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- what chromosome was the 1st chromosomal abnormality? A. Philadelphia B. Pittsburgh C. ...
- What is the second most common cause of death in the US? A. Diabetes ...
- what medication has a counseling poing if causing feminization in male patients A. Megestrol ...
- In what sort of spinal injury could you lose control over your limbs? A. ...
- What is the cause of febrile seizures in infants? A. Increased electrical activity in ...
- In case of an emergency, how should you move a person with a suspected spinal ...
- Is meningitis bacterial or viral? A. Viral B. Bacterial C. Can be ...
- In what form of epilepsy could a patient be semi-conscious? A. Intermittent epilepsy ...
- Concussion or compression: In which condition do symptoms tend to appear in a more severe ...
- Can seizures spread in the brain A. No B. Yes C. I ...
- True or False: Meningitis is an infection to the linings surrounding the brain and spinal ...
- What test can you use to assess whether someone is having a meningitis rash? ...
- What is shown in the image? ...
- An ischaemic stroke differs from a haemorrhagic stroke in that... A. Blood flow is ...
- Which tissue connects muscles to bones? A. Ligament B. Joint C. Tendons ...
- What is the cushion between the joints called? A. Ligaments B. Tendons ...
- A place where two or more bones meet is called a _____. A. cartilage ...
- What is an example of a saddle joint? A. neck joint B. ankle ...
- What is an example of a pivot joint? A. hip joint B. knee ...
- Ligaments connect bones to other bones. A. TRUE B. FALSE
- What is an example of a ball and socket joint? A. shoulder joint ...
- What type of tissue covers the surface of almost every organ in the body? ...
- What are tough strands of connective tissue that connect muscle to your bones called? ...
- What type of tissue contracts both voluntarily and involuntarily? A. Nervous B. Muscular ...
- What is an example of a hinge joint? A. wrist joint B. shoulder ...
- Which answer best describes skeletal muscle? A. Muscle that makes up your heart ...
- When a muscle contracts, it gets ____________________. A. longer B. shorter C. ...
- is used when it is unclear whether the reaction is immunologically-related or due to a ...
- Substance found in shrimps, avocado, instant potatoes, dried fruits and vegetables that may cause food ...
- Respiratory stress may lead to weight loss and malnutrition due to the ff: I. ...
- I. Antibody is any molecule that will elicit an immune response in the body. ...
- Unless contraindicated, high fat (45-50%) diet is recommended in the management of COPD because of ...
- I. The term COPD encompasses both chronic bronchitis and emphysema. II. Emphysema is characterized ...
- I. In the treatment of asthma, growth must be monitored in children. II. Higher ...
- I. Dietary management of adverse food reactions involve thorough recording of food and symptoms experienced ...
- The following are major food allergens except A. Milk B. Eggs C. ...
- I. The symptoms of food allergy involve multiple organs systems, including the dermatologic, respiratory, gastrointestinal, ...
- I. Food allergies are more common than food intolerances. II. Immune-mediated food allergy can ...
- The ff are dietary intervention for COPD except A. small, frequent feeding B. ...
- The following are causes and examples of food intolerances except A. Cystic fibrosis ...
- I. Food allergy is an adverse immune-mediated reaction to a food that a person has ...
- A food challenge in which neither the patient nor physician knows the identity of the ...
- Divides body into top and bottom portions (superior-head; inferior-feet) ...
- Identify structure 17 A. hyperdermis ...
- The carpal region is distal to the digital region. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
- How many vertebrae in the thoracic area? A. 12 B. 5 C. ...
- The human skeleton can be subdivided into two parts, ...
- Identify structure number 2. A. hypodermis ...
- the knee is ____ to the thigh A. proximal B. distal C. ...
- What is the name of the collar bone? A. Clavicle B. Scapular ...
- What is the dark pigment which gives skin its color? A. melatonin B. ...
- Which of the following is the outermost layer of skin? A. epidermis B. ...
- The axillary region is superior to the buccal. A. TRUE B. FALSE
- way from midline A. Lateral ...
- the elbow is _____ to the fingers A. distal B. superficial C. ...
- Identify structure 13 A. arrector pilli ...
- Nails are composed of a protein called A. melanin B. keratin C. ...
- Directional term that means toward the midline. A. lateral B. medial C. ...
- describes a position above or higher than another part of the body proper. A. ...
- the nose is ____ to the forehead A. posterior B. anterior C. ...
- The arrow is pointing to which side of the ...
- Describes the front or direction toward the front of the body A. Anterior ...
- Name the bone located at number 8 ...
- the heart is ____ to the arm A. lateral B. inferior C. ...
- Identify structure number 6 A. sweat ...
- Identify structure number 1 A. sweat ...
- The arrow is pointing to which side of the ...
- Anaerobic respiration requires oxygen A. TRUE B. FALSE
- This type of muscle contraction will fire against a load, but WILL NOT shorten or ...
- What is used after stored ATP is used up? A. anaerobic respiration B. ...
- A person who exhibits very large muscles has the condition called.... A. Atrophy ...
- Aerobic respiration energy lasts approximately A. 15 seconds B. hours C. 30-60 ...
- Aerobic respiration uses this as its main energy source A. creatine phosphate B. ...
- Muscle fatigue is... A. when the muscle is unable to contract B. when ...
- A drawback of anaerobic respiration is that it requires no oxygen A. TRUE ...
- Aerobic respiration is used during periods of peak activity/bursts of power. A. TRUE ...
- Anaerobic respiration uses this as its main energy source A. creatine phosphate B. ...
- ATP needs to regenerate when used A. TRUE B. FALSE
- Aerobic respiration requires oxygen A. TRUE B. FALSE
- A person whose muscles begin to digest themselves and shrink has the condition... A. ...
- Aerobic respiration occurs here A. mitochondria B. cytoplasm C. muscle D. ...
- How glucose and aerobic respiration are related. A. Glucose is broken down into ATP ...
- Anaerobic respiration energy lasts approximately A. 15 seconds B. hours C. 30-60 ...
- During short periods (10-15 seconds) of intense exercise, muscles will use which of the following ...
- Which type of CONCENTRIC contraction will have resistance through MOST OF THE RANGE OF MOTION ...
- This type of muscle contraction will fire at a constant, unchanging length A. Tetanic ...
- Which type of contraction, when fired, WILL NOT cause any movement at the joint? ...
- A benefit of anaerobic respiration is that it is 2.5 times faster than aerobic respiration ...
- Anaerobic respiration occurs here A. mitochondria B. cytoplasm C. muscle D. ...
- What is the purpose of obtaining a CT scan when evaluating N.T. for a suspected ...
- What is at the area marked by the star? ...
- what is not a descriptor of pain? A. aching B. cramping C. ...
- This disease is also called Lou Gehrig's Disease and is a progressive degeneration of nerve ...
- Increased muscle tone (plastic type) without significant loss of muscle power and increase in tendon ...
- The primary factor influencing the manifestations of a CVA is the? A. Speed of ...
- hypertension is the most common cause of what kind of stroke? A. hemorrhagic ...
- The cardinal signs of Parkinson's disease will include the following EXCEPT A. bradykinesia ...
- what disease can a ketogenic diet be helpful for? A. status epilepticus B. ...
- This is a collective term referring to a class of extrapyramidal diseases where the primary ...
- Poverty of movement, reaction time delay and slow execution. A. tremor B. akinesia ...
- 25% of TIAs, or transient ischemic attacks can progress to stroke A. TRUE ...
- cushings triad is a decrease in BP, increase in pulse and increase in respirations ...
- what is not a symptoms of increased ICP? A. severe headache B. hypotension ...
- A. A chronic nervous system disease characterized by a slowly spreading tremor, muscular weakness, and ...
- Meningitis can cause hearing loss that progresses over time A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
- Paralysis/weakness on the right side of the body indicates: A. Left hemisphere stroke ...
- Gives an outcome of varied or diverse offspring. A. mitosis B. meiosis ...
- Sexual reproduction involves which type of cell division? A. Mitosis B. Meiosis ...
- Give an advantage for sexual reproduction. A. Leads to genetic variations in new generations ...
- Fully grown parent cells split into two halves resulting in two daughter cells with the ...
- Which is not an advantage for asexual reproduction? A. Less genetic variation B. ...
- A parent cell breaks into pieces and each piece become a new offspring. A. ...
- Changes in an organism that affect its appearance, how it behaves, and its functions. ...
- Give a disadvantage for sexual reproduction. A. Organism must find a mate B. ...
- Happens when the parent’s chromosomes are halved. A. mitosis B. meiosis
- The offspring genetic information is exactly like the parents. A. mitosis B. meiosis ...
- Pairs of thread-like molecules, which live in the cell’s nucleus, and carries heredity information are ...
- Happens when a single parent cell divides into two daughter cells A. mitosis ...
- Made of DNA this is the basic physical and functional unit of heredity. A. ...
- The smallest biological unit of a living organism is a _____________. A. Cell ...
- Which of these proteins are present in the Nucleoid? A. Mot Proteins B. ...
- Which of the following is assembled first during flagellar assembly? A. L ring ...
- Which of the following about plasmid is false? A. Plasmid are mostly circular ...
- Which of the following is absent in Gram positive bacteria? A. Teichoic acid ...
- Which of the following can be easily washed off? A. S-Layer B. Outer ...
- CreS deficient or mutant cell will become A. Spherical in shape B. Straight ...
- Which of the following is absent in gram negative bacteria? A. Lipid A ...
- Which of the following statement about gram positive bacteria is true? A. They have ...
- All plasmid carry antibiotic resistant gene. A. TRUE B. FALSE
- Porins are present in the A. Cell wall B. Cytoplasmic membrane C. ...
- New Flagellin protein are added at the ______ of flagella. A. Base B. ...
- E.coli MreB is homologous to A. Eukaryotic tubulin protein B. Eukaryotic actin protein ...
- The rRNA present in Bacterial ribosomes are A. 25S, 16S and 5S B. ...
- Spheroplasts is a A. Gram -ve bacteria lacking outer membrane B. Gram -ve ...
- Which of this bacteria is the largest? A. Thiomargarita namibiensis B. Thiomargarita magnifica ...
- Which of the following component is outermost? A. Outermembrane B. Capsules C. ...
- Which of this protein form a ring at the center of dividing cell? A. ...
- Which of the following is a site of CO2 fixation? A. Carbonosomes B. ...
- Clockwise rotation of flagella cause A. Running motility B. Twitching motility C. ...
- Which plasmid contains the genes required for conjugation? A. R Plasmids B. T ...
- True/False: Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are all formed form a single common progenitor cell. ...
- Platelets originate from _____________. A. Reticulocytes B. Macrophages C. Megakaryocytes D. ...
- True/False: An immature red blood cell is called a reticulocyte. A. FALSE B. ...
- Granulopoiesis refers to ____________ formation. A. Granulocyte B. Monocyte C. Lymphocyte ...
- Thrombopoiesis refers to ____________ formation. A. Monocyte B. Platelet C. Granulocyte ...
- Which of the following is the correct order of maturation of nuclei in erythropoiesis? ...
- Red bone marrow is primarily composed of _______. A. Red blood cells and precursors ...
- A stimulus for platelet production is thrombopoietin, a hormone that is produced mainly in the ...
- The stroma of red bone marrow is composed of ________. A. Muscle fibers and ...
- True/False: Granulocytes have a shorter lifespan than erythrocytes. A. TRUE B. FALSE
- Where do we find precursors for B and T lymphocytes, respectively? A. Bone marrow; ...
- Hematopoiesis means: A. Making new blood cells B. Consuming blood cells C. ...
- How long can monocytes live? A. One year B. 8-10 hours C. ...
- Bone marrow transitions from ______ to _______ as the animal matures. A. Yellow to ...
- How long can T lymphocytes live? A. One year B. 8-10 hours ...
- At maturity, the majority of hematopoiesis occurs in the ____________. A. Bone marrow ...
- Erythropoiesis refers to ____________ formation. A. Platelet B. Lymphocyte C. White blood ...
- How are red blood cells removed from blood? A. Turnover B. Macrophages ...
- At a later stage in granulopoiesis, does the cytoplasmic to nuclear volume ratio increase or ...
- Are reticulocytes a biconcave shape? A. Yes B. No C. Maybe ...
- True/False: ALL blood cells are derived from hematopoietic stem cells. A. TRUE B. ...
- Lymphopoiesis refers to ___________ formation. A. Platelet B. Lymphocyte C. Monocyte ...
- How long can platelets live? A. One year B. 8-10 hours C. ...
- Monopoiesis refers to ____________ formation. A. Monocyte B. Lymphocyte C. Platelet ...
- Yellow bone marrow is composed of ________. A. Red blood cells and precursors ...
- What is a colony stimulating factor that responds to low oxygen and stimulates red blood ...
- How long can B lymphocytes live? A. One year B. 8-10 hours ...
- Macrophages are formed from __________. A. Plasma cells B. T lymphocytes C. ...
- How long can tissue macrophages live? A. Months to years B. 8-10 hours ...
- True/False: Osteoclasts are fusions of monocytes. A. TRUE B. FALSE
- True/False: Lymphocytes live longer in tissues than in circulation. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
- True/False: Granulocytes take a shorter time to develop than erythrocytes. A. TRUE B. ...
- What term refers to the removal of cells from circulation? A. Confiscation B. ...
- What is the first identifiable cell in the erythroid series called? Is it a large ...
- True/False: Stem, progenitor, and colony-forming units are morphologically distinguishable on H&E. A. TRUE ...
- True/False: Granulopoiesis is stimulated by colony stimulating factors which are only produced during an inflammatory ...
- Which term describes a cell that gives rise to a single, differentiated cell product? ...
- True/False: It can be normal to find plasma cells in bone marrow. A. FALSE ...
- Which term describes a cell committed to a certain lineage but able to give rise ...
- How long do red blood cells live? A. 70-160 days B. 2-3 weeks ...
- Which of the following is a component of innate immunity? A. Antibody B. ...
- Which of the following is not a features of adaptive immunity? A. Antigenic specificity ...
- T helper cells contains CD8 and recognize antigen-MHC II molecules A. TRUE B. ...
- T cytotoxic cell contains A. CD4 molecules B. CD8 molecules C. Antibody ...
- T-lymphocytes arise from A. Thymus B. Bone marrow C. Spleen D. ...
- Vaccination works based on the features of A. Innate immunity B. Adaptive immunity ...
- Which of the following is not a site of hematopoiesis? A. Fetal Liver ...
- Memory is a features of A. Innate immunity B. Adaptive immunity
- Antibody are secreted by A. Macrophage B. T lymphocytes C. Plasma cells ...
- Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) is present in A. Macrophages B. B-lymphocytes C. ...
- Which of the following is the most abundant? A. Basophil B. Neutrophil ...
- Class II MHC are present in all nucleated cells. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
- The number of first year students at UTRGV is an example of _____ data. ...
- The _____ involves the creation of antibodies specific to the invader (adaptive immunity). A. ...
- ____ is an oncogenic retrovirus linked to the development of adult T-cell leukemia and lymphoma. ...
- What type of investigation involves collecting qualitative and or quantitative data to draw conclusions about ...
- What is known as the spread and growth of cancer cells at a distance from ...
- The ____ involves physical and chemical barriers to prevent pathogens from entering cells. A. ...
- Mucus, perspiration (sweat), saliva, tears and earwax are all examples of ______. A. physical ...
- _____ is a logically stepped process used for investigating and acquiring or expanding our understanding. ...
- The _____ line of defense involves immune cells that attack pathogens without specificity (innate immunity). ...
- Responses from an open-ended questionnaire is an example of ______ data. A. qualitative ...
- One of the key cells that promote tumor survival is the ______. A. neutrophil ...
- _______ are physical, mechanical, and biochemical barriers at the body's surfaces and are in place ...
- Carcinomas undergo a process of _____ during which many epithelial-like characteristics are lost resulting in ...
- _____ is the form of stories that people tell about what has happened to them. ...
- Virtually all cervical cancer is caused by infection with specific types of ______. A. ...
- What is referred to as a prerequisite for metastasis or local spread? A. metastasis ...
- Chronic ____ has been recognized as being an important factor in the development of cancer. ...
- The adaptive process that results in a long-term and very effective immunity to the infecting ...
- _____ leads to protein-calorie malnutrition and progressive wasting. A. paraneoplastic syndrome B. leukopenia ...
- Which type of investigation involves designing a fair test with an identified control variable? ...
- The ______ involves immune cells that attack pathogens without specificity (innate immunity). A. first ...
- The natural epithelial barrier and inflammation confer innate resistance and protection, is referred to as ...
- _____ is the major cause of death from cancer. A. metastasis B. invasion ...
- Which type of investigation involves collecting data to make a comparison? A. Descriptive ...
- ______ is information acquired by observation or experimentation. Scientists record and analyze this data. ...
- Notes taken during a focus group on the quality of the food at McDonald's is ...
- _____ is the available body of facts or information indicating whether a belief or proposition ...
- The ____ is a group of organs and specialized cells that protect us from pathogens. ...
- What type of therapy is used to treat nonmetastatic disease, for which cure is possible ...
- The movement of materials from high concentration to low concentration A. Diffusion B. ...
- The molecule that cells use as energy A. ATP B. Glucose C. ...
- one of the three macronutrients that is broken down into glucose and then converted into ...
- the material that is acted on (broken down or synthesized) by the enzyme. A. ...
- The building blocks of lipids A. Fatty acid and Glycerol B. Amino Acids ...
- biological catalyst made of proteins that speed up the rate of chemical reactions in living ...
- one of the three macronutrients that is made of a chain of amino acids. Used ...
- molecules from food that provide calories the body needs for growth, metabolism, and all other ...
- A barrier that allows some substances to pass through, but not all substances. A. ...
- metabolic reactions that take place in the cells to convert chemical energy from oxygen and ...
- the mechanical action and use of enzymes to break down food into smaller substances that ...
- a simple sugar that is the main source cells use to create ATP. The building ...
- The chemical reactions autotrophs use to capture the energy from sunlight for storage by converting ...
- The organelle that performs cellular respiration in eukaryotes A. Mitochondria B. Chloroplast ...
- one of the three macronutrients that includes oil and fats. A. Lipids B. ...
- the building blocks of proteins A. Amino Acids B. Carbohydrates C. Lipids ...
- Once your happy and then you are sad. A. relieve B. mood disorders ...
- The non-drowsy substance means that we feel sleepy. A. FALSE B. TRUE
- Over the counter means we can buy medication without the prescription. A. TRUE ...
- a drug that has certain restrictions on its sale is... A. overdose B. ...
- Side effects include rash, fatigue, abdominal discomfort are examples of................................reaction. A. adverse B. ...
- the act of consuming too much of a drug is... A. abuse B. ...
- to eliminate the pain is A. relieve B. adverse reaction C. overdose ...
- Anxiety is fear of something. A. TRUE B. FALSE
- Post-surgical means after an operation. A. TRUE B. FALSE
- The ........................................ is particularly severe, and may include psychosis! A. abuse B. administer ...
- a drug that has certain restrictions on its sale is called... A. prescription ...
- A sedative helps us to feel less nervous, to calm down. A. TRUE ...
- The duration of action is the way medicine works. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
- The lack of oxygen and nutrients going to the cells is called A. Hypoperfusion ...
- The study of a disease A. Pathophysiology B. Pathology C. Perfusion ...
- A heart attack would be classified as which of the following? A. Pathophysiology ...
- The study of how disease processes affect the functions of the body A. Pathophysiology ...
- Which metabolism uses the most ATP? A. Anaerobic B. Aerobic
- The flow of blood to the heart is severely reduced or blocked, resulting in a ...
- What occurs when perfusion fails A. Shock B. Death C. Swelling ...
- Which metabolism has oxygen? A. Aerobic B. Anaerobic
- Which system brings carbon dioxide back to the lungs for elimination A. Respiratory ...
- Fluid trapped in the body's tissues from illness A. Edema B. Perfusion ...
- __________ in the ankles and feet can give an indication of poor fluid distribution ...
- Which system transports oxygen to the body's cells A. Respiratory B. Cardiovascular ...
- Which metabolism does not have oxygen? A. Aerobic B. Anaerobic
- Obstructions above the trachea would be which type of obstruction? A. Upper B. ...
- Obstructions below the trachea would be which type of obstruction? A. Upper B. ...
- Which metabolism is less efficient? A. Anaerobic B. Aerobic
- Which system transfers oxygen to the bloodstream A. Respiratory B. Cardiovascular C. ...
- The constant supply of oxygen and nutrients to the cells by the flow of blood ...
- Relaxed chest cavity creates ________ pressure and forces air out. A. positive B. ...
- Air moved in and out in one breath A. Inspiratory Volume B. Tidal ...
- Air in lungs is called A. hemothorax B. pneumothorax
- How much ambient air is Oxygen? A. 21% B. 45% C. 78% ...
- Which pleura rests on the lungs? A. Visceral B. Parietal
- Which pleura sits on the chest wall of the lungs? A. Visceral B. ...
- Air remaining in the space between the mouth and alveoli A. Dead air space ...
- May accumulate blood and air A. Visceral space B. Parietal space C. ...
- Which part of the brain is responsible for controlling breathing A. pons B. ...
- Expanded chest cavity creates ___________ pressure and lets air in A. positive B. ...
- Blood in lungs is called A. hemothorax B. pneumothorax
- What can cause an increased intravascular pressure during agony ? A. Pulmonary edema ...
- What is the most important post-mortem changes A. Cadaveric cooling B. Putrefaction ...
- caloric depletion is faster in large species than small spicies A. TRUE B. ...
- What's the name of the science that study death A. Necropsy B. Thanathology ...
- rapid (sudden) pathological death A. occurs due to physiological wear, aging B. occurs ...
- What is pulmonary alveolar emphysema A. Due to forced agonal breathing, the expiration is ...
- natural (physiological) death A. occurs due to physiological wear, aging B. occurs when ...
- The clinical death stage is longer in : A. Newborns B. Adolescent ...
- What can happen in the esophagus and trachea during agony ? A. gastric contents: ...
- The average cooling rate for medium animals is considered to be A. 0.7 - ...
- During clinical death can we try réanimation methods ? A. No B. Yes ...
- provoked death A. occurs due to physiological wear, aging B. occurs when death ...
- What is congestion during agony ? A. Reduction of the volume of venous blood ...
- what is Cadaveric cooling? Is cessation of blood circulation and ...... in ...
- pathological slow death A. occurs due to physiological wear, aging B. occurs when ...
- Which layer, composition, and organ produced by is incorrect? A. Superficial layer, lipid, and ...
- True/False: Ciliary processes are present in both the pars plana and pars plicata. A. ...
- How many layers of epithelium does the cornea have? A. 1 B. 2 ...
- True/False: The cornea is well innervated. A. TRUE B. FALSE
- The anterior segment is filled with ________ and the posterior segment is filled with _______, ...
- The sclera is ______ as the cornea is ______. A. Clear; clear B. ...
- What two muscles are present in the iris? What cranial nerve is used to perform ...
- There are two layers of cells in the non-photosensitive retina on the ciliary body. How ...
- True/False: The posterior segment contains the vitreous body, retina, optic disc, and all layers external ...
- True/False: The corneal stroma contains blood vessels. A. FALSE B. TRUE
- What are the three layers of the globe from exterior to interior? A. Retinal, ...
- The latticework present in the iridocorneal angle is called... A. Trabecular meshwork B. ...
- True/False: The lens epithelium is only present on the anterior surface of a fetal lens. ...
- True/False: Diseases that raise the viscosity of the vitreous body can cause the retina to ...
- True/False: The aqueous humor and part of the vitreous body are produced by the photosensitive ...
- True/False: The sclera is vascularized, A. TRUE B. FALSE
- What are the blood vessels in the large vessel layer called? A. Orbital vessels ...
- The lens is composed of high concentrations of lens ______ and keeping the appropriate arrangement ...
- All the zonular fibers together make the ____________. A. Sling tendon B. Slingluar ...
- There are two layers of cells in the posterior iridial epithelium. How many are pigmented? ...
- Changing the overall shape of the lens allowing for focusing on near/distant objects is called ...
- True/False: The anterior segment contains the cornea, iris, pupil, lens, and anterior/posterior chambers. A. ...
- True/False: Oral medications are the best to use to address eye issues as the systemic ...
- What has the appearance of a sieve and is elastic to allow vessels and retinal ...
- True/False: The choroid is vascular. A. TRUE B. FALSE
- True/False: The vascularized layers in the eye consist of the sclera, cornea, retina, iris, and ...
- True/False: The retina is vascularized and vessels run in the nerve fiber layer. A. ...
- What is responsible for suspending the lens? A. Non-photosensitive retina present over the ciliary ...
- True/False: The lens can change shape to focus light and also varies depending on species. ...
- What is the correct layer of cells in the retinal from internal to external? ...
- A 44-year-old man has a pancreatic fistula that has persisted for 30 days following necrosectomy. ...
- A 70-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease on home oxygen, congestive heart failure, and ...
- The head of the pancreas is supplied by the pancreaticoduodenal artery. The inferior portion of ...
- A 55-year-old man is currently hospital day 4, recovering from acute gallstone pancreatitis. His laboratory ...
- A 55-year-old man is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. He is clinically worsening and undergoes a ...
- Workup of a 45-year-old woman reveals a lesion in the body of the pancreas that ...
- A 40-year-old man undergoes open debridement of extensive pancreatic necrosis involving the body and tail ...
- A male patient presents 8 weeks after an episode of acute pancreatitis. He reports vague ...
- A 38-year-old woman has chronic pancreatitis that requires surgical intervention because of chronic pain interfering ...
- A 65-year-old man is in the surgical intensive care unit with acute alcohol-induced pancreatitis with ...
- A 60-year-old woman with a long history of chronic pancreatitis is referred for surgical evaluation. ...
- A 36-year-old woman presents complaining of pelvic pain. A computed tomography scan of the abdomen ...
- A 15-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital for his fourth episode of pancreatitis. Two ...
- A 65-year-old man who is 5 days status post–pancreaticoduodenectomy has ongoing clear output from his ...
- A 56-year-old woman presents 6 months after an episode of acute pancreatitis complicated by pseudocyst, ...
- A 49-year-old male presents with chronic abdominal pain. The patient has a history of chronic ...
- A 55-year-old man is undergoing a planned Beger operation for chronic pancreatitis. After the anterior ...
- A 32-year-old man who was discharged 5 weeks ago after hospitalization for acute pancreatitis returns ...
- A 52-year-old woman has had acute pancreatitis due to gallstones. Six weeks later, she has ...
- A 75-year-old man undergoes a pancreaticoduodenectomy. The transection plane at the neck of the pancreas ...
- What is the purpose of root canal retreatment? A. To remove infected tissue ...
- A patient has a root canal infection and wants to avoid surgery. Which of the ...
- A patient has a root canal infection and is pregnant. Which of the following is ...
- A patient has a root canal infection that has not responded to non-surgical treatment. Which ...
- ow is apexification used to treat a root canal infection? A. By removing the ...
- A patient has recently undergone endodontic surgery and is experiencing pain. Which of the following ...
- How is an apicoectomy performed? A. By removing the entire root of the tooth ...
- Which of the following is NOT an indication for endodontic surgery? A. Persistent pain ...
- What is the primary purpose of the flap reflection during endodontic surgery? A. To ...
- How is the success of endodontic surgery typically evaluated? A. By the patient's pain ...
- What is the primary goal of endodontic surgery? A. To remove infected tissue ...
- What is the most common type of endodontic surgery? A. Apicoectomy B. Root ...
- How is endodontic surgery typically performed? A. By drilling into the root canal ...
- Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of endodontic surgery? A. Damage ...
- What is endodontic surgery used to treat? A. Cavities B. Gum disease ...
- How is vibrio cholerae spread? A. oral fecal route B. airborne C. ...
- Is cholera infectious or not? A. Yes, it is B. No, it is ...
- How to treat people with cholera? A. use mask B. give solutions of ...
- What is Vibrio cholerae? A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Animal
- a serious disease that affects the stomach and bowels, usually caused by dirty water or ...
- From the list below, which one is not the methods of cholera transmission? A. ...
- What symptoms that we can see from people with cholera? A. severe diarrhea ...
- Disease causing agents such as bacteria and viruses are called _______________. A. pathogens ...
- The Vibrio cholerae won't survive at which pH? A. 2 B. 5 ...
- What is the causative agent (pathogens) of cholera? A. Vibrio cholerae B. Plasmodium ...
- When corona virus needs 2-14 days of incubation. What time for Cholera virus to incubate ...
- If in covid-19, we diagnose the infection by taking the sample from our nasopharynx. How ...
- Which is the smallest? A. Sarcomere B. Muscle fiber C. Fascicle ...
- Which myofilament is thick? A. Actin B. Myosin
- A group of fascicles is a _____________. A. Muscle fiber B. Myofibril ...
- Which is the largest? A. Muscle fiber B. Myofilament C. Myofibril ...
- A sarcomere is made of many… (one step down) A. Myocytes B. Myofilaments ...
- Skeletal muscles attach to bones (or skin) in at least two places. A. TRUE ...
- A group of muscle fibers is a ___________. A. Fascicle B. Myofibril ...
- Which is a myofilament? A. Actin B. Acetylcholine C. Sarcolemma D. ...
- A muscle is made of many… (one step down) A. Muscle fibers B. ...
- Which is the largest? A. Muscle fiber B. Actin C. Myofibril ...
- When a muscle contracts, the smallest part that contracts is ___________________. A. Muscle fiber ...
- A muscle is wrapped in a _____________. A. Endomysium B. Perimysium C. ...
- Which is the smallest? A. Myofibril B. Muscle fiber C. Sarcomere ...
- Which is the largest? A. fascicle B. muscle fiber C. muscle ...
- What type of tissue connects the skeletal muscle to a bone? A. ligament ...
- A fascicle is wrapped in a _____________. A. Endomysium B. Perimysium C. ...
- A myofibril is made of many… (one step down) A. Myofilaments B. Myocytes ...
- A fascicle is made of many… (one step down) A. Muscle fibers B. ...
- A group of myofibrils is a _____________. A. Fascicle B. Muscle fiber ...
- A muscle fiber is made of many… (one step down) A. Fascicles B. ...
- Which is the smallest? A. Muscle fiber B. Myofibril C. Fascicle ...
- A muscle fiber is wrapped in a ___________. A. Perimysium B. Ectomysium ...
- Myofibrils are composed of A. Actin and Myosin B. Threshold stimulus C. ...
- Connective tissue that surrounds fascicles is A. Myofibril B. Perimysium C. Acetylcholine ...
- Which type of connective tissue surrounds fascicles (bundles) A. Perimysium B. Epimysium ...
- What type of tissues surrounds the entire muscle A. ATP B. Epimysium ...
- what is the is first A. actin and myosin form links B. acetylcholine ...
- Moveable ends of the muscle is A. Insertion B. Lactic acid C. ...
- The A band is made of A. Actin B. Myosin C. Smooth ...
- Bundles of muscle fibers are called A. Z-lines B. Threshold stimulus C. ...
- The muscle fiber membrane is called the A. Fascia B. Endomysium C. ...
- What is Hypertrophy A. Stay relaxed B. Make muscles big C. Striated ...
- During a muscle contraction, cross-bridges from between what two structures A. Myosin B. ...
- When ATP has been used, it becomes A. Perimysium B. ADP and phosphate ...
- Vesicles in the motor neuron store what substance A. Neurotransmitter B. Acetylcholine ...
- What type of muscles are primary voluntary A. Skeletal muscle B. Cardiac muscle ...
- which is third A. actin and myosin form links B. acetycholine crosses the ...
- The transport network of the muscle is called the A. Epimysium B. Sarcoplasmic ...
- A person who has a disease that inhibits the production of cholinesterase would have what ...
- The substance that crosses the gap between a neuron and a muscle fiber is the ...
- which is 4th A. actin and myosin form links B. acetylcholine crosses the ...
- A sarcomere is defined as the region between two A. Motor end plate ...
- What neurotransmitter is associated with the muscles: A. Actin B. Acetylcholine C. ...
- what chemical helps regulate ATP A. creatine phosphate B. myofibrils C. cardiac ...
- Tendons connect A. to ligaments B. muscle to muscle C. Muscles to ...
- Immovable ends of the muscle is the A. Origin B. Insertion C. ...
- The muscle fiber membrane is specialized to form a _____ at the neuromuscular junction ...
- What type of muscles make up the heart A. Smooth muscle B. Cardiac ...
- The condition where a body becomes stiff after death is called A. Perimysium ...
- The dark and light fibers of the muscles give a A. Perimysium B. ...
- The minimum amount of stimulus required for a muscle contraction to occur is the ...
- What cell organelle provides ATP needed for muscle activity A. Acetylcholine B. Mitochondria ...
- The gap between the nerve and the muscle is called the A. Synaptic cleft ...
- muscle fibers are made of individual fibers (NOT filaments) called A. Stay relaxed ...
- What is atrophy A. Makes muscles small B. Muscles that stay contracted ...
- Poisons such as botulism that prevent the release of acetylcholine would cause muscles to ...
- Sustained contraction of individual fibers, even when muscles is at rest is known as ...
- When recruitment occurs, the number of motor units being activated A. increase B. ...
- which is 2nd A. actin and myosin form links B. acetylcholine crosses the ...
- In a sarcomere, the I band is made of A. Myosin B. Actin ...
- Cholinesterase is an enzyme that breaks down A. Acetylcholine B. Actin and Myosin ...
- The energy source for muscle contraction is A. Lactic acid B. ATP ...
- skeletal muscles are reasonable for moving A. actin B. oxygen C. your ...
- What is a motor unit A. Actin and Myosin B. Motor neuron and ...
- consists of 3 processes that serve as attachments for the respiratory muscles: manubrium, corpus, xiphoid ...
- the thoracic cavity expands via active muscle contraction (diaphragm & intercostals) A. inhalation ...
- major muscle of inspiration A. diaphragm B. lungs C. abdominal wall ...
- the external intercostal muscles are ____ forces of the respiratory system A. active ...
- serves for attachment of certain respiratory muscles like the trapezius, pectoralis major and sternocleidomastoid ...
- serves as a partial attachment for many muscles, the smallest A. the manubrium ...
- as the diaphragm moves downward, the force is transferred to the lower ribs moving them... ...
- a cartilaginous structure that allows air to pass from the nose and mouth into the ...
- neither the lung nor the thorax is really at their respective rest position A. ...
- the primary muscles of inspiration A. external intercostal muscles B. internal intercostal muscles ...
- the smallest branches stemming from the secondary bronci, lead to the alveoli where gas exchange ...
- diaphragm and external intercostal muscles A. muscles of quiet inspiration B. muscles of ...
- supplies innervation to the diaphragm A. phrenic nerves ( C3, 4, 5) B. ...
- when they contract, they lift the ribs up and outward A. diaphragm B. ...
- added to the passive expiratory driving force by generating muscle contraction A. active expiratory ...
- at rest, it sits in a dome-shaped position, when it contracts during inspiration, it moves ...
- for the lungs to inflate (inspiration), alveolar pressure must be more than atmospheric pressure ...
- the body of the sternum and serves as the attachment for ribs 2-7 A. ...
- due to the elastic properties of the respiratory system, the alveolar pressure is changed by____ ...
- the chest cavity that surrounds and protects the lungs, the heart, and other respiratory structures ...
- has passive and active properties, during effortful tasks like coughing, sneezing, and certain voicing tasks, ...
- when the diaphragm moves downward and the force is transferred to the lower ribs moving ...
- a membrane that covers the thorax A. visceral pleura B. parietal pleura ...
- developed by the contraction of the respiratory muscles, alveolar pressure is changed by____ A. ...
- alveolar pressure is changed by 2 forces: passive and active forces A. TRUE ...
- For air to flow out of the lungs (expiration), alveolar pressure must be less than ...
- passive expiration is accomplished by A. non-muscular forces (recoil forces) B. muscular forces ...
- During quiet/passive exhalation____ from the stretched inspiratory muscles is released A. potential (stored) energy ...
- elastic tissue that inflates and deflates and as a result move air A. lungs ...
- during inhalation the lung volume increases, air molecules are less compressed, creating a vacuum called... ...
- the lungs are apposed (or connected) to the thorax by.... A. pleural linkage ...
- The ____ sits on top of the uppermost tracheal ring A. larynx B. ...
- the act of inspiration is always passive A. TRUE B. FALSE
- When the respiratory system is at rest, the lungs are partially ____ at rest ...
- accessory muscles A. muscles of quiet inspiration B. muscles of forced inspiration
- serves as an attachment for ribs 1 and 2 A. manubrium B. the ...
- a membrane that covers the lung A. visceral pleura B. parietal pleura ...
- breath hold, bare down (e.g., giving birth) A. intra-thoracic pressure B. abdominal unit ...
- How does the sarcomere shorten (contract) ? A. The myosin filaments contract B. ...
- __________ is attached to the Z line? A. myosin B. actin C. ...
- What is the name of the place where a nerve meets a muscle fiber ...
- ____________ attaches to actin to form the cross bridge. A. Troponin B. Tropomyosin ...
- Ca2+ will be released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum when A. impulse reaches neuromuscular junction ...
- What is necessary for the myosin to release the actin? A. ATP B. ...
- Which of the following puts the structures of the ...
- Which of the following refers to the muscle cell? A. Myofibril B. Myofilament ...
- What is the name of the neurotransmitter released at a neuromuscular junction? A. Calcium ...
- ___ and ___ are regulatory proteins bound to actin. A. Myosin and actin ...
- What is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum? A. Inorganic phosphate B. ADP ...
- A mitochondria's role in muscle contraction is the production of... A. Synthesis of ATP ...
- What does calcium do to the actin? A. Covers myosin binding sites B. ...
- Power stroke will occur when A. ATP binds to myosin head B. Myosin ...
- What causes the muscle to stop contracting? A. Lack of effort B. Myosin-Heads ...
- Which is more true to cause muscle contraction? A. Actin Pulls on the myosin ...
- What two chemicals are necessary for muscle contraction to occur? A. Niacin and Potassium ...
- What is the name of the thick myofilaments? A. Actin B. Myosin ...
- Skeletal Muscle contraction is initiated when the ________ sends a message to the muscle cell. ...
- What is the contractile unit formed from Z line to Z line? A. Sarcomere ...
- When a muscle contracts, it _______ A. gets longer B. gets shorter ...
- What does the sarcoplasmic reticulum do? A. Stores sodium B. Stores ATP ...
- Where does glycolysis take place? A. Cytoplasm B. Stroma C. Thylakoid ...
- The chloroplast is where cellular respiration happens A. FALSE B. TRUE
- How can photosynthesis be related to cellular respiration? A. What's produced by one is ...
- Which of the following is a product of cellular respiration? A. Radiant Energy ...
- What gas is released by plants during photosynthesis? A. sulfur B. carbon dioxide ...
- Which gas is removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis? A. hydrogen B. oxygen ...
- Plants do not go through cellular respiration A. TRUE B. FALSE
- Glucose is broken down into pyruvic acid during which process A. Krebs cycle ...
- What are the products of photosynthesis? A. Carbon dioxide and water B. Carbon ...
- Billy went on a 2 mile run. Was he using aerobic or anaerobic respiration? ...
- This is referred to as the energy currency of the cell A. ADP ...
- Which of the following best describes photosynthesis? A. Photosynthesis converts radiant energy into chemical ...
- A process that does NOT require oxygen A. anaerobic B. aerobic C. ...
- A process that requires oxygen A. anaerobic B. cardio C. aerobic ...
- What is the name of the 1st step of cellular respiration? A. aerobic ...
- What are the outputs of cellular respiration? A. carbon dioxide, water and ATP ...
- Cellular respiration is anaerobic. A. TRUE B. FALSE
- Cellular respiration happens in the ________________. A. Chloroplast B. Nucleus C. Mitochondria ...
- What output of cellular respiration is energy? A. Sunlight B. ATP C. ...
- What are the inputs of cellular respiration? A. Glucose and Oxygen B. Sun, ...
- The splitting of the glucose molecule is called? A. synthesis B. denaturalization ...
- The ingredients of photosynthesis are A. sugar and water. B. sugar and oxygen. ...
- This process releases chemical energy from sugars and other carbon-based molecules to make ATP when oxygen ...
- sympathy for another's suffering; pity A. palliative B. compassion C. denial ...
- to express the opposite A. bout B. bargain C. contradict
- Bean-shaped filters that cluster along the lymphatic vessels of the body. A. sympathetic ...
- unable to be healed or remedied A. discurable B. incurable C. uncurable ...
- giving you a good feeling that you have done something valuable, important, etc. A. ...
- a ceremony in which a deceased person is buried or cremated A. funeral ...
- A mass of abnormal cells that develops when cancerous cells divide and grow uncontrollably. ...
- to leave behind A. contradict B. abandon C. sink in
- The spread of cancer cells beyond their original site A. lymph node B. ...
- a short period of intense activity of a specified kind A. buote B. ...
- another name for the large intestine A. x-ray B. bout C. colon ...
- deadly, extremely harmful, evil; spiteful, malicious A. malignant B. oesophagus C. adjacent ...
- Repeating subunit of chromatin fibers, consisting of DNA coiled around histones. A. Chromatin ...
- Programmed cell death A. Cyclin B. Cyclin-dependent kinase C. Apoptosis D. ...
- Exchange of chromosomal segments between a pair of homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis. ...
- Unspecialized cell that can develop into a specialized cell under the right conditions. A. ...
- Alternative form that a single gene may have for a particular trait. A. Telomere ...
- Third stage of the cell cycle, during which the cell's cytoplasm divides, creating a new ...
- Relaxed form of DNA in the nucleus of a cell. A. Chromatin B. ...
- The process by which an unspecialized cell develops into a specialized cell with a defined ...
- Reduction division process, occurring only in reproductive cells, in which one diploid (2n) cell produces ...
- Second main stage of the cell cycle during which the cell's replicated DNA divides and ...
- DNA-containing structure that carried genetic material from one generation to another. A. Chromatin ...
- One of the specific proteins that regulate the cell cycle. A. Nucleosome B. ...
- First stage of mitosis, during which the cell's chromatin condenses into chromosomes. A. Prophase ...
- Third stage of mitosis in which sister chromatids are pulled apart and microtubules, along with ...
- Protective cap made of DNA that is found on the ends of a chromosome. ...
- When homologous chromosome pairs align on the spindle during metaphase I the orientation of one ...
- Structure made of spindle fibers, centrioles, and aster fibers that is involved in moving and ...
- Functional unit that controls inherited trait expression that is passed on from one generation to ...
- X or Y chromosome A. Gene B. Haploid C. Autosome D. ...
- Second stage of mitosis in which motor proteins pull sister chromatids to the cells equator. ...
- Micrograph in which the pairs of homologous chromosomes are arranged in decreasing size. A. ...
- Having two copies of each chromosomes (2n) A. Haploid B. Diploid
- Enzyme to which cyclin binds during interphase and mitosis, triggering and controlling activities during the ...
- First stage of the cell cycle, during which a cell grows, matures, and replicates its ...
- One of the two paired chromosomes, one from each parent, that carries genes for a ...
- Cell structure that joins two sister chromatids. A. Telomere B. Centromere C. ...
- Cell with half the number of chromosomes (n) A. Haploid B. Diploid ...
- Process by which haploid gametes combine, forming a diploid cell with 2n chromosomes, with n ...
- Last stage of mitosis in which nucleoli reappear. Two new nuclear membranes begin to form, ...
- Uncontrolled growth and division of cells that can be caused by changes in control of ...
- Chromosome that is not a sex chromosome. A. Autosome B. Gamete C. ...
- Cell division in which the sister chromatids do not separate correctly, resulting in gametes with ...
- Cancer-causing substance. A. Stem Cell B. Carcinogen C. Cyclin-dependent kinase D. ...
- Structure that contains identical DNA copies and is formed during DNA replication. A. Sister ...
- A haploid sex cell, formed during meiosis, that can combine with another haploid sex cell ...
- Process of cellular reproduction that occurs in three stages. A. Mitosis B. Meiosis ...
- When calories eaten in food and beverages are used up through physical activity and metabolism. ...
- To supply what is necessary for life, health and growth, in order to keep alive. ...
- A food product that is created by radically nontraditional ways and doesn't look like an ...
- The amount of calories needed to maintain a person's normal body functions when at rest. ...
- Foods that have lots of vitamins and minerals and few calories. A. empty calorie ...
- A pattern of eating that includes what, how much, how often and why a person ...
- Weak and in bad health because of a lack of food or food that is ...
- A specific amount of food that helps us compare one food to another. A. ...
- When our bodies convert energy in our food into energy our body can use. ...
- The study of how our bodies use the foods we eat to keep us healthy. ...
- A hormone made by the pancreas that controls blood sugar. A. ghrelin B. ...
- An upward shift in the size and calorie count of food purchased and served. ...
- A hormone produced by the stomach that signals your brain that the stomach is empty ...
- Foods that have lots of calories and few vitamins and minerals. A. whole foods ...
- The amount of food that a person chooses to eat. A. portion B. ...
- The substances in our food that keep our bodies functioning properly. A. nourish ...
- A food product that has five or fewer ingredients and is produced with methods similar ...
- Units of energy your body gets from food and beverages. A. calories B. ...
- A hormone produced by the fat cells that regulates fat storage and how many calories ...
- Eating less than the minimum amount of the quality food essential for health and growth. ...
- Food that is in its original condition and has been processed or refined as little ...
- In stage one (top row) of these embryos, most ...
- In which kind of rock do we usually find a fossil? A. sedimentary rock ...
- Which rock layer in the diagram seems to be ...
- What is an adaptation? A. A genetic trait that helps an organism to maximize ...
- A is older than layer C ...
- Relative dating determines the... A. precise age of fossils B. age of fossils ...
- What is an embryo? A. An early stage of development of a multicellular organism. ...
- How is comparative embryology used as evidence for evolution? A. The similarities in development ...
- What is a trait? A. a color B. the quality or characteristic of ...
- When scientists see similarities between a hippopotamus embryo and a rabbit embryo, this suggests: ...
- The Law of Crosscutting states that a fault or intrusion is __________ than the bodies ...
- The more similar the stages of embryonic development, the more likely that organisms share ____________ ...
- Fossils can provide evidence of how life has changed over time, how Earth's surface has ...
- The fault is older than layer B. ...
- States that younger rocks lie above older rocks if the layers have not been disturbed ...
- Relative dating of rock layers tells us that the deeper we dig, _______. A. ...
- Common ancestry relates to evolution because A. evolution only happens when there are common ...
- Traces or remains of organisms that lived long ago A. Fossil B. Unconformity ...
- Analyze the seashell found in the white layer. Which ...
- What is natural selection? A. When reproduction occurs and mutations happen. B. When ...
- The most recent ancestral form or species from which two different species evolved is known ...
- According to the law of superposition, which layer is ...
- In the the third embryonic stage (bottom row), mammal ...
- Used to determine whether an object is older or younger than other objects A. ...
- How does embryology support the Theory of Evolution? A. It shows that embryos who ...
- specialist in treating and diagnosing diseases and disorders of the foot A. osteopath ...
- physician who specializes in the study and treatment of diseases of the musculoskeletal system ...
- refers to the study of several conditions that affect the joints, tendons, muscle, ligaments, bones, ...
- surgical breaking of a stiff joint A. arthrocentesis B. arthroclasia C. arthrodesis ...
- slow movement A. atrophy B. osteonecrosis C. bradykinesia D. lumbosacral
- physician who specializes in the relationship between the internal organs and the musculoskeletal system. ...
- specialist in treatment that consists of manipulation of the vertebral column A. osteopath ...
- excision of cartilage A. carpectomy B. costectomy C. chondroplasty D. chondrectomy ...
- Pain in the joint A. ischiopubic B. osteonecrosis C. arthralgia D. ...
- process of wasting away A. atrophy B. osteonecrosis C. osteoblast D. ...
- abnormal bone death A. atrophy B. osteonecrosis C. osteoblast D. osteoclast ...
- removal of any bone A. rachiotomy B. ostectomy C. osteoclasis D. ...
- record of the electrical activity in muscle A. arthrography B. arthroscopy C. ...
- radiographic imaging of a joint A. arthrography B. arthroscopy C. electromyogram
- crackling or grating sound A. osteoclast B. chiropractic C. crepitus D. ...
- Antibiotics are used to treat A. viruses B. bacteria C. both viruses ...
- An organism that enters a life form and causes disease or sickness is a/an: ...
- How many lines of defence in our body? A. 1 B. 2 ...
- Which of the following is NOT microorganism that can enter our body? A. Bacteria ...
- This type of immunity can be called nonspecific and refers to the bodies defenses that ...
- The white blood cells that take part in the inflammatory response which engulf pathogens and ...
- Which type of microbe is the smallest? A. Bacteria B. Viruses C. ...
- What are molecules on cells that the immune system recognize either as part of the ...
- The part of foreign materials that cause a response from the immune system are called ...
- Which of the following is NOT part of the first line of defense? A. ...
- A nonspecific defensive response of the body to tissue injury characterized by dilation of blood ...
- Which of the following is NOT part of the first line of defense? A. ...
- Which type of microbe is prokaryotic? A. Bacteria B. Viruses C. Fungi ...
- The adaptive immune response involves specialized white blood cells called lymphocytes which are also known ...
- What is the role of a B cell? A. Kills pathogens B. Helps ...
- Which line of defense includes the skin, sweat, mucous membranes, and normal microbiota? A. ...
- The second line of defense in the body is the A. barriers. B. ...
- What is your skin considered as? A. Skin is considered as a second and ...
- What type of microbe is used in a vaccine? A. it doesn't really matter ...
- What would you consider to be the purpose of the body's defense system? A. ...
- Which type of external defense is not considered a 'first line defense'. A. Lymphatic ...
- Which type of pathogen is not considered to be a living organism? A. Bacteria ...
- Which of the following statements is TRUE about someone's immune system that has allergies? ...
- What is a first line defense? A. Barriers within our body which form the ...
- This type of immunity is acquired during one's lifetime. It is induced by antigens that ...
- Which type of immunity has memory? A. innate B. adaptive/acquired
- A ___________ is an organism that carries an infectious disease like malaria carrying mosquitoes. ...
- A(n) ____ muscle that is not duplicated anywhere else in the body is the cardiac ...
- The depressor labii inferioris surrounds the ____. A. lower lip B. upper lip ...
- Muscular tissue may be stimulated by ____. A. salts B. light rays ...
- The muscles called auricularis superior, posterior, and anterior control the ____. A. eye ...
- The masseter and temporalis muscles are also known as the ____. A. chewing muscles ...
- The mandible is the ____ bone of the face. A. topmost B. weakest ...
- The muscles found in the internal organs of the body are ____. A. controlled ...
- The principal components of the nervous system are the ____. A. nerves B. ...
- What is the largest bone in the arm? A. Humerus B. Ulna ...
- The hyoid bone is located at the base of the tongue and has a(n) ____ ...
- The brain controls the ____. A. ability to think and feel B. circulation ...
- The orbicularis oculi muscle surrounds the ____. A. forehead B. mouth C. ...
- The part of the muscle that does not move and is attached closest to the ...
- The muscle that draws the scalp backward is the ____. A. epicranius B. ...
- The frontalis muscle ____. A. controls chewing B. controls the smile C. ...
- 40 to 50 percent of the body’s weight is contributed by ____. A. bones ...
- The ____ is the part of a muscle that moves and is farthest from the ...
- Neurology is the study of the structure, function, and pathology of the ____ system. ...
- The muscular system is responsible for ____ A. circulating blood and lymph B. ...
- The muscle that pulls down the corner of the mouth is the ____. A. ...
- The ____ are muscles found in the hands. A. trapezius and platysma B. ...
- Where are your vocal cords located? A. Nose B. Lungs C. Larynx ...
- What are the lungs getting rid of when you exhale? A. Air B. ...
- Microscopic sacs where gas exchange takes place; are called: A. alveoli B. bronchi ...
- Another name for the throat is called the: A. Nasopharynx B. Pharynx ...
- What are the tiny air sacs at the end ...
- Which system shares the pharynx with the respiratory system? A. circulatory B. digestive ...
- The medical term for difficulty breathing. A. Tachypnea B. Dyspnea C. Orthopnea ...
- Which is not a job of the respiratory system? A. taking in oxygen ...
- When you exhale, the diaphragm A. moves upwards B. moves downwards C. ...
- When you exhale, the diaphragm A. moves upwards B. moves downwards C. ...
- Which part of the Respiratory System collects air from the environment & heats/moistens the air ...
- The trachea branches off into two: A. Alveoli B. Bronchi C. Bronchioles ...
- A small flap of tissue that covers the trachea when swallowing is called the ...
- What important activity takes place in the lungs? A. Food is digested B. ...
- The medical abbreviations NPO, GERD, and NGT are used in relation to which body system? ...
- Microscopic sacs where gas exchange takes place; are called: A. alveoli B. bronchi ...
- What is labeled at E? A. bronchi ...
- Which is not a job of the respiratory system? A. taking in oxygen ...
- Bluish discoloration of the skin caused by lack of oxygen to the tissues. A. ...
- The Bronchi branch out into many different smaller tubes which take oxygen to the alveoli. ...
- Another name for the throat is called the: A. Nasopharynx B. Pharynx ...
- The medical term for collapsed lung. A. Epistaxis B. Atelectasis C. Pneumothorax ...
- Identify the correct translation for the root pneumat/o. A. lungs B. breathing ...
- The medical term for fast breathing. A. Tachypnea B. Dyspnea C. Orthopnea ...
- Build a medical term that means incision into the windpipe. A. tracheotomy B. ...
- What are the lungs getting rid of when you exhale? A. Air B. ...
- What is another name for the windpipe? A. Lungs B. Trachea C. ...
- Auscultation is listening to the patient's lungs and airway passages with a stethoscope A. ...
- Translate the term pneumohemothorax. A. Hernia of the lung into the chest B. ...
- The Bronchi branch out into many different smaller tubes which take oxygen to the alveoli. ...
- To go on living, the body's cells need food, water, chemicals and ... A. ...
- To go on living, the body's cells need food, water, chemicals and ... A. ...
- Which term refers to the main branches from the trachea into each lung? A. ...
- Which system shares the pharynx with the respiratory system? A. circulatory B. digestive ...
- Apnea is... A. slow respirations B. deep respirations C. no respirations ...
- A small flap of tissue that covers the trachea when swallowing is called the ...
- The patient is demonstrating staggering gait, disorientation, and confusion. Which of the following could be ...
- What two areas store the greatest amounts of Glycogen? A. Liver and Muscle ...
- Neurons require insulin to have Glucose enter its tissues. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
- The top 2 vascular problems that are found in this disorder are Microangiopathy and Macroangiopathy. ...
- Which hormone is demonstrating an imbalance when a patient is diagnosed with Grave's disease? ...
- Addison's Disease results in all of the following deficiencies EXCEPT A. Glucocorticoids B. ...
- Insulin is a hormone classified as: A. Steroid B. Non-Steroid
- What hormone is showing an imbalance when a patient is diagnosed with Acromegaly? A. ...
- A diabetes patient reports that they lack sensation in their feet at times. What diagnosis ...
- The tall tale signs of Diabetes include the P's: A. Polydite, Polymice, Polyhite ...
- With this disorder you may have exacerbation of hyperglycemia as well as immunosuppression. A. ...
- Common complications of diabetes include: A. peripheral neuropathy B. brittle bones C. ...
- This image is showing the clinical manifestations of which ...
- Which myofilament is thick? A. Myosin B. Collagen C. Elastin D. ...
- Which part of a sarcomere contains only thin filaments? A. I band B. ...
- Which part of a sarcomere is the wall between two different sarcomeres? A. M ...
- Which part of the sarcomere is the line down the middle of the myosin? ...
- Which part of the sarcomere is the light band? A. I band B. ...
- Which myofilament is attached to the z line? A. Actin B. Myosin ...
- Which myofilament has hands to grab the other one? A. Actin B. Myosin ...
- Which part of a sarcomere contains BOTH actin and myosin myofilaments? A. A band ...
- What is the smallest unit of a muscle to contract? A. Sarcomere B. ...
- Which part of the sarcomere is the dark band? A. I band B. ...
- Which part of a sarcomere contains only thick filaments? A. I band B. ...
- Which myofilament pulls the other one when a muscle contracts? A. Actin pulls myosin ...
- Which myofilament is thin? A. Collagen B. Elastin C. Actin D. ...
- How many types of myofilaments make up the sarcomere? A. 1 B. 2 ...
- What bone shape is the fibula? A. Flat B. Long C. Short ...
- What bone shape is the radius? A. Flat B. Long C. Short ...
- What are the expanded ends of a long bone called? A. Diaphysis B. ...
- What is the function of red bone marrow? A. Produce red blood cells ...
- Which type of bone is hard, dense and composed of osteons? A. Spongy Bone ...
- What bone shape is the sternum? A. Flat B. Long C. Short ...
- What bone shape is the frontal bone of the skull? A. Flat B. ...
- What bone shape are the ribs? A. Flat B. Long C. Short ...
- What bone shape are the vertebrae? A. Flat B. Long C. Short ...
- What bone shape are the metatarsals? A. Flat B. Long C. Short ...
- What bone shape are the facial bones? A. Flat B. Sesamoid C. ...
- What bone shape is the sacrum? A. Flat B. Long C. Short ...
- What bone shape is the scapula? A. Flat B. Sesamoid C. Short ...
- What type of cartilage is found at the ends of long bones, between joints? ...
- Where is yellow bone barrow found? A. Spongy Bone B. Medullary Cavity ...
- What bone shape is the femur? A. Flat B. Long C. Short ...
- What is the function of the periosteum? A. Support and resist stress B. ...
- What bone shape are the carpals? A. Flat B. Long C. Short ...
- What is the long shaft of a bone called? A. Epiphysis B. Medullary ...
- What bone shape are the pelvic bones? A. Flat B. Long C. ...
- The PAS stain is helpful in diagnosing: A. CLL B. CML C. ...
- The cells at the arrows are called what and would ...
- What is the required blast percentage for the diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia recommended by ...
- Myeloperoxidase stain is strongly positive in: A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia B. Acute monocytic ...
- The cell on the left would most likely be ...
- Which cytochemical reaction is most helpful in identifying the blasts in acute monoblastic leukemia? ...
- Auer rods may be seen in which of the following cells? A. Myeloblasts ...
- A leukemia that shows a profusion of granulocytes at all stages of development from blasts ...
- An elderly patient with a WBC of >100, 000 and 95% small mature lymphocytes on ...
- Which of the following is most often associated with acute leukemia? A. Erythrocytosis and ...
- CD2, CD3, and CD4 are present on the cells found in a patient with an ...
- The monoclonal marker that would be positive in a B cell lymphoblastic leukemia is: ...
- A patient with a hypercellular, dysplastic BM; anemia; and neutropenia in peripheral blood most likely ...
- The stain helpful in distinguishing myeloblasts from lymphoblasts is: A. Myeloperoxidase B. TRAP ...
- A gap in the normal maturation of cells with many blasts and few mature forms ...
- Is electromagnetic radiation traveling in waves. A. Ligth B. Color C. Sensation ...
- Wavelengths visible to the human eye (shown enlarged) extend from the shorter waves of blue-violet ...
- The number of complete wavelengths that can pass a point in a given time, depends ...
- The height from peak to trough (top to bottom) A. Frequency B. Peak ...
- Intensity A. Distance from one wave peak to the next B. Color experienced ...
- .................... or configurationism is a school of psychology that emerged in the early twentieth century in ...
- Represents ability to see objects in three dimensions, although the images that strike the retina ...
- Amplitud A. Distance from one wave peak to the next B. Color experienced ...
- Determines the brightness of colors (and also the loudness of sounds). A. Wave Amplitud ...
- Hue A. Distance from one wave peak to the next B. Color experienced ...
- Are clustered near the center of the retina, they detect fine detail and allow color ...
- The first perceptual task is to perceive any object (figure) as distinct from its surroundings ...
- Wavelength: A. Distance from one wave peak to the next B. Color experienced ...
- Detect blacks, whites, and grays, and are necessary for peripheral and twilight vision. A. ...
- Perceiving objects as unchanging (having consistent color, brightness, shape, and size) even as illumination and ...
- Gestalt Principles A. Form Perception Depth Perception Perceptual Constancy B. Perceptual task Ground ...
- The inferior suprarenal artery is a branch of the ______. A. inferior phrenic artery ...
- The right kidney is posteriorly related to __________. A. ribs 11-12 B. rib ...
- The suprarenal gland are enclosed by renal fascia but are separated from the kidneys by ...
- The kidneys lie retroperitoneally on the posterior abdominal wall at vertebral levels from ________ to ...
- Select the correct order regarding to renal blood flow A. renal artery, segmental artery, ...
- The right suprarenal vein drains into the _____. A. gonadal vein B. phrenic ...
- Each kidney moves about _________ in a vertical direction during the movement of the diaphragm ...
- The fat inside the renal fascia is known as _________. A. pararenal fat ...
- Select the correct arrangement posteroanteriorlly of the renal pelvis and renal blood vessels. A. ...
- Connective tissue that lies outside the perirenal fat and encloses the kidneys and suprarenal glands. ...
- People with ______ have kidneys that move downward out of their normal position when they ...
- In some people, substances such as peanuts, eggs, and milk cause an immune response. This ...
- Our immune system normally helps us resist infection and disease. Sometimes, however, it may actually ...
- The body makes chemicals that can help to destroy harmful viruses and bacteria. These chemicals ...
- The body is protected against harmful flu viruses by A. red blood cells and ...
- When a person is suffering from an infection, such as strep throat or chicken pox, ...
- Describe a vaccine. A. live pathogen B. live fungus C. weaken or ...
- Uncontrolled cell division is known as A. meiosis B. cancer C. antibody ...
- Which response usually occurs after an individual receives a vaccination for the influenza virus? ...
- Parasitic strains of E. coli may produce poisonous chemicals that attack living tissue and cause ...
- Why do public schools require certain vaccinations? A. Herd immunity prevents those who cannot ...
- A patient has just received an organ transplant. Which treatment would be most effective in ...
- Diseases can be caused by inherited disorders, exposure to toxic substances, organ malfunction, and certain ...
- When microscope slides are stained to show blood cells, the small red blood cells that ...
- Describe how a vaccine protects the body from disease. A. weakened or dead pathogen ...
- The resistance of the body to a pathogen is called A. immunity B. ...
- A vaccine can protect you against a disease because it A. destroys toxic substances ...
- Which of the following medications is a class III antiarrhythmic? A. Diltiazem B. ...
- You are currently treating a patient who is unresponsive and apneic. While managing the patient's ...
- When the R-R interval on an ECG monitor is measuring at 0.8 seconds. What is ...
- Your patient is complaining of chest pain and presents ...
- Select the ECG abnormality that is present on this ...
- Your patient is complaining of generalized weakness and presents ...
- Your patient is apenic and pulseless. Your ECG reveals a mobitz 2 av block at ...
- You are assessing a 68 year old male patient complaining of dizziness. The patient has ...
- A 32 year old male presents with sudden onset chest pain and shortness of breath. ...
- You are assessing a 64 year old male complaining ...
- You are treating a 67 year old male complaining of chest pain. He rates the ...
- Blood collected by dermal puncture causes false increase in which of the following A. ...
- 1:200 dilution of blood is made with 0.8% NSS as diluent A. 4.40x10'4/L ...
- True or false. Smooth muscle cells are found in the walls of the veins, venules, ...
- First stage in which the pink color associated with hgb can be seen A. ...
- A 3-degree tilt of an ESR tube may cause how many percent increase in ...
- What is the liquid form of edtaanticoagulant A. K2 EDTA B. Sequestrene ...
- Provide the suitable microenvironment for the maturation and proliferation of hematopoietic cells A. adipocytes ...
- What is the color of gauge 18 needle? A. BLUE B. PINK ...
- All of the following describes heparin as an anticoagulant? A. Destroys whc and platelets ...
- Which of the following a secondary lymphoid tissue? A. Spleen and lymph node ...
- Cessation of bleeding at the sight of vascular injury: A. Hemastasis B. homeostasis ...
- Approximately how many platelets are seen in a normal blood smear per HPF A. ...
- Absorbance of cyanmethemoglobin determination A. 540 nm B. 550 nm
- What anticoagulant is used to correct platelet satellitiosis with EDTA A. Sodium citrate ...
- Valuable when marrow specimen has clotted or there is a dry tap A. imprints ...
- When preparing crush smears, this may be added to the solution if the specimen is ...
- All of the following are factors involved in the extrinsic pathway of coagulation except: ...
- Suggests that each of the blood cell lineage is derived from its own unique stem ...
- Preferred form of EDTA for peripheral blood films A. liquid k3 EDTA B. ...
- FACTOR XII A. Hagemen B. Glass factor C. Contact factor D. ...
- Most numerous cells in the bone marrow A. Metamyelocytes B. megakaryocytes
- WBCs are counted in consecutive fields from tail towards the head of the smear ...
- All of the following describes an orthocromatic erythroblast except A. gives rise to 2 ...
- All of the following are pairs of globin chains found in mesoblastic stage except ...
- Extremely low wbc count a ___ differential may be considered A. 50 cells ...
- blue specks in the feathered edge of pbs A. increased platelet count B. ...
- Also known as the pack cell volume A. hematocrit B. pipette
- age distilled water is prepared by A. by using distilled water placed in a ...
- Substance synthesized by endothelial cells which is a platelet inhibitor and vasodilator A. prostacyclin ...
- Primary hemostasis is associated with all of the following except: A. coagulation proteins ...
- This requires contact with a foreign surface for activation A. Prekallekrein B. HMWK ...
- This has been described as a carpet on which inactivated platelets assemble A. vwf ...
- A patient has a hemoglobin level of 8.0 g/dL. According to the rule of three, ...
- First standard dye for core biopsy A. H and E B. Prussian Blue ...
- Statement I : Rbc is the parameter used to judge anemia Statement II: presence ...
- Causes increased MCHC except A. Lipemic samples B. Icteric samples C. Increased ...
- Statement A: Actual staining of cell or cellular components do not occur until buffer is ...
- A patient has a hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL. According to the rule of three, ...
- What is the color of gauge 22 needle? A. BLUE B. PINK ...
- Inherited coagulopathy involving factor 5 deficiency A. DIC (acquired coagulopathy of factor |, V, ...
- Third layer from the top of the buffy coat A. Nucleated cells B. ...
- Beacom’s method of blood film preparation A. cover glass and slide B. cover ...
- Drabkin’s solution contains all of the following except A. surfactant B. sodium bicarbonate ...
- All but one are alpha granules secreted by platelets A. VWF B. Factor ...
- Property by which platelets bind to nonplatelet surfaces such as your sub-endothelial collagen A. ...
- Process of replacing active marrow by adipocytes during development A. retrogression B. progression ...
- demonstration of LE cells A. buffy coat smear B. wedge smear
- Causes of falsely elevated hematocrit A. increase wbc count B. increase rbc count ...
- Which of the following is used for double balance oxalate? A. Potassium oxalate ...
- Largest cell in the bone marrow A. Metamyelocytes B. megakaryocytes
- True about POCT except A. Affected by pre-analytical and analytical variables B. Defined ...
- What is the color of gauge 23 needle? A. BLUE B. PINK ...
- A laboratorian using the 50x OO sees the following numbers of wbc in 10 fields ...
- bone marrow study for the study of acute leukemia via deletions, translocations, and polysemy remission ...
- Which of the following describes the black top citrate tube? A. Blood to anticoagulant ...
- Astain blood film is held up to the light and is observed to have a ...
- dye for examining marrow fibrosis A. trichrome dyes B. prussian blue C. ...
- Among the most difficult cells to recognize in the core biopsy specimen A. lymphocytes ...
- The megakaryocyte progenitor is stimulated by which of the following? A. TPO B. ...
- What is the color of gauge 21 needle? A. BLUE B. PINK ...
- most commonly used sight for bone marrow collection A. posterior iliac crest B. ...
- Final stage of hemostasis A. fibrinolysis B. aggregation C. secretion
- which of the following statement is true? A. formal citrate is a diluting fluid ...
- Which myeloid progenitor is referred to as dawn of neutrophilia? A. Myelocyte B. ...
- Reciprocal to dilution factor A. dilution B. dilution factor
- All of the following belongs to the proliferation pool except (proliferation pool — cells capable ...
- This inhibits thrombin and inactivates the clotting cascade A. Thrombomodulin B. Antithrombin Ill ...
- Which disease is air-borne? A. TB B. Malaria C. Cholera D. ...
- Which is the pathogen for cholera A. Vibrio cholerae B. Plasmodium cholerae ...
- Which disease is caused by a bacterium and can be spread by drinking contaminated water? ...
- What could cause an outbreak of malaria in a country after it had been eliminated? ...
- What does AIDS stand for? A. Always infectious disease sickness B. Acquired immunoduplication ...
- Which is the pathogen for tuberculosis? A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Vibrio tuberculosis ...
- Which pathogen has mitochondria? A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Vibrio cholera C. HIV ...
- Which disease is infectious? A. Measles B. Scurvy C. Lung Cancer ...
- Smallpox has been eradicated, but not malaria or cholera. Which statements correctly explain this? ...
- Which disease has an animal vector? A. Malaria B. TB C. HIV ...
- Which disease can be cured by just oral rehydration? A. Malaria B. Cholera ...
- Which is correct for the malaria pathogen? A. It is a prokaryote B. ...
- What happens when a person is vaccinated against measles? ...
- The human body has a number of barriers to prevent infection by pathogens some of ...
- In many multicellular animals, pathogens are recognised as foreign and are attracked by the immune ...
- There are numerous ways in which a person can acquire antibodies, giving immunity to a ...
- The immune system recognises which part of a pathogen? A. Antibiotic B. Antigen ...
- Which of the options below is an example of a transmissible disease? A. Obesity ...
- Which body defence listed below acts as a chemical barrier? A. Mucus lining the ...
- Which of the following diseases listed below are not caused by infectious pathogens? 1. ...
- Which of the following is the best statement about herd immunity? A. All population ...
- Which of the following diseases caused by bacteria?? A. Influenza and measles B. ...
- What happens when a person is vaccinated against measles? ...
- Which of the following correctly describes the attributes of passive immunity? A. long term ...
- Passive and active immunity have which of the following features in common? 1. They ...
- What is pathogen? A. A bacterial cell B. A disease-causing organism C. ...
- Which of the following is an effect of a cholera infection? 1. Loss of ...
- the process by which blood becomes thick and stops flowing, forming a solid cover over ...
- an antigen-binding protein produced by B-cells. A. Antibody B. Blood clotting C. ...
- proteins in the plasma that serve to activate various parts of the blood clotting process ...
- white blood cells a type of white cell that carries endocytosis of large foreign substances. ...
- any of the antibody-producing cells, and derived from B-cells. It plays a major role in ...
- a protease in blood that facilitates blood clotting by converting fibrinogen to fibrin. A. ...
- membrane lining all body passages and having cells and associated glands that secrete mucus. Also ...
- a chemical that kills or inhibits growth of bacteria by deregulation of metabolic pathways. ...
- the activated form of the blood-clotting protein fibrinogen. A. Fibrin B. Fibrinogen ...
- (Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome) is the name of the active HIV infection characterized by the reduction ...
- a small fragment of red blood cells found in the blood plasma that functions to ...
- a long-lived cell of the immune system that has previously encountered a specific antigen and ...
- a clot formed in the coronary arteries. A. Thrombus B. AIDS C. ...
- any organism that causes disease, such as a bacterium or fungus. A. Pathogen ...
- a white blood cell that could be a B-cell or a T-cell. A. Lymphocyte ...
- a section of DNA on a chromosome that controls a specific trait. A. Gene ...
- a protein in the blood plasma that is essential for the coagulation of blood and ...
- any of the antibiotic drugs obtained from penicillium moulds or produced synthetically, most active against ...
- the totality of all the chemical processes in an organism, consisting of anabolic and catabolic ...
- Hydrogen Bond A. a molecule containing a very large number of atoms, such as ...
- Atom A. a land region on the earth's surface covered by biological communities that ...
- Carbon Cycle A. the biogeochemical cycle by which carbon is exchanged among the biosphere, ...
- Nitrogen Cycle A. the process by which green plants and some other organisms use ...
- Ionic Bond A. a bond that forms when the valence (outermost) electrons of one ...
- Compound A. a living component of an ecosystem; for example organisms, such as plants ...
- Photosynthesis A. a set of metabolic reactions and processes that take place in the ...
- Covalent Bond A. a molecule containing a very large number of atoms, such as ...
- Macromolecule A. a chemical substance that cannot be broken down into other substances. The ...
- Reactant A. a substance present at the beginning of a reaction B. a ...
- Cellular Respiration A. a non-living part of an ecosystem that shapes its environment ...
- What defines a prokaryotic cell? A. multicellular, nucleus B. multicellular, no nucleus ...
- What is an undersea mountain chain where new ocean floor is produced at a divergent ...
- Which is an example of an endemic disease? A. influenza B. cancer ...
- Why are estuaries important? A. They hold all of the drinkable water for a ...
- What is adhesion? A. when water sticks to other things B. when water ...
- What best explains why all of the Earth’s freshwater is not available for human use? ...
- How can upwellings improve fishing for ocean fishermen? A. They bring nutrients from the ...
- As Earth’s human population grows, what happens to the need for natural resources A. ...
- How can our amount of freshwater be depleted? A. increased demands for water on ...
- What does equatorial mean? A. near the equator B. far from the equator ...
- What kind of cell is bacteria? A. prokaryotic B. eukaryotic C. akaryotic ...
- If a lake has excess levels of phosphates and nitrates in its water, what will ...
- What does microbiology mean? A. Study of microscopic organisms B. Study of pathogens ...
- What is cohesion? A. when water sticks to itself B. when water sticks ...
- How do bacteria reproduce? A. Binary fission B. Binary fusion
- What does the Coriolis Effect cause ocean currents to do? A. It causes upwellings ...
- What causes surface tension? A. high amounts of dissolved oxygen B. polarity of ...
- What is permeability? A. the inability of a rock or sediment to let fluids ...
- Non-Renewable resources are also known as what? A. natural resources B. fossil fuels ...
- What is the largest level of disease? A. epidemic B. cluster C. ...
- Fossil fuels are considered nonrenewable resources because of _______ . A. their easy access ...
- Of the four pathogens we studied, which is the only one that is nonliving? ...
- Sunlight is considered to be a renewable resource because…… A. sunlight is everywhere ...
- What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of viruses? A. antibiotics ...
- What are surface currents driven by? A. wind B. sun C. water ...
- What is the energy we get from earth's interior heat? A. Geothermal B. ...
- Nonrenewable resources being used at a ________ rate than they are being formed? A. ...
- What are the percentages of fresh and saltwater on Earth? A. 50% fresh, 50% ...
- A routine screening nasal swab done in asymptomatic health care workers in a hospital ICU ...
- Which of the following statements accurately describes the difference in spectrum of activity between erythromycin ...
- The most appropriate treatment for atypical pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma penumoniae is A. Penicillin ...
- Which of the following antibiotics is an appropriate choice for the treatment of anaerobic infections? ...
- Aminoglycosides are commonly used for their concentration-dependent bactericidal activity against which group of organisms? ...
- All bacterial protein synthesis inhibitors are bacteriostatic except A. Tetracylines B. Aminoglycosides ...
- Which of the following adverse effects is often employed as a therapeutic use for erythromycin? ...
- A 77-year-old woman was started on antibiotics for pneumonia treatment. After 3 days of antibiotic ...
- Linezolid would be a good choice for antibiotic treatment in which of the following patient ...
- After 5 days of clindamycin treatment for a skin infection, a patient develops diarrhea (10 ...
- Which of the following antibiotic agents should not be given to children less than 8 ...
- What do some bacteria produce that are capable of killing the host and are among ...
- Which stage of the life cycle is Aids in? A. Lytic B. two ...
- Which stage of the life cycle is HIV in? A. Lysogenic B. Lytic ...
- Bacteria use whip-like structures to move through liquids that are called A. prions ...
- Anthrax is a deadly bacteria which is capable of surviving for decades in soil because ...
- In which stage in the life cycle is the virus reproducing? A. Lysogenic ...
- All bacteria have cell walls. A. TRUE B. FALSE
- What do bacteria use to reproduce? A. Flagella B. DNA C. binary ...
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