the primary role of connective tissue? A. Transmitting impulses B. Facilitating ...
• What is the term for the bottom aspect of the foot? A. Dorsal ...
• Which branch of anatomy studies body structure without a microscope? A. Microscopic Anatomy ...
• What is the anatomical position? A. Sitting with legs crossed B. Lying on ...
• What is the term for the process of bone formation? A. Hematopoiesis B. ...
• What is the study of structures that make up the body called? A. Physiology ...
• Which type of bone is the femur classified as? A. Irregular bone B. ...
• Which of the following is a function of bones? A. Regulate temperature B. ...
• Which of the following is a characteristic of the appendicular skeleton? A. Consists of ...
• Which plane divides the body into right and left halves? A. Frontal plane ...
• Which of the following is NOT a type of tissue? A. Muscle B. ...
• Which of the following is a type of body movement? A. Expansion B. ...
• What is the primary function of muscle tissue? A. Movement B. Support ...
• What type of joint allows no movement? A. Amphiarthrosis B. Diarthrosis C. Hinge ...
• Which of the following is a characteristic of the male pelvis? A. More oval ...
• Which body cavity houses the lungs and heart? A. Abdominal cavity B. Thoracic ...
• What is the smallest independent unit of life? A. Tissue B. Cell ...
• Endomysium covers the... A. muscle. B. fascicle. C. muscle fiber. D. myofibril. ...
• The thick myofilament is called... A. Actin B. Myosin
• The sarcolemma is a ... of a muscle fiber. A. protein. B. plasma ...
• This structure is made up of many myofibrils. A. Myofibril. B. Muscle. ...
• What is released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum when the muscle is hit with an action ...
• The connective tissue that surrounds the individual skeletal muscle ...
• Epimysium covers the... A. muscle. B. fascicle. C. muscle fiber. D. myofibril.
• The ... is where a motor neuron and muscle fiber come together. A. Neuromuscular ...
• This is a chemical message released by neurons. A. Neurotransmitter. B. Receptors. ...
• The sarcolemma is... A. the muscle fiber cell membrane. B. the smaller part ...
• The thin myofilament is called... A. Actin B. Myosin
• This structure is made up of many sarcomeres in a row. A. Myofibril. ...
• Which option correctly lists the parts of a skeletal muscle from smallest to largest? ...
• What is the basic unit of a skeletal muscle called? A. Sarcomere B. ...
• Perimysium covers the... A. muscle. B. fascicle. C. muscle fiber. D. myofibril. ...
• The space between the axon terminal and a muscle fiber is called the... A. ...
• This structure is made up of many fascicles. A. Myofibril. B. Muscle. ...
• This structure is made up of many muscle fibers. A. Myofibril. B. Muscle. ...
• What is the name of the structure that connects muscle to bone? A. Ligament ...
• The connective tissue surrounding each fascicle, as pictured in #3, ...
• Myofibrils are composed of individual: A. sarcomeres B. striations C. myofilaments D. fascicles ...