Sitemap 77

• what chromosome was the 1st chromosomal abnormality? A. Philadelphia B. Pittsburgh C. ...
• What is the second most common cause of death in the US? A. Diabetes ...
• what medication has a counseling poing if causing feminization in male patients A. Megestrol ...
• In what sort of spinal injury could you lose control over your limbs? A. ...
• What is the cause of febrile seizures in infants? A. Increased electrical activity in ...
• In case of an emergency, how should you move a person with a suspected spinal ...
• Is meningitis bacterial or viral? A. Viral B. Bacterial C. Can be ...
• In what form of epilepsy could a patient be semi-conscious? A. Intermittent epilepsy ...
• Concussion or compression: In which condition do symptoms tend to appear in a more severe ...
• Can seizures spread in the brain A. No B. Yes C. I ...
• True or False: Meningitis is an infection to the linings surrounding the brain and spinal ...
• What test can you use to assess whether someone is having a meningitis rash? ...
• What is shown in the image? ...
• An ischaemic stroke differs from a haemorrhagic stroke in that... A. Blood flow is ...
• Which tissue connects muscles to bones? A. Ligament B. Joint C. Tendons ...
• What is the cushion between the joints called? A. Ligaments B. Tendons ...
• A place where two or more bones meet is called a _____. A. cartilage ...
• What is an example of a saddle joint? A. neck joint B. ankle ...
• What is an example of a pivot joint? A. hip joint B. knee ...
• Ligaments connect bones to other bones. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What is an example of a ball and socket joint? A. shoulder joint ...
• What type of tissue covers the surface of almost every organ in the body? ...
• What are tough strands of connective tissue that connect muscle to your bones called? ...
• What type of tissue contracts both voluntarily and involuntarily?  A. Nervous B. Muscular ...
• What is an example of a hinge joint? A. wrist joint B. shoulder ...
• Which answer best describes skeletal muscle? A. Muscle that makes up your heart ...
• When a muscle contracts, it gets ____________________. A. longer B. shorter C. ...
• is used when it is unclear whether the reaction is immunologically-related or due to a ...
• Substance found in shrimps, avocado, instant potatoes, dried fruits and vegetables that may cause food ...
• Respiratory stress may lead to weight loss and malnutrition due to the ff: I. ...
• I. Antibody is any molecule that will elicit an immune response in the body. ...
• Unless contraindicated, high fat (45-50%) diet is recommended in the management of COPD because of ...
• I. The term COPD encompasses both chronic bronchitis and emphysema. II. Emphysema is characterized ...
• I. In the treatment of asthma, growth must be monitored in children. II. Higher ...
• I. Dietary management of adverse food reactions involve thorough recording of food and symptoms experienced ...
• The following are major food allergens except A. Milk B. Eggs C. ...
• I. The symptoms of food allergy involve multiple organs systems, including the dermatologic, respiratory, gastrointestinal, ...
• I. Food allergies are more common than food intolerances. II. Immune-mediated food allergy can ...
• The ff are dietary intervention for COPD except A. small, frequent feeding B. ...
• The following are causes and examples of food intolerances except A. Cystic fibrosis ...
• I. Food allergy is an adverse immune-mediated reaction to a food that a person has ...
• A food challenge in which neither the patient nor physician knows the identity of the ...
• Divides body into top and bottom portions (superior-head; inferior-feet) ...
• Identify structure 17 A. hyperdermis ...
• The carpal region is distal to the digital region. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• How many vertebrae in the thoracic area? A. 12 B. 5 C. ...
• The human skeleton can be subdivided into two parts, ...
• Identify structure number 2. A. hypodermis ...
• the knee is ____ to the thigh A. proximal B. distal C. ...
• What is the name of the collar bone? A. Clavicle B. Scapular ...
• What is the dark pigment which gives skin its color? A. melatonin B. ...
• Which of the following is the outermost layer of skin? A. epidermis B. ...
• The axillary region is superior to the buccal. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• way from midline A. Lateral ...
• the elbow is _____ to the fingers A. distal B. superficial C. ...
• Identify structure 13 A. arrector pilli ...
• Nails are composed of a protein called A. melanin B. keratin C. ...
• Directional term that means toward the midline. A. lateral B. medial C. ...
• describes a position above or higher than another part of the body proper. A. ...
• the nose is ____ to the forehead A. posterior B. anterior C. ...
• The arrow is pointing to which side of the ...
• Describes the front or direction toward the front of the body A. Anterior ...
• Name the bone located at number 8 ...
• the heart is ____ to the arm A. lateral B. inferior C. ...
• Identify structure number 6 A. sweat ...
• Identify structure number 1 A. sweat ...
• The arrow is pointing to which side of the ...
• Anaerobic respiration requires oxygen A. TRUE B. FALSE
• This type of muscle contraction will fire against a load, but WILL NOT shorten or ...
• What is used after stored ATP is used up? A. anaerobic respiration B. ...
• A person who exhibits very large muscles has the condition called.... A. Atrophy ...
• Aerobic respiration energy lasts approximately A. 15 seconds B. hours C. 30-60 ...
• Aerobic respiration uses this as its main energy source A. creatine phosphate B. ...
• Muscle fatigue is... A. when the muscle is unable to contract B. when ...
• A drawback of anaerobic respiration is that it requires no oxygen A. TRUE ...
• Aerobic respiration is used during periods of peak activity/bursts of power. A. TRUE ...
• Anaerobic respiration uses this as its main energy source A. creatine phosphate B. ...
• ATP needs to regenerate when used A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Aerobic respiration requires oxygen A. TRUE B. FALSE
• A person whose muscles begin to digest themselves and shrink has the condition... A. ...
• Aerobic respiration occurs here A. mitochondria B. cytoplasm C. muscle D. ...
• How glucose and aerobic respiration are related. A. Glucose is broken down into ATP ...
• Anaerobic respiration energy lasts approximately A. 15 seconds B. hours C. 30-60 ...
• During short periods (10-15 seconds) of intense exercise, muscles will use which of the following ...
• Which type of CONCENTRIC contraction will have resistance through MOST OF THE RANGE OF MOTION ...
• This type of muscle contraction will fire at a constant, unchanging length A. Tetanic ...
• Which type of contraction, when fired, WILL NOT cause any movement at the joint? ...
• A benefit of anaerobic respiration is that it is 2.5 times faster than aerobic respiration ...
• Anaerobic respiration occurs here A. mitochondria B. cytoplasm C. muscle D. ...
• What is the purpose of obtaining a CT scan when evaluating N.T. for a suspected ...
• What is at the area marked by the star? ...
• what is not a descriptor of pain? A. aching B. cramping C. ...
• This disease is also called Lou Gehrig's Disease and is a progressive degeneration of nerve ...
• Increased muscle tone (plastic type) without significant loss of muscle power and increase in tendon ...
• The primary factor influencing the manifestations of a CVA is the? A. Speed of ...
• hypertension is the most common cause of what kind of stroke? A. hemorrhagic ...
• The cardinal signs of Parkinson's disease will include the following EXCEPT A. bradykinesia ...
• what disease can a ketogenic diet be helpful for? A. status epilepticus B. ...
• This is a collective term referring to a class of extrapyramidal diseases where the primary ...
• Poverty of movement, reaction time delay and slow execution. A. tremor B. akinesia ...
• 25% of TIAs, or transient ischemic attacks can progress to stroke A. TRUE ...
• cushings triad is a decrease in BP, increase in pulse and increase in respirations ...
• what is not a symptoms of increased ICP? A. severe headache B. hypotension ...
• A. A chronic nervous system disease characterized by a slowly spreading tremor, muscular weakness, and ...
• Meningitis can cause hearing loss that progresses over time A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Paralysis/weakness on the right side of the body indicates: A. Left hemisphere stroke ...
• Gives an outcome of varied or diverse offspring. A. mitosis B. meiosis ...
• Sexual reproduction involves which type of cell division? A. Mitosis B. Meiosis ...
• Give an advantage for sexual reproduction. A. Leads to genetic variations in new generations ...
• Fully grown parent cells split into two halves resulting in two daughter cells with the ...
• Which is not an advantage for asexual reproduction? A. Less genetic variation B. ...
• A parent cell breaks into pieces and each piece become a new offspring. A. ...
• Changes in an organism that affect its appearance, how it behaves, and its functions. ...
• Give a disadvantage for sexual reproduction. A. Organism must find a mate B. ...
• Happens when the parent’s chromosomes are halved. A. mitosis B. meiosis
• The offspring genetic information is exactly like the parents. A. mitosis B. meiosis ...
• Pairs of thread-like molecules, which live in the cell’s nucleus, and carries heredity information are ...
• Happens when a single parent cell divides into two daughter cells A. mitosis ...
• Made of DNA this is the basic physical and functional unit of heredity. A. ...
• The smallest biological unit of a living organism is a _____________. A. Cell ...
• Which of these proteins are present in the Nucleoid? A. Mot Proteins B. ...
• Which of the following is assembled first during flagellar assembly? A. L ring ...
• Which of the following about plasmid is false? A. Plasmid are mostly circular ...
• Which of the following is absent in Gram positive bacteria? A. Teichoic acid ...
• Which of the following can be easily washed off? A. S-Layer B. Outer ...
• CreS deficient or mutant cell will become  A. Spherical in shape B. Straight ...
• Which of the following is absent in gram negative bacteria? A. Lipid A ...
• Which of the following statement about gram positive bacteria is true? A. They have ...
• All  plasmid carry antibiotic resistant gene.  A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Porins are present in the A. Cell wall B. Cytoplasmic membrane C. ...
• New Flagellin protein are added at the ______ of flagella.  A. Base B. ...
• E.coli MreB is homologous to A. Eukaryotic tubulin protein B. Eukaryotic actin protein ...
• The rRNA present in Bacterial ribosomes are A. 25S, 16S and 5S B. ...
• Spheroplasts is a A. Gram -ve bacteria lacking outer membrane B. Gram -ve ...
• Which of this bacteria is the largest? A. Thiomargarita namibiensis B. Thiomargarita magnifica ...
• Which of the following component is outermost? A. Outermembrane B. Capsules C. ...
• Which of this protein form a ring at the center of dividing cell? A. ...
• Which of the following is a site of CO2 fixation? A. Carbonosomes B. ...
• Clockwise rotation of flagella cause A. Running motility B. Twitching motility C. ...
• Which plasmid contains the genes required for conjugation? A. R Plasmids B. T ...
• True/False: Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are all formed form a single common progenitor cell. ...
• Platelets originate from _____________. A. Reticulocytes B. Macrophages C. Megakaryocytes D. ...
• True/False: An immature red blood cell is called a reticulocyte. A. FALSE B. ...
• Granulopoiesis refers to ____________ formation. A. Granulocyte B. Monocyte C. Lymphocyte ...
• Thrombopoiesis refers to ____________ formation. A. Monocyte B. Platelet C. Granulocyte ...
• Which of the following is the correct order of maturation of nuclei in erythropoiesis? ...
• Red bone marrow is primarily composed of _______. A. Red blood cells and precursors ...
• A stimulus for platelet production is thrombopoietin, a hormone that is produced mainly in the ...
• The stroma of red bone marrow is composed of ________. A. Muscle fibers and ...
• True/False: Granulocytes have a shorter lifespan than erythrocytes. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Where do we find precursors for B and T lymphocytes, respectively? A. Bone marrow; ...
• Hematopoiesis means: A. Making new blood cells B. Consuming blood cells C. ...
• How long can monocytes live? A. One year B. 8-10 hours C. ...
• Bone marrow transitions from ______ to _______ as the animal matures. A. Yellow to ...
• How long can T lymphocytes live? A. One year B. 8-10 hours ...
• At maturity, the majority of hematopoiesis occurs in the ____________. A. Bone marrow ...
• Erythropoiesis refers to ____________ formation. A. Platelet B. Lymphocyte C. White blood ...
• How are red blood cells removed from blood? A. Turnover B. Macrophages ...
• At a later stage in granulopoiesis, does the cytoplasmic to nuclear volume ratio increase or ...
• Are reticulocytes a biconcave shape? A. Yes B. No C. Maybe ...
• True/False: ALL blood cells are derived from hematopoietic stem cells. A. TRUE B. ...
• Lymphopoiesis refers to ___________ formation. A. Platelet B. Lymphocyte C. Monocyte ...
• How long can platelets live? A. One year B. 8-10 hours C. ...
• Monopoiesis refers to ____________ formation. A. Monocyte B. Lymphocyte C. Platelet ...
• Yellow bone marrow is composed of ________. A. Red blood cells and precursors ...
• What is a colony stimulating factor that responds to low oxygen and stimulates red blood ...
• How long can B lymphocytes live? A. One year B. 8-10 hours ...
• Macrophages are formed from __________. A. Plasma cells B. T lymphocytes C. ...
• How long can tissue macrophages live? A. Months to years B. 8-10 hours ...
• True/False: Osteoclasts are fusions of monocytes. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• True/False: Lymphocytes live longer in tissues than in circulation. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• True/False: Granulocytes take a shorter time to develop than erythrocytes. A. TRUE B. ...
• What term refers to the removal of cells from circulation? A. Confiscation B. ...
• What is the first identifiable cell in the erythroid series called? Is it a large ...
• True/False: Stem, progenitor, and colony-forming units are morphologically distinguishable on H&E. A. TRUE ...
• True/False: Granulopoiesis is stimulated by colony stimulating factors which are only produced during an inflammatory ...
• Which term describes a cell that gives rise to a single, differentiated cell product? ...
• True/False: It can be normal to find plasma cells in bone marrow. A. FALSE ...
• Which term describes a cell committed to a certain lineage but able to give rise ...
• How long do red blood cells live? A. 70-160 days B. 2-3 weeks ...
• Which of the following is a component of innate immunity? A. Antibody B. ...
• Which of the following is not a features of adaptive immunity? A. Antigenic specificity ...
• T helper cells contains CD8 and recognize antigen-MHC II molecules A. TRUE B. ...
• T cytotoxic cell contains A. CD4 molecules B. CD8 molecules C. Antibody ...
• T-lymphocytes arise from A. Thymus B. Bone marrow C. Spleen D. ...
• Vaccination works based on the features of A. Innate immunity B. Adaptive immunity ...
• Which of the following is not a site of hematopoiesis? A. Fetal Liver ...
• Memory is a features of A. Innate immunity B. Adaptive immunity
• Antibody are secreted by A. Macrophage B. T lymphocytes C. Plasma cells ...
• Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) is present in A. Macrophages B. B-lymphocytes C. ...
• Which of the following is the most abundant? A. Basophil B. Neutrophil ...
• Class II MHC are present in all nucleated cells. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• The number of first year students at UTRGV is an example of _____ data. ...
• The _____ involves the creation of antibodies specific to the invader (adaptive immunity). A. ...
• ____ is an oncogenic retrovirus linked to the development of adult T-cell leukemia and lymphoma. ...
• What type of investigation involves collecting qualitative and or quantitative data to draw conclusions about ...
• What is known as the spread and growth of cancer cells at a distance from ...
• The ____ involves physical and chemical barriers to prevent pathogens from entering cells. A. ...
• Mucus, perspiration (sweat), saliva, tears and earwax are all examples of ______. A. physical ...
• _____ is a logically stepped process used for investigating and acquiring or expanding our understanding. ...
• The _____ line of defense involves immune cells that attack pathogens without specificity (innate immunity). ...
• Responses from an open-ended questionnaire is an example of ______ data. A. qualitative ...
• One of the key cells that promote tumor survival is the ______. A. neutrophil ...
• _______ are physical, mechanical, and biochemical barriers at the body's surfaces and are in place ...
• Carcinomas undergo a process of _____ during which many epithelial-like characteristics are lost resulting in ...
• _____ is the form of stories that people tell about what has happened to them. ...
• Virtually all cervical cancer is caused by infection with specific types of ______. A. ...
• What is referred to as a prerequisite for metastasis or local spread? A. metastasis ...
• Chronic ____ has been recognized as being an important factor in the development of cancer. ...
• The adaptive process that results in a long-term and very effective immunity to the infecting ...
• _____ leads to protein-calorie malnutrition and progressive wasting. A. paraneoplastic syndrome B. leukopenia ...
• Which type of investigation involves designing a fair test with an identified control variable? ...
• The ______ involves immune cells that attack pathogens without specificity (innate immunity). A. first ...
• The natural epithelial barrier and inflammation confer innate resistance and protection, is referred to as ...
• _____ is the major cause of death from cancer. A. metastasis B. invasion ...
• Which type of investigation involves collecting data to make a comparison? A. Descriptive ...
• ______ is information acquired by observation or experimentation. Scientists record and analyze this data. ...
• Notes taken during a focus group on the quality of the food at McDonald's is ...
• _____ is the available body of facts or information indicating whether a belief or proposition ...
• The ____ is a group of organs and specialized cells that protect us from pathogens. ...
• What type of therapy is used to treat nonmetastatic disease, for which cure is possible ...
• The movement of materials from high concentration to low concentration A. Diffusion B. ...
• The molecule that cells use as energy A. ATP B. Glucose C. ...
• one of the three macronutrients that is broken down into glucose and then converted into ...
• the material that is acted on (broken down or synthesized) by the enzyme. A. ...
• The building blocks of lipids A. Fatty acid and Glycerol B. Amino Acids ...
• biological catalyst made of proteins that speed up the rate of chemical reactions in living ...
• one of the three macronutrients that is made of a chain of amino acids. Used ...
• molecules from food that provide calories the body needs for growth, metabolism, and all other ...
• A barrier that allows some substances to pass through, but not all substances. A. ...
• metabolic reactions that take place in the cells to convert chemical energy from oxygen and ...
• the mechanical action and use of enzymes to break down food into smaller substances that ...
• a simple sugar that is the main source cells use to create ATP. The building ...
• The chemical reactions autotrophs use to capture the energy from sunlight for storage by converting ...
• The organelle that performs cellular respiration in eukaryotes A. Mitochondria B. Chloroplast ...
• one of the three macronutrients that includes oil and fats. A. Lipids B. ...
• the building blocks of proteins A. Amino Acids B. Carbohydrates C. Lipids ...
• Once your happy and then you are sad. A. relieve B. mood disorders ...
• The non-drowsy substance means that we feel sleepy. A. FALSE B. TRUE
• Over the counter means we can buy medication without the prescription. A. TRUE ...
• a drug that has certain restrictions on its sale is... A. overdose B. ...
• Side effects include rash, fatigue, abdominal discomfort are examples of................................reaction. A. adverse B. ...
• the act of consuming too much of a drug is... A. abuse B. ...
• to eliminate the pain is A. relieve B. adverse reaction C. overdose ...
• Anxiety is fear of something. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Post-surgical means after an operation. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The ........................................ is particularly severe, and may include psychosis! A. abuse B. administer ...
• a drug that has certain restrictions on its sale is called... A. prescription ...
• A sedative helps us to feel less nervous, to calm down. A. TRUE ...
• The duration of action is the way medicine works. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• The lack of oxygen and nutrients going to the cells is called A. Hypoperfusion ...
• The study of a disease A. Pathophysiology B. Pathology C. Perfusion ...
• A heart attack would be classified as which of the following? A. Pathophysiology ...
• The study of how disease processes affect the functions of the body A. Pathophysiology ...
• Which metabolism uses the most ATP? A. Anaerobic B. Aerobic
• The flow of blood to the heart is severely reduced or blocked, resulting in a ...
• What occurs when perfusion fails A. Shock B. Death C. Swelling ...
• Which metabolism has oxygen? A. Aerobic B. Anaerobic
• Which system brings carbon dioxide back to the lungs for elimination A. Respiratory ...
• Fluid trapped in the body's tissues from illness A. Edema B. Perfusion ...
• __________ in the ankles and feet can give an indication of poor fluid distribution ...
• Which system transports oxygen to the body's cells A. Respiratory B. Cardiovascular ...
• Which metabolism does not have oxygen? A. Aerobic B. Anaerobic
• Obstructions above the trachea would be which type of obstruction? A. Upper B. ...
• Obstructions below the trachea would be which type of obstruction? A. Upper B. ...
• Which metabolism is less efficient? A. Anaerobic B. Aerobic
• Which system transfers oxygen to the bloodstream A. Respiratory B. Cardiovascular C. ...
• The constant supply of oxygen and nutrients to the cells by the flow of blood ...
• Relaxed chest cavity creates ________ pressure and forces air out. A. positive B. ...
• Air moved in and out in one breath A. Inspiratory Volume B. Tidal ...
• Air in lungs is called A. hemothorax B. pneumothorax
• How much ambient air is Oxygen? A. 21% B. 45% C. 78% ...
• Which pleura rests on the lungs? A. Visceral B. Parietal
• Which pleura sits on the chest wall of the lungs? A. Visceral B. ...
• Air remaining in the space between the mouth and alveoli A. Dead air space ...
• May accumulate blood and air A. Visceral space B. Parietal space C. ...
• Which part of the brain is responsible for controlling breathing A. pons B. ...
• Expanded chest cavity creates ___________ pressure and lets air in A. positive B. ...
• Blood in lungs is called A. hemothorax B. pneumothorax
• What can cause an increased intravascular pressure during agony ? A. Pulmonary edema ...
• What is the most important post-mortem changes A. Cadaveric cooling B. Putrefaction ...
• caloric depletion is faster in large species than small spicies A. TRUE B. ...
• What's the name of the science that study death A. Necropsy B. Thanathology ...
• rapid (sudden) pathological death A. occurs due to physiological wear, aging B. occurs ...
• What is pulmonary alveolar emphysema A. Due to forced agonal breathing, the expiration is ...
• natural (physiological) death A. occurs due to physiological wear, aging B. occurs when ...
• The clinical death stage is longer in : A. Newborns B. Adolescent ...
• What can happen in the esophagus and trachea during agony ? A. gastric contents: ...
• The average cooling rate for medium animals is considered to be A. 0.7 - ...
• During clinical death can we try réanimation methods ? A. No B. Yes ...
• provoked death A. occurs due to physiological wear, aging B. occurs when death ...
• What is congestion during agony ? A. Reduction of the volume of venous blood ...
• what is Cadaveric cooling? Is cessation of blood circulation and ...... in ...
• pathological slow death A. occurs due to physiological wear, aging B. occurs when ...
• Which layer, composition, and organ produced by is incorrect? A. Superficial layer, lipid, and ...
• True/False: Ciliary processes are present in both the pars plana and pars plicata. A. ...
• How many layers of epithelium does the cornea have? A. 1 B. 2 ...
• True/False: The cornea is well innervated. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The anterior segment is filled with ________ and the posterior segment is filled with _______, ...
• The sclera is ______ as the cornea is ______. A. Clear; clear B. ...
• What two muscles are present in the iris? What cranial nerve is used to perform ...
• There are two layers of cells in the non-photosensitive retina on the ciliary body. How ...
• True/False: The posterior segment contains the vitreous body, retina, optic disc, and all layers external ...
• True/False: The corneal stroma contains blood vessels. A. FALSE B. TRUE
• What are the three layers of the globe from exterior to interior? A. Retinal, ...
• The latticework present in the iridocorneal angle is called... A. Trabecular meshwork B. ...
• True/False: The lens epithelium is only present on the anterior surface of a fetal lens. ...
• True/False: Diseases that raise the viscosity of the vitreous body can cause the retina to ...
• True/False: The aqueous humor and part of the vitreous body are produced by the photosensitive ...
• True/False: The sclera is vascularized, A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What are the blood vessels in the large vessel layer called? A. Orbital vessels ...
• The lens is composed of high concentrations of lens ______ and keeping the appropriate arrangement ...
• All the zonular fibers together make the ____________. A. Sling tendon B. Slingluar ...
• There are two layers of cells in the posterior iridial epithelium. How many are pigmented? ...
• Changing the overall shape of the lens allowing for focusing on near/distant objects is called ...
• True/False: The anterior segment contains the cornea, iris, pupil, lens, and anterior/posterior chambers. A. ...
• True/False: Oral medications are the best to use to address eye issues as the systemic ...
• What has the appearance of a sieve and is elastic to allow vessels and retinal ...
• True/False: The choroid is vascular. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• True/False: The vascularized layers in the eye consist of the sclera, cornea, retina, iris, and ...
• True/False: The retina is vascularized and vessels run in the nerve fiber layer. A. ...
• What is responsible for suspending the lens? A. Non-photosensitive retina present over the ciliary ...
• True/False: The lens can change shape to focus light and also varies depending on species. ...
• What is the correct layer of cells in the retinal from internal to external? ...
• A 44-year-old man has a pancreatic fistula that has persisted for 30 days following necrosectomy. ...
• A 70-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease on home oxygen, congestive heart failure, and ...
• The head of the pancreas is supplied by the pancreaticoduodenal artery. The inferior portion of ...
• A 55-year-old man is currently hospital day 4, recovering from acute gallstone pancreatitis. His laboratory ...
• A 55-year-old man is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. He is clinically worsening and undergoes a ...
• Workup of a 45-year-old woman reveals a lesion in the body of the pancreas that ...
• A 40-year-old man undergoes open debridement of extensive pancreatic necrosis involving the body and tail ...
• A male patient presents 8 weeks after an episode of acute pancreatitis. He reports vague ...
• A 38-year-old woman has chronic pancreatitis that requires surgical intervention because of chronic pain interfering ...
• A 65-year-old man is in the surgical intensive care unit with acute alcohol-induced pancreatitis with ...
• A 60-year-old woman with a long history of chronic pancreatitis is referred for surgical evaluation. ...
• A 36-year-old woman presents complaining of pelvic pain. A computed tomography scan of the abdomen ...
• A 15-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital for his fourth episode of pancreatitis. Two ...
• A 65-year-old man who is 5 days status post–pancreaticoduodenectomy has ongoing clear output from his ...
• A 56-year-old woman presents 6 months after an episode of acute pancreatitis complicated by pseudocyst, ...
• A 49-year-old male presents with chronic abdominal pain. The patient has a history of chronic ...
• A 55-year-old man is undergoing a planned Beger operation for chronic pancreatitis. After the anterior ...
• A 32-year-old man who was discharged 5 weeks ago after hospitalization for acute pancreatitis returns ...
• A 52-year-old woman has had acute pancreatitis due to gallstones. Six weeks later, she has ...
• A 75-year-old man undergoes a pancreaticoduodenectomy. The transection plane at the neck of the pancreas ...
• What is the purpose of root canal retreatment? A. To remove infected tissue ...
• A patient has a root canal infection and wants to avoid surgery. Which of the ...
• A patient has a root canal infection and is pregnant. Which of the following is ...
• A patient has a root canal infection that has not responded to non-surgical treatment. Which ...
• ow is apexification used to treat a root canal infection? A. By removing the ...
• A patient has recently undergone endodontic surgery and is experiencing pain. Which of the following ...
• How is an apicoectomy performed? A. By removing the entire root of the tooth ...
• Which of the following is NOT an indication for endodontic surgery? A. Persistent pain ...
• What is the primary purpose of the flap reflection during endodontic surgery? A. To ...
• How is the success of endodontic surgery typically evaluated? A. By the patient's pain ...
• What is the primary goal of endodontic surgery? A. To remove infected tissue ...
• What is the most common type of endodontic surgery? A. Apicoectomy B. Root ...
• How is endodontic surgery typically performed? A. By drilling into the root canal ...
• Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of endodontic surgery? A. Damage ...
• What is endodontic surgery used to treat? A. Cavities B. Gum disease ...
• How is vibrio cholerae spread? A. oral fecal route B. airborne C. ...
• Is cholera infectious or not? A. Yes, it is B. No, it is ...
• How to treat people with cholera? A. use mask B. give solutions of ...
• What is Vibrio cholerae? A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Animal
• a serious disease that affects the stomach and bowels, usually caused by dirty water or ...
• From the list below, which one is not the methods of cholera transmission? A. ...
• What symptoms that we can see from people with cholera? A. severe diarrhea ...
• Disease causing agents such as bacteria and viruses are called _______________. A. pathogens ...
• The Vibrio cholerae won't survive at which pH? A. 2 B. 5 ...
• What is the causative agent (pathogens) of cholera? A. Vibrio cholerae B. Plasmodium ...
• When corona virus needs 2-14 days of incubation. What time for Cholera virus to incubate ...
• If in covid-19, we diagnose the infection by taking the sample from our nasopharynx. How ...
• Which is the smallest? A. Sarcomere B. Muscle fiber C. Fascicle ...
• Which myofilament is thick? A. Actin B. Myosin
• A group of fascicles is a _____________. A. Muscle fiber B. Myofibril ...
• Which is the largest? A. Muscle fiber B. Myofilament C. Myofibril ...
• A sarcomere is made of many… (one step down) A. Myocytes B. Myofilaments ...
• Skeletal muscles attach to bones (or skin) in at least two places. A. TRUE ...
• A group of muscle fibers is a ___________. A. Fascicle B. Myofibril ...
• Which is a myofilament? A. Actin B. Acetylcholine C. Sarcolemma D. ...
• A muscle is made of many… (one step down) A. Muscle fibers B. ...
• Which is the largest? A. Muscle fiber B. Actin C. Myofibril ...
• When a muscle contracts, the smallest part that contracts is ___________________. A. Muscle fiber ...
• A muscle is wrapped in a _____________. A. Endomysium B. Perimysium C. ...
• Which is the smallest? A. Myofibril B. Muscle fiber C. Sarcomere ...
• Which is the largest? A. fascicle B. muscle fiber C. muscle ...
• What type of tissue connects the skeletal muscle to a bone? A. ligament ...
• A fascicle is wrapped in a _____________. A. Endomysium B. Perimysium C. ...
• A myofibril is made of many… (one step down) A. Myofilaments B. Myocytes ...
• A fascicle is made of many… (one step down) A. Muscle fibers B. ...
• A group of myofibrils is a _____________. A. Fascicle B. Muscle fiber ...
• A muscle fiber is made of many… (one step down) A. Fascicles B. ...
• Which is the smallest? A. Muscle fiber B. Myofibril C. Fascicle ...
• A muscle fiber is wrapped in a ___________. A. Perimysium B. Ectomysium ...
• Myofibrils are composed of A. Actin and Myosin B. Threshold stimulus C. ...
• Connective tissue that surrounds fascicles is A. Myofibril B. Perimysium C. Acetylcholine ...
• Which type of connective tissue surrounds fascicles (bundles) A. Perimysium B. Epimysium ...
• What type of tissues surrounds the entire muscle A. ATP B. Epimysium ...
• what is the is first A. actin and myosin form links B. acetylcholine ...
• Moveable ends of the muscle is A. Insertion B. Lactic acid C. ...
• The A band is made of A. Actin B. Myosin C. Smooth ...
• Bundles of muscle fibers are called A. Z-lines B. Threshold stimulus C. ...
• The muscle fiber membrane is called the A. Fascia B. Endomysium C. ...
• What is Hypertrophy A. Stay relaxed B. Make muscles big C. Striated ...
• During a muscle contraction, cross-bridges from between what two structures A. Myosin B. ...
• When ATP has been used, it becomes A. Perimysium B. ADP and phosphate ...
• Vesicles in the motor neuron store what substance A. Neurotransmitter B. Acetylcholine ...
• What type of muscles are primary voluntary A. Skeletal muscle B. Cardiac muscle ...
• which is third A. actin and myosin form links B. acetycholine crosses the ...
• The transport network of the muscle is called the A. Epimysium B. Sarcoplasmic ...
• A person who has a disease that inhibits the production of cholinesterase would have what ...
• The substance that crosses the gap between a neuron and a muscle fiber is the ...
• which is 4th A. actin and myosin form links B. acetylcholine crosses the ...
• A sarcomere is defined as the region between two A. Motor end plate ...
• What neurotransmitter is associated with the muscles: A. Actin B. Acetylcholine C. ...
• what chemical helps regulate ATP A. creatine phosphate B. myofibrils C. cardiac ...
• Tendons connect A. to ligaments B. muscle to muscle C. Muscles to ...
• Immovable ends of the muscle is the A. Origin B. Insertion C. ...
• The muscle fiber membrane is specialized to form a _____ at the neuromuscular junction ...
• What type of muscles make up the heart A. Smooth muscle B. Cardiac ...
• The condition where a body becomes stiff after death is called A. Perimysium ...
• The dark and light fibers of the muscles give a A. Perimysium B. ...
• The minimum amount of stimulus required for a muscle contraction to occur is the ...
• What cell organelle provides ATP needed for muscle activity A. Acetylcholine B. Mitochondria ...
• The gap between the nerve and the muscle is called the A. Synaptic cleft ...
• muscle fibers are made of individual fibers (NOT filaments) called A. Stay relaxed ...
• What is atrophy A. Makes muscles small B. Muscles that stay contracted ...
• Poisons such as botulism that prevent the release of acetylcholine would cause muscles to ...
• Sustained contraction of individual fibers, even when muscles is at rest is known as ...
• When recruitment occurs, the number of motor units being activated A. increase B. ...
• which is 2nd A. actin and myosin form links B. acetylcholine crosses the ...
• In a sarcomere, the I band is made of A. Myosin B. Actin ...
• Cholinesterase is an enzyme that breaks down A. Acetylcholine B. Actin and Myosin ...
• The energy source for muscle contraction is A. Lactic acid B. ATP ...
• skeletal muscles are reasonable for moving A. actin B. oxygen C. your ...
• What is a motor unit A. Actin and Myosin B. Motor neuron and ...
• consists of 3 processes that serve as attachments for the respiratory muscles: manubrium, corpus, xiphoid ...
• the thoracic cavity expands via active muscle contraction (diaphragm & intercostals) A. inhalation ...
• major muscle of inspiration A. diaphragm B. lungs C. abdominal wall ...
• the external intercostal muscles are ____ forces of the respiratory system A. active ...
• serves for attachment of certain respiratory muscles like the trapezius, pectoralis major and sternocleidomastoid ...
• serves as a partial attachment for many muscles, the smallest A. the manubrium ...
• as the diaphragm moves downward, the force is transferred to the lower ribs moving them... ...
• a cartilaginous structure that allows air to pass from the nose and mouth into the ...
• neither the lung nor the thorax is really at their respective rest position A. ...
• the primary muscles of inspiration A. external intercostal muscles B. internal intercostal muscles ...
• the smallest branches stemming from the secondary bronci, lead to the alveoli where gas exchange ...
• diaphragm and external intercostal muscles A. muscles of quiet inspiration B. muscles of ...
• supplies innervation to the diaphragm A. phrenic nerves ( C3, 4, 5) B. ...
• when they contract, they lift the ribs up and outward A. diaphragm B. ...
• added to the passive expiratory driving force by generating muscle contraction A. active expiratory ...
• at rest, it sits in a dome-shaped position, when it contracts during inspiration, it moves ...
• for the lungs to inflate (inspiration), alveolar pressure must be more than atmospheric pressure ...
• the body of the sternum and serves as the attachment for ribs 2-7 A. ...
• due to the elastic properties of the respiratory system, the alveolar pressure is changed by____ ...
• the chest cavity that surrounds and protects the lungs, the heart, and other respiratory structures ...
• has passive and active properties, during effortful tasks like coughing, sneezing, and certain voicing tasks, ...
• when the diaphragm moves downward and the force is transferred to the lower ribs moving ...
• a membrane that covers the thorax A. visceral pleura B. parietal pleura ...
• developed by the contraction of the respiratory muscles, alveolar pressure is changed by____ A. ...
• alveolar pressure is changed by 2 forces: passive and active forces A. TRUE ...
• For air to flow out of the lungs (expiration), alveolar pressure must be less than ...
• passive expiration is accomplished by A. non-muscular forces (recoil forces) B. muscular forces ...
• During quiet/passive exhalation____ from the stretched inspiratory muscles is released A. potential (stored) energy ...
• elastic tissue that inflates and deflates and as a result move air A. lungs ...
• during inhalation the lung volume increases, air molecules are less compressed, creating a vacuum called... ...
• the lungs are apposed (or connected) to the thorax by.... A. pleural linkage ...
• The ____ sits on top of the uppermost tracheal ring A. larynx B. ...
• the act of inspiration is always passive A. TRUE B. FALSE
• When the respiratory system is at rest, the lungs are partially ____ at rest ...
• accessory muscles A. muscles of quiet inspiration B. muscles of forced inspiration
• serves as an attachment for ribs 1 and 2 A. manubrium B. the ...
• a membrane that covers the lung A. visceral pleura B. parietal pleura ...
• breath hold, bare down (e.g., giving birth) A. intra-thoracic pressure B. abdominal unit ...
• How does the sarcomere shorten (contract) ? A. The myosin filaments contract B. ...
• __________ is attached to the Z line? A. myosin B. actin C. ...
• What is the name of the place where a nerve meets a muscle fiber ...
• ____________ attaches to actin to form the cross bridge. A. Troponin B. Tropomyosin ...
• Ca2+ will be released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum when A. impulse reaches neuromuscular junction ...
• What is necessary for the myosin to release the actin? A. ATP B. ...
• Which of the following puts the structures of the ...
• Which of the following refers to the muscle cell? A. Myofibril B. Myofilament ...
• What is the name of the neurotransmitter released at a neuromuscular junction? A. Calcium ...
• ___ and ___ are regulatory proteins bound to actin. A. Myosin and actin ...
• What is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum? A. Inorganic phosphate B. ADP ...
• A mitochondria's role in muscle contraction is the production of... A. Synthesis of ATP ...
• What does calcium do to the actin? A. Covers myosin binding sites B. ...
• Power stroke will occur when A. ATP binds to myosin head B. Myosin ...
• What causes the muscle to stop contracting? A. Lack of effort B. Myosin-Heads ...
• Which is more true to cause muscle contraction? A. Actin Pulls on the myosin ...
• What two chemicals are necessary for muscle contraction to occur? A. Niacin and Potassium ...
• What is the name of the thick myofilaments? A. Actin B. Myosin ...
• Skeletal Muscle contraction is initiated when the ________ sends a message to the muscle cell. ...
• What is the contractile unit formed from Z line to Z line? A. Sarcomere ...
• When a muscle contracts, it _______ A. gets longer B. gets shorter ...
• What does the sarcoplasmic reticulum do? A. Stores sodium B. Stores ATP ...
• Where does glycolysis take place? A. Cytoplasm B. Stroma C. Thylakoid ...
• The chloroplast is where cellular respiration happens A. FALSE B. TRUE
• How can photosynthesis be related to cellular respiration? A. What's produced by one is ...
• Which of the following is a product of cellular respiration? A. Radiant Energy ...
• What gas is released by plants during photosynthesis? A. sulfur B. carbon dioxide ...
• Which gas is removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis? A. hydrogen B. oxygen ...
• Plants do not go through cellular respiration A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Glucose is broken down into pyruvic acid during which process A. Krebs cycle ...
• What are the products of photosynthesis? A. Carbon dioxide and water B. Carbon ...
• Billy went on a 2 mile run. Was he using aerobic or anaerobic respiration? ...
• This is referred to as the energy currency of the cell A. ADP ...
• Which of the following best describes photosynthesis? A. Photosynthesis converts radiant energy into chemical ...
• A process that does NOT require oxygen A. anaerobic B. aerobic C. ...
• A process that requires oxygen A. anaerobic B. cardio C. aerobic ...
• What is the name of the 1st step of cellular respiration? A. aerobic ...
• What are the outputs of cellular respiration? A. carbon dioxide, water and ATP ...
• Cellular respiration is anaerobic. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Cellular respiration happens in the ________________. A. Chloroplast B. Nucleus C. Mitochondria ...
• What output of cellular respiration is energy? A. Sunlight B. ATP C. ...
• What are the inputs of cellular respiration? A. Glucose and Oxygen B. Sun, ...
• The splitting of the glucose molecule is called? A. synthesis B. denaturalization ...
• The ingredients of photosynthesis are A. sugar and water. B. sugar and oxygen. ...
• This process releases chemical energy from sugars and other carbon-based molecules to make ATP when oxygen ...
• sympathy for another's suffering; pity A. palliative B. compassion C. denial ...
• to express the opposite A. bout B. bargain C. contradict
• Bean-shaped filters that cluster along the lymphatic vessels of the body. A. sympathetic ...
• unable to be healed or remedied A. discurable B. incurable C. uncurable ...
• giving you a good feeling that you have done something valuable, important, etc. A. ...
• a ceremony in which a deceased person is buried or cremated A. funeral ...
• A mass of abnormal cells that develops when cancerous cells divide and grow uncontrollably. ...
• to leave behind A. contradict B. abandon C. sink in
• The spread of cancer cells beyond their original site A. lymph node B. ...
• a short period of intense activity of a specified kind A. buote B. ...
• another name for the large intestine A. x-ray B. bout C. colon ...
• deadly, extremely harmful, evil; spiteful, malicious A. malignant B. oesophagus C. adjacent ...
• Repeating subunit of chromatin fibers, consisting of DNA coiled around histones. A. Chromatin ...
• Programmed cell death A. Cyclin B. Cyclin-dependent kinase C. Apoptosis D. ...
• Exchange of chromosomal segments between a pair of homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis. ...
• Unspecialized cell that can develop into a specialized cell under the right conditions. A. ...
• Alternative form that a single gene may have for a particular trait. A. Telomere ...
• Third stage of the cell cycle, during which the cell's cytoplasm divides, creating a new ...
• Relaxed form of DNA in the nucleus of a cell. A. Chromatin B. ...
• The process by which an unspecialized cell develops into a specialized cell with a defined ...
• Reduction division process, occurring only in reproductive cells, in which one diploid (2n) cell produces ...
• Second main stage of the cell cycle during which the cell's replicated DNA divides and ...
• DNA-containing structure that carried genetic material from one generation to another. A. Chromatin ...
• One of the specific proteins that regulate the cell cycle. A. Nucleosome B. ...
• First stage of mitosis, during which the cell's chromatin condenses into chromosomes. A. Prophase ...
• Third stage of mitosis in which sister chromatids are pulled apart and microtubules, along with ...
• Protective cap made of DNA that is found on the ends of a chromosome. ...
• When homologous chromosome pairs align on the spindle during metaphase I the orientation of one ...
• Structure made of spindle fibers, centrioles, and aster fibers that is involved in moving and ...
• Functional unit that controls inherited trait expression that is passed on from one generation to ...
• X or Y chromosome A. Gene B. Haploid C. Autosome D. ...
• Second stage of mitosis in which motor proteins pull sister chromatids to the cells equator. ...
• Micrograph in which the pairs of homologous chromosomes are arranged in decreasing size. A. ...
• Having two copies of each chromosomes (2n) A. Haploid B. Diploid
• Enzyme to which cyclin binds during interphase and mitosis, triggering and controlling activities during the ...
• First stage of the cell cycle, during which a cell grows, matures, and replicates its ...
• One of the two paired chromosomes, one from each parent, that carries genes for a ...
• Cell structure that joins two sister chromatids. A. Telomere B. Centromere C. ...
• Cell with half the number of chromosomes (n) A. Haploid B. Diploid ...
• Process by which haploid gametes combine, forming a diploid cell with 2n chromosomes, with n ...
• Last stage of mitosis in which nucleoli reappear. Two new nuclear membranes begin to form, ...
• Uncontrolled growth and division of cells that can be caused by changes in control of ...
• Chromosome that is not a sex chromosome. A. Autosome B. Gamete C. ...
• Cell division in which the sister chromatids do not separate correctly, resulting in gametes with ...
• Cancer-causing substance. A. Stem Cell B. Carcinogen C. Cyclin-dependent kinase D. ...
• Structure that contains identical DNA copies and is formed during DNA replication. A. Sister ...
• A haploid sex cell, formed during meiosis, that can combine with another haploid sex cell ...
• Process of cellular reproduction that occurs in three stages. A. Mitosis B. Meiosis ...
• When calories eaten in food and beverages are used up through physical activity and metabolism. ...
• To supply what is necessary for life, health and growth, in order to keep alive. ...
• A food product that is created by radically nontraditional ways and doesn't look like an ...
• The amount of calories needed to maintain a person's normal body functions when at rest. ...
• Foods that have lots of vitamins and minerals and few calories. A. empty calorie ...
• A pattern of eating that includes what, how much, how often and why a person ...
• Weak and in bad health because of a lack of food or food that is ...
• A specific amount of food that helps us compare one food to another. A. ...
• When our bodies convert energy in our food into energy our body can use. ...
• The study of how our bodies use the foods we eat to keep us healthy. ...
• A hormone made by the pancreas that controls blood sugar. A. ghrelin B. ...
• An upward shift in the size and calorie count of food purchased and served. ...
• A hormone produced by the stomach that signals your brain that the stomach is empty ...
• Foods that have lots of calories and few vitamins and minerals. A. whole foods ...
• The amount of food that a person chooses to eat. A. portion B. ...
• The substances in our food that keep our bodies functioning properly. A. nourish ...
• A food product that has five or fewer ingredients and is produced with methods similar ...
• Units of energy your body gets from food and beverages. A. calories B. ...
• A hormone produced by the fat cells that regulates fat storage and how many calories ...
• Eating less than the minimum amount of the quality food essential for health and growth. ...
• Food that is in its original condition and has been processed or refined as little ...
• In stage one (top row) of these embryos, most ...
• In which kind of rock do we usually find a fossil? A. sedimentary  rock ...
• Which rock layer in the diagram seems to be ...
• What is an adaptation? A. A genetic trait that helps an organism to maximize ...
• A is older than layer C ...
• Relative dating determines the... A. precise age of fossils B. age of fossils ...
• What is an embryo? A. An early stage of development of a multicellular organism. ...
• How is comparative embryology used as evidence for evolution? A. The similarities in development ...
• What is a trait? A. a color B. the quality or characteristic of ...
• When scientists see similarities between a hippopotamus embryo and a rabbit embryo, this suggests: ...
• The Law of Crosscutting states that a fault or intrusion is __________ than the bodies ...
• The more similar the stages of embryonic development, the more likely that organisms share ____________ ...
• Fossils can provide evidence of how life has changed over time, how Earth's surface has ...
• The fault is older than layer B. ...
• States that younger rocks lie above older rocks if the layers have not been disturbed ...
• Relative dating of rock layers tells us that the deeper we dig, _______. A. ...
• Common ancestry relates to evolution because A. evolution only happens when there are common ...
• Traces or remains of organisms that lived long ago A. Fossil B. Unconformity ...
• Analyze the seashell found in the white layer. Which ...
• What is natural selection? A. When reproduction occurs and mutations happen. B. When ...
• The most recent ancestral form or species from which two different species evolved is known ...
• According to the law of superposition, which layer is ...
• In the the third embryonic stage (bottom row), mammal ...
• Used to determine whether an object is older or younger than other objects A. ...
• How does embryology support the Theory of Evolution? A. It shows that embryos who ...
• specialist in treating and diagnosing diseases and disorders of the foot A. osteopath ...
• physician who specializes in the study and treatment of diseases of the musculoskeletal system ...
• refers to the study of several conditions that affect the joints, tendons, muscle, ligaments, bones, ...
• surgical breaking of a stiff joint A. arthrocentesis B. arthroclasia C. arthrodesis ...
• slow movement A. atrophy B. osteonecrosis C. bradykinesia D. lumbosacral
• physician who specializes in the relationship between the internal organs and the musculoskeletal system. ...
• specialist in treatment that consists of manipulation of the vertebral column A. osteopath ...
• excision of cartilage A. carpectomy B. costectomy C. chondroplasty D. chondrectomy ...
• Pain in the joint A. ischiopubic B. osteonecrosis C. arthralgia D. ...
• process of wasting away A. atrophy B. osteonecrosis C. osteoblast D. ...
• abnormal bone death A. atrophy B. osteonecrosis C. osteoblast D. osteoclast ...
• removal of any bone A. rachiotomy B. ostectomy C. osteoclasis D. ...
• record of the electrical activity in muscle A. arthrography B. arthroscopy C. ...
• radiographic imaging of a joint A. arthrography B. arthroscopy C. electromyogram
• crackling or grating sound A. osteoclast B. chiropractic C. crepitus D. ...
• Antibiotics are used to treat A. viruses B. bacteria C. both viruses ...
• An organism that enters a life form and causes disease or sickness is a/an: ...
• How many lines of defence in our body? A. 1 B. 2 ...
• Which of the following is NOT microorganism that can enter our body? A. Bacteria ...
• This type of immunity can be called nonspecific and refers to the bodies defenses that ...
• The white blood cells that take part in the inflammatory response which engulf pathogens and ...
• Which type of microbe is the smallest? A. Bacteria B. Viruses C. ...
• What are molecules on cells that the immune system recognize either as part of the ...
• The part of foreign materials that cause a response from the immune system are called ...
• Which of the following is NOT part of the first line of defense? A. ...
• A nonspecific defensive response of the body to tissue injury characterized by dilation of blood ...
• Which of the following is NOT part of the first line of defense? A. ...
• Which type of microbe is prokaryotic? A. Bacteria B. Viruses C. Fungi ...
• The adaptive immune response involves specialized white blood cells called lymphocytes which are also known ...
• What is the role of a B cell? A. Kills pathogens B. Helps ...
• Which line of defense includes the skin, sweat, mucous membranes, and normal microbiota? A. ...
• The second line of defense in the body is the A. barriers. B. ...
• What is your skin considered as? A. Skin is considered as a second and ...
• What type of microbe is used in a vaccine? A. it doesn't really matter ...
• What would you consider to be the purpose of the body's defense system? A. ...
• Which type of external defense is not considered a 'first line defense'. A. Lymphatic ...
• Which type of pathogen is not considered to be a living organism? A. Bacteria ...
• Which of the following statements is TRUE about someone's immune system that has allergies? ...
• What is a first line defense? A. Barriers within our body which form the ...
• This type of immunity is acquired during one's lifetime. It is induced by antigens that ...
• Which type of immunity has memory? A. innate B. adaptive/acquired
• A ___________ is an organism that carries an infectious disease like malaria carrying mosquitoes. ...
• A(n) ____ muscle that is not duplicated anywhere else in the body is the cardiac ...
• The depressor labii inferioris surrounds the ____. A. lower lip B. upper lip ...
• Muscular tissue may be stimulated by ____. A. salts B. light rays ...
• The muscles called auricularis superior, posterior, and anterior control the ____. A. eye ...
• The masseter and temporalis muscles are also known as the ____. A. chewing muscles ...
• The mandible is the ____ bone of the face. A. topmost B. weakest ...
• The muscles found in the internal organs of the body are ____. A. controlled ...
• The principal components of the nervous system are the ____. A. nerves B. ...
• What is the largest bone in the arm? A. Humerus B. Ulna ...
• The hyoid bone is located at the base of the tongue and has a(n) ____ ...
• The brain controls the ____. A. ability to think and feel B. circulation ...
• The orbicularis oculi muscle surrounds the ____. A. forehead B. mouth C. ...
• The part of the muscle that does not move and is attached closest to the ...
• The muscle that draws the scalp backward is the ____. A. epicranius B. ...
• The frontalis muscle ____. A. controls chewing B. controls the smile C. ...
• 40 to 50 percent of the body’s weight is contributed by ____. A. bones ...
• The ____ is the part of a muscle that moves and is farthest from the ...
• Neurology is the study of the structure, function, and pathology of the ____ system. ...
• The muscular system is responsible for ____ A. circulating blood and lymph B. ...
• The muscle that pulls down the corner of the mouth is the ____. A. ...
• The ____ are muscles found in the hands. A. trapezius and platysma B. ...
• Where are your vocal cords located? A. Nose B. Lungs C. Larynx ...
• What are the lungs getting rid of when you exhale? A. Air B. ...
• Microscopic sacs where gas exchange takes place; are called: A. alveoli B. bronchi ...
• Another name for the throat is called the: A. Nasopharynx B. Pharynx ...
• What are the tiny air sacs at the end ...
• Which system shares the pharynx with the respiratory system? A. circulatory B. digestive ...
• The medical term for difficulty breathing. A. Tachypnea B. Dyspnea C. Orthopnea ...
• Which is not a job of the respiratory system? A. taking in oxygen ...
• When you exhale, the diaphragm A. moves upwards B. moves downwards C. ...
• When you exhale, the diaphragm A. moves upwards B. moves downwards C. ...
• Which part of the Respiratory System collects air from the environment & heats/moistens the air ...
• The trachea branches off into two: A. Alveoli B. Bronchi C. Bronchioles ...
• A small flap of tissue that covers the trachea when swallowing is called the ...
• What important activity takes place in the lungs? A. Food is digested B. ...
• The medical abbreviations NPO, GERD, and NGT are used in relation to which body system? ...
• Microscopic sacs where gas exchange takes place; are called: A. alveoli B. bronchi ...
• What is labeled at E? A. bronchi ...
• Which is not a job of the respiratory system? A. taking in oxygen ...
• Bluish discoloration of the skin caused by lack of oxygen to the tissues. A. ...
• The Bronchi branch out into many different smaller tubes which take oxygen to the alveoli. ...
• Another name for the throat is called the: A. Nasopharynx B. Pharynx ...
• The medical term for collapsed lung. A. Epistaxis B. Atelectasis C. Pneumothorax ...
• Identify the correct translation for the root pneumat/o. A. lungs B. breathing ...
• The medical term for fast breathing. A. Tachypnea B. Dyspnea C. Orthopnea ...
• Build a medical term that means incision into the windpipe. A. tracheotomy B. ...
• What are the lungs getting rid of when you exhale? A. Air B. ...
• What is another name for the windpipe? A. Lungs B. Trachea C. ...
• Auscultation is listening to the patient's lungs and airway passages with a stethoscope A. ...
• Translate the term pneumohemothorax. A. Hernia of the lung into the chest B. ...
• The Bronchi branch out into many different smaller tubes which take oxygen to the alveoli. ...
• To go on living, the body's cells need food, water, chemicals and ... A. ...
• To go on living, the body's cells need food, water, chemicals and ... A. ...
• Which term refers to the main branches from the trachea into each lung? A. ...
• Which system shares the pharynx with the respiratory system? A. circulatory B. digestive ...
• Apnea is... A. slow respirations B. deep respirations C. no respirations ...
• A small flap of tissue that covers the trachea when swallowing is called the ...
• The patient is demonstrating staggering gait, disorientation, and confusion. Which of the following could be ...
• What two areas store the greatest amounts of Glycogen? A. Liver and Muscle ...
• Neurons require insulin to have Glucose enter its tissues. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• The top 2 vascular problems that are found in this disorder are Microangiopathy and Macroangiopathy. ...
• Which hormone is demonstrating an imbalance when a patient is diagnosed with Grave's disease? ...
• Addison's Disease results in all of the following deficiencies EXCEPT A. Glucocorticoids B. ...
• Insulin is a hormone classified as: A. Steroid B. Non-Steroid
• What hormone is showing an imbalance when a patient is diagnosed with Acromegaly? A. ...
• A diabetes patient reports that they lack sensation in their feet at times. What diagnosis ...
• The tall tale signs of Diabetes include the P's: A. Polydite, Polymice, Polyhite ...
• With this disorder you may have exacerbation of hyperglycemia as well as immunosuppression. A. ...
• Common complications of diabetes include: A. peripheral neuropathy B. brittle bones C. ...
• This image is showing the clinical manifestations of which ...
• Which myofilament is thick? A. Myosin B. Collagen C. Elastin D. ...
• Which part of a sarcomere contains only thin filaments? A. I band B. ...
• Which part of a sarcomere is the wall between two different sarcomeres? A. M ...
• Which part of the sarcomere is the line down the middle of the myosin? ...
• Which part of the sarcomere is the light band? A. I band B. ...
• Which myofilament is attached to the z line? A. Actin B. Myosin ...
• Which myofilament has hands to grab the other one? A. Actin B. Myosin ...
• Which part of a sarcomere contains BOTH actin and myosin myofilaments? A. A band ...
• What is the smallest unit of a muscle to contract? A. Sarcomere B. ...
• Which part of the sarcomere is the dark band? A. I band B. ...
• Which part of a sarcomere contains only thick filaments? A. I band B. ...
• Which myofilament pulls the other one when a muscle contracts? A. Actin pulls myosin ...
• Which myofilament is thin? A. Collagen B. Elastin C. Actin D. ...
• How many types of myofilaments make up the sarcomere? A. 1 B. 2 ...
• What bone shape is the fibula? A. Flat B. Long C. Short ...
• What bone shape is the radius? A. Flat B. Long C. Short ...
• What are the expanded ends of a long bone called? A. Diaphysis B. ...
• What is the function of red bone marrow? A. Produce red blood cells ...
• Which type of bone is hard, dense and composed of osteons? A. Spongy Bone ...
• What bone shape is the sternum? A. Flat B. Long C. Short ...
• What bone shape is the frontal bone of the skull? A. Flat B. ...
• What bone shape are the ribs? A. Flat B. Long C. Short ...
• What bone shape are the vertebrae? A. Flat B. Long C. Short ...
• What bone shape are the metatarsals? A. Flat B. Long C. Short ...
• What bone shape are the facial bones? A. Flat B. Sesamoid C. ...
• What bone shape is the sacrum? A. Flat B. Long C. Short ...
• What bone shape is the scapula? A. Flat B. Sesamoid C. Short ...
• What type of cartilage is found at the ends of long bones, between joints? ...
• Where is yellow bone barrow found? A. Spongy Bone B. Medullary Cavity ...
• What bone shape is the femur? A. Flat B. Long C. Short ...
• What is the function of the periosteum? A. Support and resist stress B. ...
• What bone shape are the carpals? A. Flat B. Long C. Short ...
• What is the long shaft of a bone called? A. Epiphysis B. Medullary ...
• What bone shape are the pelvic bones? A. Flat B. Long C. ...
• The PAS stain is helpful in diagnosing: A. CLL B. CML C. ...
• The cells at the arrows are called what and would ...
• What is the required blast percentage for the diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia recommended by ...
• Myeloperoxidase stain is strongly positive in: A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia B. Acute monocytic ...
• The cell on the left would most likely be ...
• Which cytochemical reaction is most helpful in identifying the blasts in acute monoblastic leukemia? ...
• Auer rods may be seen in which of the following cells? A. Myeloblasts ...
• A leukemia that shows a profusion of granulocytes at all stages of development from blasts ...
• An elderly patient with a WBC of >100, 000 and 95% small mature lymphocytes on ...
• Which of the following is most often associated with acute leukemia? A. Erythrocytosis and ...
• CD2, CD3, and CD4 are present on the cells found in a patient with an ...
• The monoclonal marker that would be positive in a B cell lymphoblastic leukemia is: ...
• A patient with a hypercellular, dysplastic BM; anemia; and neutropenia in peripheral blood most likely ...
• The stain helpful in distinguishing myeloblasts from lymphoblasts is: A. Myeloperoxidase B. TRAP ...
• A gap in the normal maturation of cells with many blasts and few mature forms ...
• Is electromagnetic radiation traveling in waves. A. Ligth B. Color C. Sensation ...
• Wavelengths visible to the human eye (shown enlarged) extend from the shorter waves of blue-violet ...
• The number of complete wavelengths that can pass a point in a given time, depends ...
• The height from peak to trough (top to bottom) A. Frequency B. Peak ...
• Intensity A. Distance from one wave peak to the next B. Color experienced ...
• .................... or configurationism is a school of psychology that emerged in the early twentieth century in ...
• Represents ability to see objects in three dimensions, although the images that strike the retina ...
• Amplitud A. Distance from one wave peak to the next B. Color experienced ...
• Determines the brightness of colors (and also the loudness of sounds). A. Wave Amplitud ...
• Hue A. Distance from one wave peak to the next B. Color experienced ...
• Are clustered near the center of the retina, they detect fine detail and allow color ...
• The first perceptual task is to perceive any object (figure) as distinct from its surroundings ...
• Wavelength: A. Distance from one wave peak to the next B. Color experienced ...
• Detect blacks, whites, and grays, and are necessary for peripheral and twilight vision. A. ...
• Perceiving objects as unchanging (having consistent color, brightness, shape, and size) even as illumination and ...
• Gestalt Principles A. Form Perception Depth Perception Perceptual Constancy B. Perceptual task Ground ...
• The inferior suprarenal artery is a branch of the ______. A. inferior phrenic artery ...
• The right kidney is posteriorly related to __________. A. ribs 11-12 B. rib ...
• The suprarenal gland are enclosed by renal fascia but are separated from the kidneys by ...
• The kidneys lie retroperitoneally on the posterior abdominal wall at vertebral levels from ________ to ...
• Select the correct order regarding to renal blood flow A. renal artery, segmental artery, ...
• The right suprarenal vein drains into the _____. A. gonadal vein B. phrenic ...
• Each kidney moves about _________ in a vertical direction during the movement of the diaphragm ...
• The fat inside the renal fascia is known as _________. A. pararenal fat ...
• Select the correct arrangement posteroanteriorlly of the renal pelvis and renal blood vessels. A. ...
• Connective tissue that lies outside the perirenal fat and encloses the kidneys and suprarenal glands. ...
• People with ______ have kidneys that move downward out of their normal position when they ...
• In some people, substances such as peanuts, eggs, and milk cause an immune response. This ...
• Our immune system normally helps us resist infection and disease. Sometimes, however, it may actually ...
• The body makes chemicals that can help to destroy harmful viruses and bacteria. These chemicals ...
• The body is protected against harmful flu viruses by A. red blood cells and ...
• When a person is suffering from an infection, such as strep throat or chicken pox, ...
• Describe a vaccine. A. live pathogen B. live fungus C. weaken or ...
• Uncontrolled cell division is known as A. meiosis B. cancer C. antibody ...
• Which response usually occurs after an individual receives a vaccination for the influenza virus? ...
• Parasitic strains of E. coli may produce poisonous chemicals that attack living tissue and cause ...
• Why do public schools require certain vaccinations? A. Herd immunity prevents those who cannot ...
• A patient has just received an organ transplant. Which treatment would be most effective in ...
• Diseases can be caused by inherited disorders, exposure to toxic substances, organ malfunction, and certain ...
• When microscope slides are stained to show blood cells, the small red blood cells that ...
• Describe how a vaccine protects the body from disease. A. weakened or dead pathogen ...
• The resistance of the body to a pathogen is called A. immunity B. ...
• A vaccine can protect you against a disease because it A. destroys toxic substances ...
• Which of the following medications is a class III antiarrhythmic? A. Diltiazem B. ...
• You are currently treating a patient who is unresponsive and apneic. While managing the patient's ...
• When the R-R interval on an ECG monitor is measuring at 0.8 seconds. What is ...
• Your patient is complaining of chest pain and presents ...
• Select the ECG abnormality that is present on this ...
• Your patient is complaining of generalized weakness and presents ...
• Your patient is apenic and pulseless. Your ECG reveals a mobitz 2 av block at ...
• You are assessing a 68 year old male patient complaining of dizziness. The patient has ...
• A 32 year old male presents with sudden onset chest pain and shortness of breath. ...
• You are assessing a 64 year old male complaining ...
• You are treating a 67 year old male complaining of chest pain. He rates the ...
• Blood collected by dermal puncture causes false increase in which of the following A. ...
• 1:200 dilution of blood is made with 0.8% NSS as diluent A. 4.40x10'4/L ...
• True or false. Smooth muscle cells are found in the walls of the veins, venules, ...
• First stage in which the pink color associated with hgb can be seen A. ...
• A 3-degree tilt of an ESR tube may cause how many percent increase in ...
• What is the liquid form of edtaanticoagulant A. K2 EDTA B. Sequestrene ...
• Provide the suitable microenvironment for the maturation and proliferation of hematopoietic cells A. adipocytes ...
• What is the color of gauge 18 needle? A. BLUE B. PINK ...
• All of the following describes heparin as an anticoagulant? A. Destroys whc and platelets ...
• Which of the following a secondary lymphoid tissue? A. Spleen and lymph node ...
• Cessation of bleeding at the sight of vascular injury: A. Hemastasis B. homeostasis ...
• Approximately how many platelets are seen in a normal blood smear per HPF A. ...
• Absorbance of cyanmethemoglobin determination A. 540 nm B. 550 nm
• What anticoagulant is used to correct platelet satellitiosis with EDTA A. Sodium citrate ...
• Valuable when marrow specimen has clotted or there is a dry tap A. imprints ...
• When preparing crush smears, this may be added to the solution if the specimen is ...
• All of the following are factors involved in the extrinsic pathway of coagulation except: ...
• Suggests that each of the blood cell lineage is derived from its own unique stem ...
• Preferred form of EDTA for peripheral blood films A. liquid k3 EDTA B. ...
• FACTOR XII A. Hagemen B. Glass factor C. Contact factor D. ...
• Most numerous cells in the bone marrow A. Metamyelocytes B. megakaryocytes
• WBCs are counted in consecutive fields from tail towards the head of the smear ...
• All of the following describes an orthocromatic erythroblast except A. gives rise to 2 ...
• All of the following are pairs of globin chains found in mesoblastic stage except ...
• Extremely low wbc count a ___ differential may be considered A. 50 cells ...
• blue specks in the feathered edge of pbs A. increased platelet count B. ...
• Also known as the pack cell volume A. hematocrit B. pipette
• age distilled water is prepared by A. by using distilled water placed in a ...
• Substance synthesized by endothelial cells which is a platelet inhibitor and vasodilator A. prostacyclin ...
• Primary hemostasis is associated with all of the following except: A. coagulation proteins ...
• This requires contact with a foreign surface for activation A. Prekallekrein B. HMWK ...
• This has been described as a carpet on which inactivated platelets assemble A. vwf ...
• A patient has a hemoglobin level of 8.0 g/dL. According to the rule of three, ...
• First standard dye for core biopsy A. H and E B. Prussian Blue ...
• Statement I : Rbc is the parameter used to judge anemia Statement II: presence ...
• Causes increased MCHC except A. Lipemic samples B. Icteric samples C. Increased ...
• Statement A: Actual staining of cell or cellular components do not occur until buffer is ...
• A patient has a hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL. According to the rule of three, ...
• What is the color of gauge 22 needle? A. BLUE B. PINK ...
• Inherited coagulopathy involving factor 5 deficiency A. DIC (acquired coagulopathy of factor |, V, ...
• Third layer from the top of the buffy coat A. Nucleated cells B. ...
• Beacom’s method of blood film preparation A. cover glass and slide B. cover ...
• Drabkin’s solution contains all of the following except A. surfactant B. sodium bicarbonate ...
• All but one are alpha granules secreted by platelets A. VWF B. Factor ...
• Property by which platelets bind to nonplatelet surfaces such as your sub-endothelial collagen A. ...
• Process of replacing active marrow by adipocytes during development A. retrogression B. progression ...
• demonstration of LE cells A. buffy coat smear B. wedge smear
• Causes of falsely elevated hematocrit A. increase wbc count B. increase rbc count ...
• Which of the following is used for double balance oxalate? A. Potassium oxalate ...
• Largest cell in the bone marrow A. Metamyelocytes B. megakaryocytes
• True about POCT except A. Affected by pre-analytical and analytical variables B. Defined ...
• What is the color of gauge 23 needle? A. BLUE B. PINK ...
• A laboratorian using the 50x OO sees the following numbers of wbc in 10 fields ...
• bone marrow study for the study of acute leukemia via deletions, translocations, and polysemy remission ...
• Which of the following describes the black top citrate tube? A. Blood to anticoagulant ...
• Astain blood film is held up to the light and is observed to have a ...
• dye for examining marrow fibrosis A. trichrome dyes B. prussian blue C. ...
• Among the most difficult cells to recognize in the core biopsy specimen A. lymphocytes ...
• The megakaryocyte progenitor is stimulated by which of the following? A. TPO B. ...
• What is the color of gauge 21 needle? A. BLUE B. PINK ...
• most commonly used sight for bone marrow collection A. posterior iliac crest B. ...
• Final stage of hemostasis A. fibrinolysis B. aggregation C. secretion
• which of the following statement is true? A. formal citrate is a diluting fluid ...
• Which myeloid progenitor is referred to as dawn of neutrophilia? A. Myelocyte B. ...
• Reciprocal to dilution factor A. dilution B. dilution factor
• All of the following belongs to the proliferation pool except (proliferation pool — cells capable ...
• This inhibits thrombin and inactivates the clotting cascade A. Thrombomodulin B. Antithrombin Ill ...
• Which disease is air-borne? A. TB B. Malaria C. Cholera D. ...
• Which is the pathogen for cholera A. Vibrio cholerae B. Plasmodium cholerae ...
• Which disease is caused by a bacterium and can be spread by drinking contaminated water? ...
• What could cause an outbreak of malaria in a country after it had been eliminated? ...
• What does AIDS stand for? A. Always infectious disease sickness B. Acquired immunoduplication ...
• Which is the pathogen for tuberculosis? A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Vibrio tuberculosis ...
• Which pathogen has mitochondria? A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Vibrio cholera C. HIV ...
• Which disease is infectious? A. Measles B. Scurvy C. Lung Cancer ...
• Smallpox has been eradicated, but not malaria or cholera. Which statements correctly explain this? ...
• Which disease has an animal vector? A. Malaria B. TB C. HIV ...
• Which disease can be cured by just oral rehydration? A. Malaria B. Cholera ...
• Which is correct for the malaria pathogen? A. It is a prokaryote B. ...
• What happens when a person is vaccinated against measles? ...
• The human body has a number of barriers to prevent infection by pathogens some of ...
• In many multicellular animals, pathogens are recognised as foreign and are attracked by the immune ...
• There are numerous ways in which a person can acquire antibodies, giving immunity to a ...
• The immune system recognises which part of a pathogen? A. Antibiotic B. Antigen ...
• Which of the options below is an example of a transmissible disease? A. Obesity ...
• Which body defence listed below acts as a chemical barrier? A. Mucus lining the ...
• Which of the following diseases listed below are not caused by infectious pathogens? 1. ...
• Which of the following is the best statement about herd immunity? A. All population ...
• Which of the following diseases caused by bacteria?? A. Influenza and measles B. ...
• What happens when a person is vaccinated against measles? ...
• Which of the following correctly describes the attributes of passive immunity? A. long term ...
• Passive and active immunity have which of the following features in common? 1. They ...
• What is pathogen? A. A bacterial cell B. A disease-causing organism C. ...
• Which of the following is an effect of a cholera infection? 1. Loss of ...
• the process by which blood becomes thick and stops flowing, forming a solid cover over ...
• an antigen-binding protein produced by B-cells. A. Antibody B. Blood clotting C. ...
• proteins in the plasma that serve to activate various parts of the blood clotting process ...
• white blood cells a type of white cell that carries endocytosis of large foreign substances. ...
• any of the antibody-producing cells, and derived from B-cells. It plays a major role in ...
• a protease in blood that facilitates blood clotting by converting fibrinogen to fibrin. A. ...
• membrane lining all body passages and having cells and associated glands that secrete mucus. Also ...
• a chemical that kills or inhibits growth of bacteria by deregulation of metabolic pathways. ...
• the activated form of the blood-clotting protein fibrinogen. A. Fibrin B. Fibrinogen ...
• (Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome) is the name of the active HIV infection characterized by the reduction ...
• a small fragment of red blood cells found in the blood plasma that functions to ...
• a long-lived cell of the immune system that has previously encountered a specific antigen and ...
• a clot formed in the coronary arteries. A. Thrombus B. AIDS C. ...
• any organism that causes disease, such as a bacterium or fungus. A. Pathogen ...
• a white blood cell that could be a B-cell or a T-cell. A. Lymphocyte ...
• a section of DNA on a chromosome that controls a specific trait. A. Gene ...
• a protein in the blood plasma that is essential for the coagulation of blood and ...
• any of the antibiotic drugs obtained from penicillium moulds or produced synthetically, most active against ...
• the totality of all the chemical processes in an organism, consisting of anabolic and catabolic ...
• Hydrogen Bond A. a molecule containing a very large number of atoms, such as ...
• Atom A. a land region on the earth's surface covered by biological communities that ...
• Carbon Cycle  A. the biogeochemical cycle by which carbon is exchanged among the biosphere, ...
• Nitrogen Cycle  A. the process by which green plants and some other organisms use ...
• Ionic Bond A. a bond that forms when the valence (outermost) electrons of one ...
• Compound A. a living component of an ecosystem; for example organisms, such as plants ...
• Photosynthesis A. a set of metabolic reactions and processes that take place in the ...
• Covalent Bond A. a molecule containing a very large number of atoms, such as ...
• Macromolecule A. a chemical substance that cannot be broken down into other substances. The ...
• Reactant A. a substance present at the beginning of a reaction B. a ...
• Cellular Respiration  A. a non-living part of an ecosystem that shapes its environment ...
• What defines a prokaryotic cell? A. multicellular, nucleus B. multicellular, no nucleus ...
• What is an undersea mountain chain where new ocean floor is produced at a divergent ...
• Which is an example of an endemic disease? A. influenza B. cancer ...
• Why are estuaries important? A. They hold all of the drinkable water for a ...
• What is adhesion? A. when water sticks to other things B. when water ...
• What best explains why all of the Earth’s freshwater is not available for human use? ...
• How can upwellings improve fishing for ocean fishermen? A. They bring nutrients from the ...
• As Earth’s human population grows, what happens to the need for natural resources A. ...
• How can our amount of freshwater be depleted? A. increased demands for water on ...
• What does equatorial mean? A. near the equator B. far from the equator ...
• What kind of cell is bacteria? A. prokaryotic B. eukaryotic C. akaryotic ...
• If a lake has excess levels of phosphates and nitrates in its water, what will ...
• What does microbiology mean? A. Study of microscopic organisms B. Study of pathogens ...
• What is cohesion? A. when water sticks to itself B. when water sticks ...
• How do bacteria reproduce? A. Binary fission B. Binary fusion
• What does the Coriolis Effect cause ocean currents to do? A. It causes upwellings ...
• What causes surface tension? A. high amounts of dissolved oxygen B. polarity of ...
• What is permeability? A. the inability of a rock or sediment to let fluids ...
• Non-Renewable resources are also known as what? A. natural resources B. fossil fuels ...
• What is the largest level of disease? A. epidemic B. cluster C. ...
• Fossil fuels are considered nonrenewable resources because of _______ . A. their easy access ...
• Of the four pathogens we studied, which is the only one that is nonliving? ...
• Sunlight is considered to be a renewable resource because…… A. sunlight is everywhere ...
• What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of viruses? A. antibiotics ...
• What are surface currents driven by? A. wind B. sun C. water ...
• What is the energy we get from earth's interior heat? A. Geothermal B. ...
• Nonrenewable resources being used at a ________ rate than they are being formed? A. ...
• What are the percentages of fresh and saltwater on Earth? A. 50% fresh, 50% ...
• A routine screening nasal swab done in asymptomatic health care workers in a hospital ICU ...
• Which of the following statements accurately describes the difference in spectrum of activity between erythromycin ...
• The most appropriate treatment for atypical pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma penumoniae is A. Penicillin ...
• Which of the following antibiotics is an appropriate choice for the treatment of anaerobic infections? ...
• Aminoglycosides are commonly used for their concentration-dependent bactericidal activity against which group of organisms? ...
• All bacterial protein synthesis inhibitors are bacteriostatic except A. Tetracylines B. Aminoglycosides ...
• Which of the following adverse effects is often employed as a therapeutic use for erythromycin? ...
• A 77-year-old woman was started on antibiotics for pneumonia treatment. After 3 days of antibiotic ...
• Linezolid would be a good choice for antibiotic treatment in which of the following patient ...
• After 5 days of clindamycin treatment for a skin infection, a patient develops diarrhea (10 ...
• Which of the following antibiotic agents should not be given to children less than 8 ...
• What do some bacteria produce that are capable of killing the host and are among ...
• Which stage of the life cycle is Aids in? A. Lytic B. two ...
• Which stage of the life cycle is HIV in? A. Lysogenic B. Lytic ...
• Bacteria use whip-like structures to move through liquids that are called A. prions ...
• Anthrax is a deadly bacteria which is capable of surviving for decades in soil because ...
• In which stage in the life cycle is the virus reproducing? A. Lysogenic ...
• All bacteria have cell walls. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What do bacteria use to reproduce? A. Flagella B. DNA C. binary ...