Sitemap 74

• Which injury occurs when the tooth is knocked completely out of place A. subluxation ...
• Relationship between microorganisms and their environment. A. Microbial ecology B. Evolutionary microbiology C. Nano microbiology ...
• Study of how genes are structured and regulated in microbes in relation to their cellular ...
• Protozoology is the study of protozoa. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Study of microorganisms that involved in the manufacturing of antibiotics, enzymes, vitamins, vaccines, and other ...
• Study of bacteria is called Bacteriology. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Science of naming and classifying microbes. A. Microbial ecology B. Microbial pathogenesis C. Microbial taxonomy ...
• Study of the process by which a microorganism causes a disease. A. Microbial genetics ...
• Organisms themselves are not examined in applied microbiology; rather, they are applied to a specific ...
• Mycolony is the study of fungi, such as yeasts and molds. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Study of algae. A. Virology B. Zoology C. Phycology
• An organism that can be seen only through a microscope. A. Microbiology B. Microorganisms ...
• Reveals how pathogenic microorganism interacts with host cells in what is turning out to be ...
• Study of the interactions between microorganisms and plants and plant pathogens. A. Agriculture B. Soil ...
• Are all parasites microorganisms? A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Study of those microscopic organisms on nano level. A. Nano technology B. Nano microbiology ...
• This area of microbiology also covers the study of human microbiota, cancer, and the tumor ...
• Study of those microorganisms that are found in soil. A. Land microbiology B. Soil microbiology ...
• This includes the following -Microbial ecology -Microbially mediated nutrient cycling -Geomicrobiology -Microbial diversity -Bioremediation. ...
• Study of agriculturally relevant microorganisms. A. Soil microbiology B. Agricultural microbiology C. Plant pathology
• Study of those microorganisms that have the same characters as their parents A. Generation microbiology ...
• Study of how the biochemistry of a microbial cell works. Includes the study of microbial ...
• Quantification of relations between controlling factors in foods and responses of pathogenic and spoilage microorganisms ...
• Organisms are thoroughly investigated. A. Taxonomy microbiology B. Applied microbiology C. Pure microbiology
• Study of the genetic relationships between different organisms. A. Nano microbiology B. Predictive microbiology ...
• Study of microbial evolution. A. Evolutionary microbiology B. Evolution microbiology. C. Voluntary Microbiology
• Manipulation of microorganisms at the genetic and molecular level to generate useful products. A. Microbial ...
• It refers to the phases of growth of the bacterial population. A. Growth curve ...
• Bridge systems biology and microbiology. A. Systems microbiology B. Microbial taxonomy C. Applied Microbiology
• Study of those microorganisms which are being used in weapon industries. A. Evolutionary microbiology ...
• This is the study of the immune system. It looks at the relationships between pathogens ...
• Study of microorganisms in outer space. A. Predictive microbiology B. Astro microbiology C. Medical microbiology ...
• Study of nematodes (roundworms). A. Nematology B. Parasitology C. Zoology
• Study of microbial diversity and genetic relationships. A. Generation microbiology B. Microbial taxonomy C. Microbial ...
• Study of microorganisms causing food spoilage and foodborne illness. A. Veterinary microbiology B. Environmental microbiology ...
• Study of the role of microbes in veterinary medicine or animal taxonomy. A. Animal microbiology ...
• Study of viruses. A. Virological B. Virology C. Viruses research
• Study of microorganisms' microscopic and submicroscopic features. A. Microbial cytology B. Microbial physiology C. Microbial ...
• These kind/s of muscles allow involuntary movements in our body. A. skeletal muscles B. cardiac ...
• It serves as one of our primary defense against pathogenic organisms and other organisms that ...
• The integumentary system is also part of the excretory system A. TRUE B. FALSE
• This is composed mainly of the skeleton and the muscles. A. nervous system B. Musculoskeletal ...
• Hair and nails are part of the integumentary system. true or false? A. TRUE ...
• The passage of chewed food from mouth to stomach is because of this movement of ...
• What gives color to our skin? A. brown spots B. presence of melanin C. the ...
• During cold weather or when frightened, hair on our skin stand. why? A. pilimotor muscles ...
• This is composed mainly of the skeleton and the muscles. A. nervous system B. Musculoskeletal ...
• Phalangeal bones are found in the ___. A. hip B. arms C. spinal column ...
• Why is first degree burn more painful than third degree burn? A. The outer layer ...
• What are biceps and triceps? A. long muscles in the lower arms B. long muscles ...
• The shoulder blades are ___. A. long bones B. short bones C. irregular bones ...
• Which is not a function of the musculoskeletal system? A. gives the body the much ...
• Which is not part of the appendicular bones? A. Bones of the shoulders B. bones ...
• Why is the total number of bones of an adult human different from that of ...
• Why is exposure to good amount of sunlght important to the skin? A. skin becomes ...
• Bone marrows are important in hematopoiesis. What is hematopoiesis? A. Contraction of muscles B. strengthening ...
• Which joint allows movement in one direction only? A. Ball-and-socket joint B. hinge joint ...
• This layer of the skin contains dead cells which are constantly shedding. A. Hypodermis ...
• To initiate movement, muscles contract as directed by the brain. Then tendons pull the bones ...
• Absolute VO2 Max values are considerably lower in females when comparing them to males of ...
• Absolute VO2 Max is good to use with weight-bearing activities such as running A. TRUE ...
• An increase in Cardiac Output & Strove Volume brought about by long-term training would: ...
• Cycling produces greater VO2 max values compared to running A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Maximal Oxygen Consumption (VO2 Max) - The maximum volume of blood used per minute ...
• Maximal Oxygen Consumption (VO2 Max) - Maximum volume of oxygen inhaled and used per minute ...
• In general VO2 Max increases with maturation - yet it is also heavily dependent on ...
• Someone who frequently engages in endurance training will experience physiological adaptations such as an increase ...
• Someone who frequently engages in endurance training will experience physiological adaptations such as an increase ...
• Arm ergometry produces greater VO2 max values compared to running A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Identify which type of VO2 Max takes into account an athletes body mass A. Absolute ...
• Increases in VO2 Max will be greatest in someone who is: A. Highly Trained ...
• Cycling produces greater VO2 max values compared to arm ergometry A. TRUE B. FALSE
• VO2 Max begins to decline: A. In late childhood B. In adolescence C. In young ...
• Females generally have smaller heart, lungs & blood volume A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Anaerobic non-interval training is likely to have little effect on VO2 Max A. TRUE ...
• Exercise that isolates a specific muscle group will cause a greater increase in VO2 Max ...
• High-intensity interval training can help to improve VO2 Max A. TRUE B. FALSE
• With a higher VO2 Max a person can exercise: A. At a higher intensity for ...
• Aerobic training is likely to cause a greater increase in VO2 Max in those who ...
• Running produces the greatest VO2 max values compared to cycling and arm ergometry A. TRUE ...
• Athletes have a greater VO2 Max potential in comparison to non-athletes A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Which structure regulates the size of the pupil: A. iris B. retina C. cornea ...
• Impulse conduction is fastest in neurons that are: A. myelinated B. unmyelinated C. sensory ...
• The area of the brain stem that plays a role in consciousness and the awake/sleep ...
• The olfactory area is found within the: A. temporal lobe B. frontal lobe C. occipital ...
• Allows light waves to enter the eye A. sclera B. iris C. pupil D. cornea ...
• Preparing the body for “fight-or-flight” response during threatening situations is the role of the: ...
• Lobe that contains the primary motor area that enables voluntary control of skeletal muscle movements: ...
• Which of the following is NOT considered a structure of the ear: A. conjuctiva ...
• What are the specialized nerve cells that sense smell? A. olfactory nerves B. motor neurons ...
• The term central nervous system refers to the: A. autonomic and peripheral nervous systems ...
• Contains the nerves that when stimulated by light generate nerve impulses which are then sent ...
• The midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata are housed in the: A. brain stem B. diencephalon ...
• The peripheral nervous system consists of: A. spinal nerves only B. the brain only ...
• This portion of the ear is responsible for directing sound waves into the eardrum. ...
• An action potential: A. is essential for nerve impulse propagation B. involves the influx of ...
• Which one of the following is the correct sequence of events that follows a threshold ...
• Loss of muscle coordination results from damage to the: A. cerebrum B. cerebellum C. thalamus ...
• The elevated ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are known as ...
• Which of the following is NOT considered a special sense: A. smell B. touch ...
• The neuron processes that normally receives incoming stimuli are called: A. axons B. dendrites ...
• Where are the three bones of the ear found A. middle ear B. inner ear ...
• A neuron with a cell body located in the CNS whose primary function is connecting ...
• A. sodium B. chloride C. calcium D. potassium
• The Schwann cells form a myelin sheath around the: A. dendrites B. cell body ...
• The structure responsible for a person’s eye color is the: A. retina B. sclera ...
• The ability to respond to a stimulus is termed: A. conductivity B. depolarized C. all-or-nothing ...
• Afferent nerves are called ______, and motor nerves are called ______. A. motor nerves; sensory ...
• Dilation of an artery or cardiac chamber usually resulting in weakness of the wall of ...
• Who is a pulmunologist? A. A physician specializing in diseases of the lungs B. A ...
• Which of the following means imperfect expansion in Greek? A. Lung imperfecta B. Pneumoconiosis ...
• What term describes platelets? A. A cytoplasmic body that functions in clotting B. Blood cells ...
• An embolism is an obstruction typically by a clot of blood or an air bubble. ...
• which of the following describes what a leucocyte is? A. Another word for bleeding ...
• What is a generic name for conditions where toxic particles become trapped in the lungs ...
• Which term is defined as a fancy word for bleeding? A. Epistaxis B. Hemorrhage ...
• Which of the following causes scarring of the lungs? A. Pneumonia B. Collapse lung ...
• Which of the following terms describes a special X-ray for lung vessels? A. Vessel X-ray ...
• What does the acronym COPD stand for? A. Cardiac obstructive Pulmonary disease B. Chronic obstructive ...
• Which of the following describes leukocytosis? A. An increase in the circulation of Leukocytes ...
• A decrease in the circulation of Platelets is described as A. Leukopenia B. Anemia ...
• What is Leukopenia? A. Abundance of red blood cells B. White blood cells C. A ...
• What of the following conditions shows a lower amount of red blood cells? A. Asthma ...
• which of the following describes the bane of long-term smokers? A. Cure to cancer ...
• An increase in the circulation of Platelets can one defined as A. Leukocyte ...
• What is typically done for surgery or whenever general anesthesia is administered among other situations ...
• Which of the following describes a fancy name for nosebleed? A. Epistasis B. Atelectasis ...
• UST is inhibiting IL12 & IL23 due to its action on ............ subunit A. p19 ...
• All of the below were in the inclusion criteria for UNIFI patients EXCEPT: A. ≥18 ...
• IL17 is a regulatory cytokine with a major role in Ankylosing Spondylitis A. TRUE ...
• Tositumomab is a chimeric monoclonal Ab for inflammatory diseases A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Stelara is approved for ASUC (Acute Severe UC) treatment A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Etanercept is not indicated in IBD because it A. inhibits non pathogenic IL17 required for ...
• Adalimumab is a humanized mab produced by phage display Technology A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What is the Ustekinumab maintenance dose for a patient with CD weighing 100 kg? ...
• Vedolizumab is a fully human Ab that works on B cell activation A. TRUE ...
• How long is the duration of innate immunity action after infection? A. 0 to 12 ...
• Which biologic inhibits signal transduction in T cells A. Anti TNFs B. IL12/23 inhibitor ...
• Which of the following was NOT a key finding from the UNIFI induction study of ...
• What were the treatment arms, and their duration, for the UNITI-1 and UNITI-2 induction studies? ...
• What was the primary endpoint for the IM-UNITI study? A. Clinical remission at Week 44 ...
• Which of the following phases of Immune Response is not achieved in IBD? A. Cognitive ...
• Total volume of Stelara iv induction dose is A. 150 ml B. 200 ml ...
• What is the i.v. ustekinumab induction dose for a patient with CD weighing 86 kg? ...
• What was the main objective of the IM-UNITI maintenance study? A. To investigate the efficacy ...
• What was the CDAI range of patients with Crohn’s disease in UNITI-1 and UNITI-2? ...
• Fc region in the Structure of an Antibody (IgG) is the variable domain specific to ...
• NK cells and T cells are major components of the adaptive immunity A. TRUE ...
• What was the primary endpoint for both the UNITI-1 and UNITI-2 studies? A. CDAI-70 response ...
• Which biologic consists of Human p75 TNF receptor A. Secukinumab B. Abatacept C. Etanercept ...
• Which of the below subunits is specific to IL23 A. p19 B. p40 C. p75 ...
• Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for obesity? A. Pregnancy B. Poor ...
• The BMI range of 30-34.9 kg/m^2 would be classified as: A. Pre-Obese B. Obese Class ...
• A BMI of 32 kg/m^2 would be classified as: A. Pre-Obese B. Obese Class I ...
• Obesity only affects adolescents. (True/False) A. TRUE B. FALSE
• It is best for patients with obesity to fast most of the day and eat ...
• Over-the-counter weight-loss products are just as safe and effective as weight-loss medications and treatments by ...
• A BMI greater than 40 kg/m^2 would be classified as: A. Pre-obese B. Obese Class ...
• The BMI range of 25-29.9 kg/m^2 would be classified as: A. Pre-Obesity B. Obese Class ...
• A BMI of 37 kg/m^2 would be classified as: A. Obese Class II B. Pre-Obese ...
• A BMI of 26.5 kg/m^2 would be classified as: A. Pre-obese B. Obese Class III ...
• Which of the following medications is NOT used in helping patients with obesity? A. Orlistat ...
• A BMI of 44 kg/m^2 would be classified as: A. Pre-Obese B. Obese Class I ...
• Which of the following medications used in patients with obesity is an anti-diabetic agent? ...
• Which of the following medications is a lipase inhibitor? A. Orlistat B. Liraglutide C. Bupropion ...
• The BMI range of 35-39.9 kg/m^2 would be classified as: A. Pre-Obese B. Obese Class ...
• It is important to include both the patient and family in understanding the patient's diagnosis ...
• Obesity is considered to be a chronic disease. (True/False) A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The prescribed diet for a patient with obesity should include eliminating all caloric beverages. ...
• Spironolactone, Eplerenone as well as Amiloride and Triamterene A. Loop Diuretics B. Osmotic Diuretics ...
• Osmotic diuretics A. Moderate ceiling diuresis B. High ceiling diuresis C. Very low ceiling diuresis ...
• Furosemide, Torsemide, Bumetamide A. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors B. Thiazide and related diuretic C. Osmotic Diuretics ...
• Loop diuretics A. High ceiling diuresis B. Moderate ceiling diuresis C. Very low ceiling diuresis ...
• Thiazide and related diuretics A. Moderate ceiling diuresis B. High ceiling diuresis C. Very low ...
• Conivaptan, Tolvaptan A. ACE Inhibitors B. Angiotensin AT1-receptor antagonists C. Aldosterone receptor antagonists D. ADH ...
• Mannitol A. Osmotic Diuretics B. K+ Sparing Diuretic C. Loop Diuretics D. Thiazide and related ...
• K+-sparing diuretics A. High ceiling diuresis B. Moderate ceiling diuresis C. Very low ceiling diuresis ...
• Lisinopril, Rampiril, Enalapril, Fosinopril, Imidapril A. Angiotensin AT1- receptor antagonists B. Renin Inhibitors C. ACE ...
• Amiloride, Triamterene A. Loop Diuretic B. Ion channel blockers at sodium channels C. Carbonic anhydrase ...
• Losartan, Candesartan, Irbesartan, Eprosartan, Valsartan A. Aldosterone receptor antagonists B. ACE Inhibitors C. RENIN Inhibitors ...
• Acetazolamide, Dorzolamide, Brinzolamide A. Thiazides and related diuretics B. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor diuretics C. ADH ...
• Tolvaptan A. Osmotic diuretics B. Loop Diuretics C. K+sparing diuretics D. ADH receptor antagonists
• Spironolactone, Cannone, Eplerenone A. Angiotensin AT1-receptor antagonists B. Aldosterone receptor antagonist C. Renin Inhibitors ...
• Aliskerin A. ACE Inhibitor B. Ion Channel Blocker (Sodium) C. Renin Inhibitor D. Aldosterone Receptor ...
• Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors A. Very low ceiling diuresis B. Moderate ceiling diuresis C. High ceiling ...
• Bendroflumethiazide, Indapamide, Xipamide, Chlortalidone, Metalozone A. Thiazide and related diuretics B. Loop diuretics C. K+ ...
• The tubes that go into your lungs are called __________________. A. alveoli B. trachea ...
• What do your arteries do? A. carry blood to your heart from your lungs ...
• What do your capillaries do? A. carry blood away from your heart to the rest ...
• Your alveoli and capillaries work together to __________________. A. produce mucus B. transport oxygen into ...
• When you eat nad drink, this closes over the entrance of your trachea so no ...
• Plasma in your blood carries _________________. A. food B. hormones C. waste products D. all ...
• The part of your brain that controls your heartbeat and your breathing is your _________________. ...
• Vocal chords are two folds of tissue that stretch across this organ, allowing you to ...
• __________________ rush to the site of a cut and produce ____________, which forms a protective ...
• The protein molecule that carries oxygen in your red blood cells is ______________. A. hemoglobin ...
• What do your veins do? A. carry blood away from your heart to the rest ...
• Your heart has two sides that pump blood _________________. A. the left side pumps blood ...
• Mucus ___________________. A. is the waste product of bacteria. B. is filled with plasma and ...
• The muscle under your lungs that helps you breathe is your __________________. A. larynx ...
• Your skin and white blood cells fight infections together by: A. white blood cells form ...
• As a first responder an _______ is trained to provide emergency medical care to the ...
• A _________________ is a telephone, radio or computer operator that connects people in need with ...
• This health professional removes stains & deposits on teeth & teaches dental health. A. Dental Assistant ...
• A person who is trained to analyze and collect blood samples. A. Eye doctor ...
• Job is to slice tissues, prepare slides, and apply dyes so samples can be used ...
• Collects blood and test for its type and identify proteins, toxins, abnormal conditions and types ...
• This health professional uses x-rays & radiation to diagnose & treat disease.  A. Oncologist ...
• use microscopes, computers, and chemicals to prepare and study body tissues and fluids providing data ...
• Job is to collect, type, and group blood under the supervision of pathologists and use ...
• A _________ is a type of doctor who uses medical imaging to support the diagnosis ...
• What is a Phlebotomist? A. Collect blood for donation or for testing, so the blood ...
• A ____________ assess oral health of patients, assist the dentist, take and develop dental radiographs. ...
• Job is to mount samples of the body's cells on slides and study them under ...
• Job is to work in the laboratory collecting and processing blood to be analyzed, calm ...
• Skin tissue is …….. A. Stable B. Labile C. Permanent
• In clean and uninflected surgical incised wound healing occur by………… A. First intention B. Second ...
• Glucocorticoids ……….. healing A. Fasten B. Delay
• Infection cause healing to be …….. A. Fast B. Rapid C. Delayed or prolonged
• Deficient healing occur as a result of chronic venous hypertension is ……. A. Venous leg ...
• Fibroblast and osteoblasts are……. A. Stable B. Labile C. Permanent
• The body’s replacement of destroyed tissue by living tissue A. Tissue healing B. Inflammation ...
• Liver tissue is ……….. A. Stable B. Labile C. Permanent
• Process by which the tissues are able to replace the damaged tissue by essential return ...
• Example of deficient healing is ……. A. Arterial ulcer B. Hypertrophic scar C. Keloid
• The 1st step in granulation tissue formation A. Hemostasis B. Inflammation C. Proliferation D. Maturation ...
• What are types of cells based on proliferation A. Labile, stable and permanent B. Epithelial ...
• Cells which have continuous turn over by programmed division of stem cells. A. Stable ...
• Our diet should contain ………… for proper tissue repair A. Vit. C and protein ...
• If the injured tissues are incapable of complete restitution of tissue are severely damaged ...
• Why are the bones of the sacrum fused A. To provide strength and stability ...
• Skeletal muscle tissue can perform various functions ,which of the following is not one of ...
• When a bodybuilder does a leg curl what muscle is the agonist A. Deltoid ...
• The muscles that allow you to do push up's are... A. Triceps and Pectoralis ...
• The tissue that attaches muscles to bone is called .. A. Ligament B. Cartilage ...
• Skeletal muscle tissue is..... A. Fatigue resistant B. Non voluntary C. smooth D. Striated ...
• A sumo wrestler would have a body type known as a ... A. Endomorph ...
• What type of body tissue attaches bone to bone A. Ligament B. tendon C. muscle ...
• Why are the bones of the wrist and ankle not fused A. To provide greater ...
• In which anatomical plane would you perform a golf swing A. Frontal B. sagittal ...
• When a bodybuilder does a arm curl what muscle is the antagonist A. Triceps ...
• The function of the skeleton is...... A. Provide Movement, protection ,store minerals, provide structure ...
• An example of a long bone is the.... A. Cranium B. Femur C. Tarsals ...
• The bones of the fingers and toes are known as... A. digits B. tarsals ...
• What does cartilage tissue do? A. Stops bones from rubbing together B. Creates a sticky ...
• What do Tendons connect? A. Bone to bone B. Muscle to bone C. Muscle to ...
• Where is your Humerus bone? A. In the arm B. In the leg C. In ...
• Where is your Femur bone? A. In your skull B. In your upper leg (thigh) ...
• When your bicep muscle contracts what happens? A. Your Tricep muscle also contracts B. Your ...
• Where are your hamstring muscles? A. In your arms B. In your thighs C. In ...
• What does the endosteum do? A. Supplies blood to the inside of your long bones ...
• What do Ligaments connect? A. Bone to bone B. Muscle to bone C. Muscle to ...
• Where are your phalanges? A. In your hands B. In your upper arm C. In ...
• What is the purpose of the musculoskeletal system? A. To release nutrients from food ...
• How many bones does an adult human have? A. 300 B. 206 C. 190 ...
• What kind of skeleton do humans have? A. Exoskeleton B. Endoskeleton C. Hydrostatic skeleton ...
• Which of these is NOT an antagonistic muscle pair? A. Biceps and Triceps muscles ...
• What does the red bone marrow do? A. Makes blood cells B. Stores fat ...
• An average heartbeat, or cardiac cycle, lasts approximately: A. 0, 80 seconds B. 0, 008 ...
• The heart Frank-Starling’s law depicts the relation between A. preload and stroke volume B. stroke ...
• Which of the following statements about coronary blood flow is the most accurate? A. Coronary ...
• The hydrostatic pressure in a capillary in skeletal muscle is 37 mmHg at the arteriolar ...
• The physiological function of the relatively slow conduction through the AV node is to allow ...
• When the positive terminal is placed on the left arm and the negative terminal is ...
• The rising phase of the action potential in the pacemaker cells occurs in response to: ...
• In what phase of the heart contraction is the volume of blood in ventricles the ...
• Which of the following statements about pulmonary blood flow is most accurate? A. During systole, ...
• (1) is the volume of blood contained by the ventricles at the end of an ...
• Myogenic vascular regulation is a cellular response initiated by: A. Stretch or tension on vascular ...
• Which of the following sets of differences best describes the hemodynamics of the pulmonary circulation ...
• The number of action potentials per minute each type of autorhythmic cell can generate under ...
• Which vascular bed shows almost no myogenic autoregulation: A. none of the answers B. cerebral ...
• A patient got: Blood pressure = 120/80 [mmHg]; Heart rate 50 [bpm], Ejection Fraction = ...
• Which statement regarding the sinoatrial node is TRUE? A. it is innervated by the vagal ...
• Which of the following correctly describes the reactive hypermia? A. None of the answers ...
• The discharge of type B baroreceptors in the atria: A. leads to an increase in ...
• Which of the following is true? A. a vector that is perpendicular to the ...
• The highest resting difference in arteriovenous oxygen content is a characteristic of: A. heart ...
• Which of the following has the lowest total cross-sectional area in the body? A. aorta ...
• Consider the Einthoven’s law. The voltage measured at right arm is -0.4 mV, the left ...
• The following are diagnostic tests for which restrictive pulmonary disease? Chest X-ray, Blood gasses ...
• Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes which restrictive pulmonary disease? A. ARDS B. Pneumonia C. Tuberculosis D. Pulmonary ...
• A chest tube is a treatment for which restrictive pulmonary disease? A. Tuberculosis B. Plural ...
• Type of lung disorder characterized by a reduction in lung volume. Difficulty taking air ...
• The following are the clinical manifestations of which restrictive pulmonary disease? Dyspnea; chest pain; ...
• The following are diagnostic tests for which restrictive pulmonary disease? Pulmonary function test (PFT), ...
• The following are treatments for which restrictive pulmonary disease? Treat cause: Antibiotics (ABX), fluid, ...
• The following is the pathophysiology for which restrictive pulmonary disease: Airborne droplets inspired into ...
• The following describes the clinical manifestations of which restrictive pulmonary disease: Hypoxemia; dec in ...
• The following are treatments for which restrictive pulmonary disease? Oxygen, anti-inflammatory meds, bronchodilators ...
• The following are treatments for which restrictive pulmonary disease? Thoracentesis; chest tube; antibiotics (ABX) ...
• The following are clinical manifestations of which restrictive pulmonary disease? Early : tachypnea; restlessness; ...
• What are some diagnostic tests for pneumonia? A. CXR, blood gasses B. CXR, blood gasses, ...
• Using a pulmonary function test (PFT), we can detect which symptoms with restrictive lung disease? ...
• The following describes which restrictive pulmonary disease: Open: air enters through chest wall opening; ...
• Pneumothorax, and pleural effusion are part of which classification of lung disease? A. Parenchymal (functional ...
• Pneumonia, ARDS, TB, and fibrosis are part of which classification of lung disease? A. Parenchymal ...
• The following is the pathophysiology of which restrictive pulmonary disease? Result of tissue repair ...
• Type of lung disorder characterized by a reduction in airflow. Shortness of breath (difficult ...
• Parenchymal (pneumonia, ARDS, TB, fibrosis) and pleural (pneumothorax, pleural effusion) are classifications of which type ...
• The following is the pathophysiology of which restrictive pulmonary disease? Fluid migrates through walls ...
• Fever, chills, productive cough, pleuritic chest pain, malaise, weakness, SOB are clinical manifestations of which ...
• The following are clinical manifestations of which restrictive pulmonary disease: Fatigue; loss of appetite; ...
• The following are treatments for which restrictive pulmonary disease? Treat cause: Antibiotics (ABX), fluid, ...
• The following are treatments for which restrictive pulmonary disease? Long-term antibiotics A. Tuberculosis ...
• The following defines which restrictive pulmonary disease? Excessive amounts of fibrous tissue (scar tissue; ...
• Define pneumonia A. Acute inflammation of the airways with excess mucus production B. Chronic inflammation ...
• The following describes which restrictive pulmonary disease? Fluid accumulation in the pleural space ...
• The following describes which restrictive pulmonary disease: Accumulation of air in the pleural space ...
• This is the pathophysiology of which restrictive pulmonary disease? Infection of alveoli --> pulmonary ...
• Name the 3 transmission routes of infection for pneumonia A. 1. Aspiration 2. Sepsis ...
• This is the pathophysiology of which restrictive pulmonary disease? Injury to alveoli --> platelet ...
• The following are clinical manifestations of which restrictive pulmonary disease? Pain; fever; inc HR; ...
• The follow are some treatments for which restrictive pulmonary disease? Antibiotics, pain meds, fever, ...
• The following are diagnostic tests for which restrictive pulmonary disease: Tuberculin skin test; CXR; ...
• The following is a description of which restrictive pulmonary disease? Pulmonary edema, dyspnea, reduced ...
• What area are you auscultating with the diaphragm placed at the 2nd right intercostal space? ...
• What sound  should you expect to hear when you auscultate the carotid as a sign ...
• Dorsalis Pedis is palpable on the? A. Popliteal fossa B. On the arm C. Between ...
• Palpable pulse around the medial malleolus is called; A. Popliteal pulse B. Dorsalis Pedis ...
• Blood vessel/s that has  pulse? A. Artery B. All of the above C. Vein ...
• What subjective data are you going to ask in cardiovascular assessment? A. Previous and current ...
• Choose one of the pulses you can palpate in the arms? A. Popliteal pulse ...
• A sign that indicates that a patient has a possibility of developing thrombophlebitis? A. Moses’ ...
• How many types of valve present in the heart? A. 2 B. 4 C. 1 ...
• Mitral Valve area can be auscultated in what area? A. 2nd left intercostal space ...
• To help clarify types of heart sounds heard on auscultation, what patient’s position will be ...
• Heart sound  associated with the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves: A. S2 ...
• In cardiovascular assessment, a nurse uses the following technique except: A. Inspection B. Auscultation ...
• What possible heart disease if there is a significant deviation when you palpate the PMI? ...
• The best action to do if you have difficulty palpating the PMI: A. Ask him ...
• What is the best position in doing precordium inspection? A. Supine position B. Semi-supine position ...
• What artery is palpable in the neck? A. Carotid B. Brachial C. Radial D. Temporal ...
• Heart sound cause by the closure of the tricuspid and mitral valves A. S4 ...
• In assessing for pitting edema, how severe if the result is 6mm? A. 3+ edema ...
• PMI or apical pulse stands for: A. Point of Maximal Impulse B. Peri-operative Myocardial Infarction ...
• Turning a body part inward A. Eversion B. Inversion C. Radial deviation D. Ulnar deviation ...
• A. Flexion B. Extension C. Supination ...
• A. Radial deviation B. Supination C. ...
• Bending the foot forward A. Dorsiflexion B. Plantar flexion C. Pronation D. Supination
• Turning palm up A. Supination B. Pronation C. Dorsiflexion D. Plantar flexion
• Bending a body part A. Circumduction B. Rotation C. Flexion D. Extension
• A. Ulnar deviation B. Radial deviation ...
• Type of joint that allows rotational movement A. Hinge B. Cartilaginous C. Fibrous D. Pivot ...
• A. Adduction B. Abduction C. Flexion ...
• Bending the foot backwards A. Supination B. Pronation C. Plantar flexion D. Dorsiflexion
• Movement applied to joint by another person A. Active ROM B. Resistive ROM C. Passive ...
• Straightening of a body part A. Flexion B. Extension C. Hyperextension D. Plantar flexion
• A. Dorsiflextion B. Plantar flexion C. ...
• Turning palm down A. Pronation B. Supination C. Dorsiflexion D. Hyperextension
• A. Flexion B. Extension C. Hyperextension ...
• Exercises performed by patients who are able to move each joint without assistance A. Active ...
• Which of the following is an example of a ball and socket joint? A. Ribs ...
• A. Supination B. Plantar flexion C. ...
• A. Flexion B. Extension C. Dorsiflexion ...
• Moving a body part away from the body A. Abduction B. Adduction C. Pronation ...
• A. Opposition B. Rotation C. ...
• Moving a body part toward the body A. Abduction B. Adduction C. Extension D. Hyperextension ...
• A. Eversion B. Inversion C. Dorsiflexion ...
• A. Dorsiflexion B. Plantar flexion C. ...
• Turning a body part outward A. Inversion B. Eversion C. Adduction D. Abduction
• Acceleration could be change in speed or in direction A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The 3 branches needed for complete understanding of kinesiology are ? A. Biophysics, Psychology and ...
• Anatomical standing position is the position founded in the anatomy text book A. TRUE ...
• Statics is branch of mechanics that deals with situations in which all forces acting on ...
• Mechanics is divided into ? A. Static and dynamic B. Qualitative and quantitative C. Kinetic ...
• The Fundamental standing position is accepted as the point of reference of analyzed all the ...
• It's a repetitive movement in an arc like pendulum movement A. Oscillatory motion B. Reciprocating ...
• Kinesiology's benefits are ? A. It improves the ability of physical therapists to evaluate the ...
• away from midline of the body. A. Superior B. Inferior C. Lateral D. Dorsal
• towards the front of the body is considered ? A. Anterior B. Medial C. Caudal ...
• Linear and Reciprocating are found in both kinetic and kinematic analysis A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Reciprocating motion is a repetitive translation motion as bouncing ball or the repeated blows of ...
• Is branch of physics concerned with the effect that forces have on bodies and the ...
• closer to the feet is known as A. Inferior B. Medial C. Cephalic D. Superior ...
• Qualitative Kinematics analysis is related to A. Evaluation B. Naming of movement C. Both ...
• Structure 17 is the A. pancreas ...
• The rhythmic muscular contraction that helps propel food through the alimentary tract is known as: ...
• Structure 16 is the A. pancreas ...
• Where does digestion start? A. stomach B. mouth C. esophagus
• What is the term given to a ball-like mixture of food and saliva that forms ...
• The teeth and tongue of the oral cavity break foodstuff down physically. This is an ...
• Cheilitis is an inflammation of the A. Tongue B. Lips C. Stomach D. Esophogus
• What is the acidic fluid that passes from the stomach following churning? A. Bolus ...
• Muscular tube that connects the mouth to the stomach A. Epiglottis B. Peristalsis C. Stomach ...
• How many permanent teeth do humans have? A. 20 B. 30 C. 32 D. 42 ...
• What is the enzyme contained in the saliva? A. Amylase B. Pepsine C. Hydrochloride acid ...
• The tube through which food passes through the body is called the A. alimentary canal ...
• What are the two components of the gastric juice? A. Pepsine and hydrochloric acid ...
• Which of the following is another name for the baby teeth? A. Deciduous B. Permanent ...
• Which is NOT a function of the Digestive System? A. To rid the body of ...
• portion of the tooth above the gumline A. neck B. crown C. root D. enamel ...
• Enzymes (chemicals) in your saliva help break down food while chewing.  This is... A. Mechanical ...
• MMSE scores help characterize AD impairment : early diagnosis, mild-moderate, severe A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• What is PiB PET imaging? A. structural scan B. binds to brain tumors C. amyloid ...
• What is cortical atrophy? A. Neuronal death/loss ...
• The picture is an example of loss of ...
• PET scans can detect Alzheimer's disease. A. TRUE B. FALSE C. May be D. I ...
• What are two major hallmarks of AD pathology? A. tau and amyloid plaques B. tau ...
• Which proteinopathy is this? A. Tau ...
• Degeneration of cholinergic system is associated with AD A. TRUE B. FALSE C. No idea ...
• Prevalence of dementia is highest in which age group? A. 85+ B. 60-64 C. 70-74 ...
• Dementia is an impairment of intellectual function with a compromise in ONLY the language domain. ...
• Neurofibrillary tangles are also called A. tau B. amyloid plaques C. synapse D. dendrites ...
• What is not a cause of dementia? A. Alzhiemer's disease B. Pick's disease C. vascular ...
• Dementia affects the following except : A. Memory B. Visuospatial C. executive function D. motor ...
• an idea or opinion that is formed before you have enough information or experience, assumption ...
• an outline of a patient's treatment A. status B. plan of care C. shift ...
• a test that must be passed before admittance to an educational institution A. prerequisite ...
• the current condition of something A. status B. plan of care C. shift D. assessment ...
• an idea or opinion that is formed before you have enough information or experience, assumption ...
• a friendly, harmonious relationship especially : a relationship characterized by agreement, mutual understanding A. anxiety ...
• special words or expressions that are used by a particular profession or group and are ...
• document showing someone is qualified for something. A. license B. residency C. prerequisite D. foundation ...
• the order in which events happen in time. A. assessment B. plan of care ...
• a NOTE should be made in chart that the a patients care was transferred to ...
• something that must be completed before something else A. prerequisite B. entrance examination C. medical ...
• a formation of a judgment or opinion A. assessment B. plan of care C. shift ...
• knowledge of health information needed to make good choices about your health A. jargon ...
• (adj.) having the power to heal or cure; beneficial. A. anxiety B. therapeutic C. raport ...
• a collection of patient information. A. license B. medical record C. plan of care ...
• an institution for teaching medicine A. license B. entrance examination C. medical school D. foundation ...
• period of advanced training at a hospital A. license B. residency C. prerequisite D. foundation ...
• Adipose tissue is stored within the A. spongy bone B. medullary cavity C. diaphysis ...
• If blood calcium levels drop below 8.5 mg/dL which hormone(s) is likely to be activated? ...
• What is the correct sequence of steps in bone repair? 1. Cartilage in the ...
• Which of the following steps of intramembranous ossification is correct ? 1. clusters of ...
• What type of tissue is replaced in the embryo during endochondral ossification? A. hyaline cartilage ...
• A condition in which bone becomes riddled with holes making them brittle and compromises normal ...
• The layer of bone that is interwoven with tendons is the ____ A. periosteum ...
• Cells that secrete the organic components of the bone matrix are called ____ A. osteoblasts ...
• When cartilage is produced at the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis at the same rate ...
• Bone that are small, round and tend to develop in tendons are ____ A. long ...
• Canaliculi are ____ A. narrow passageways in the matrix connecting lacunae to blood supply ...
• Which hormone increases calcium and phosphate ion absorption by the instestines? A. estrogen B. calcitonin ...
• It refers to a procedure by which clinicians, using psychological tests, observation, and interviews, develop ...
• He is considered the father of systematic psychiatry A. Kraeplin B. Fernel C. S. Freud ...
• The DSM-5 is used to A. Establish best practices for treating disorders B. Provide patients ...
• Through the use of X rays, a ___ scan reveals images of parts of the ...
• A researcher made an employee answer a test of job attitude then proceeded to correlate ...
• Personality inventories are particularly easy to score as they are _____. The responses of an ...
• The first DSM was published in ________. A. 1956 B. 1906 C. 1898 D. 1952 ...
• It is a set of questions and observations that systematically evaluate the client's awareness, orientation ...
• It is unstructured in that they rely on various ambiguous stimuli such as inkblots or ...
• A test seeks to establish its ability to determine whether a person would be correlated ...
• Jaime was given an intelligence test on Monday, and he obtained a score of 129. ...
• _______ A group of high school students is given an IQ test, and their scores ...
• Here are the list of objective tests for personality, except one; A. Minnesota multiphasic personality ...
• When the test measures what it is supposed to measure, it is: A. Reliable ...
• The following are types of neurological examination except: A. MRI B. PET C. CT Scan ...
• These are types of projective tests except: A. Rorschach inkblot test B. MMPI C. Draw ...
•  _______ Patients are interviewed by two different doctors. Researchers examine whether the doctors agree about ...
• Choose among the corresponds statements best describe: Measuring the reliability of test procedure written in ...
• What is the best way in assessing a working memory? A. Ask for date and ...
• He classifies various psychological disorders from a biological point of view and publishes work on ...
• Another kind of assessment method is verbal in nature. It's simply called an ____. This ...
• Below are the roles of psychometrician except one: A. Initial intake interview B. Prepare written ...
• International Classification of Disease (ICD-10) system is to World Health Organization, likewise, Diagnostic and Statistical ...
• Which type of dementia is MOST common? A. Alzheimer's Disease B. Vascular Dementia C. Dementia ...
• In which type of dementia is a person more likely to experience visual hallucinations and ...
• Which type of dementia is LEAST common out of the 4 types? A. Alzheimer's Disease ...
• What type of dementia has short term memory loss as the most prominent early symptom? ...
• Which type of dementia is most associated with lack of inhibitions and acting out of ...
• In which type of dementia can atherosclerosis (thickening or hardening of the arteries) be a ...
• In which type of dementia is person more likely to experience fluctuations in their attention ...
• Which type of dementia is most associated with interference to the neurotransmitters acetylcholine and dopamine? ...
• In which type of dementia is someone more likely to be diagnosed between the ages ...
• In which type of dementia is a person more likely to get diagnosed later with ...
• In which type of dementia will a person have plaques and tangles in their brains? ...
• In which type of dementia is a person more likely to experience problems following sequenced ...
• In which type of dementia is non-fluent aphasia a subtype? A. Alzheimer's Disease B. Vascular ...
• What type of dementia is most associated with strokes? A. Alzheimer's Disease B. Vascular Dementia ...
• What type of dementia is caused by damage to the frontal and temporal lobes? ...
• The bones that make up the wrist are called? A. Metatarsals B. Metacarpals C. Tarsals ...
• What surface of the forearm is in contact with the IR when performing an AP ...
• A radiograph of a PA projection of the hand reveals that the distal radius and ...
• True or False: In radiography, each finger and thumb is called a digit, and each ...
• Which of the following actions will lead to the proximal radius crossing over the ulna? ...
• Why is it important to keep the phalanges parallel to the IR for a PA ...
• Which bones make up the palm of the hand? A. Carpals B. Metatarsals C. Tarsals ...
• A patient with a fractured forearm had the fracture reduced and a fiberglass cast placed ...
• How many bones make up the hand and wrist? A. 28 B. 26 C. 27 ...
• The most distal bones of the hand are the? A. Carpals B. Metacarpals C. Phalanges ...
• How many bones make up the wrist? A. there's no bones in wrist just joints ...
• Identify the total number of phalangies in the hand. A. 3 B. 12 C. 14 ...
• Where is the central ray (CR) placed for a PA projection of the third digit? ...
• A general positioning rule is to place the long axis of the part ____ to ...
• What two bony landmarks are palpated for positioning of the AP elbow? A. Corocoid and ...
• True or False: The joint between the first metacarpal and the proximal phalanx of the ...
• How many phalanges are found in the thumb? A. 2 B. 3 C. 5 ...
• how many phalanges are found in each of the following individual digits: 2, 3, 4, ...
• How much rotation of the humeral epicondyles is required for the AP medial oblique projection ...
• Joints between two phalanges are known as? A. Interphalangeal Joint B. MCP C. MTP ...
• Grids are generally not required unless the anatomy measures greater than _____ cm in thickness ...
• A radiograph of the elbow demonstrates the radius directly superimposed over the ulna and the ...
• Which carpal bone is the smallest? A. Navicular B. cuboid C. Pisiform D. Capitate
• What is the total number of bones that make up the hand and wrist? ...
• What is the name of the joint found between the proximal and distal phalanges of ...
• In what position should the hand be for an AP elbow projection? A. True lateral ...
• From a pronated position, which of the following is required for a PA oblique projection ...
• What are the names of the carpals in the proximal row? A. Scaphoid, Triquetrum, Pisiform, ...
• A radiograph of a PA oblique of the hand reveals that the midshaft of the ...
• How should the original analog kVp range be changed with a fiberglass cast applied for ...
• Which routine projection of the elbow best demonstrates the olecranon process in profile? A. Oblique ...
• ow should the humeral epicondyles be aligned for a lateral projection of the elbow? ...
• What surface of the the hand is in contact with the IR when performing a ...
• What surface of the hand is in contact with the IR when performing a lateral ...
• A radiograph of an AP oblique elbow with medial rotation reveals that the radial head ...
• Where is the CR centered for a PA projection of the hand? A. At the ...
• Which specific anatomy is better visualized with a fan lateral as compared with the other ...
• True or False: The ulna is located in the medial side and follows the 5th ...
• True or False: The radius is located in the medial side following the thumb. ...
• Which is the most commonly fractured carpal bone? A. Scaphoid B. Triquetrum C. Trapezoid ...
• How many carpal bones are found in the wrist? A. 3 B. 27 C. 7 ...
• The joint found between the base of the third metacarpal and carpal bone is the: ...
• Which of the carpal bones is considered to be the largest? A. Schapoid B. Capitate ...
• Which bone of the forearm contains the coronoid process? A. Radius B. Ulna C. Tibia ...
• Activation of the complement cascade plays an important role in host defense by all of ...
• The innate immune response against bacteria may be initiated by recognition of certain broad structures ...
• A researcher studying viral disease observes large amounts of interferon produced after infecting a cell ...
• A small child suffers from repeated viral infections and has trouble clearing virally infected cells. ...
• A common infection after antibiotic treatment is a C. dificile infection of the GI tract. ...
• MHC restriction refers to A. T-cells ability to restrict MHC expression B. T-cells only recognize ...
• All of the following can serve as antigen presenting cells except: A. B-cells B. dendritic ...
• A patient is identified who has a severe bacterial infection that is NOT accompanied by ...
• You have a patient who makes autoantibodies against his own red blood cells, leading to ...
• All of the following are part of your first line defense except: A. Lysozyme in ...
• You step on a nail and bacteria enters the dermal tissues. What is most likely ...
• Which of the following best describes the differences between the classic and alternate complement pathways?  ...
• A 3-year-old boy has a history of repeated pyogenic (pus-forming) infections.  He had normal antibody ...
• The basis for the control which MHC molecules have over the immune response is best ...
• Vaccine candidates must elicit a memory response in the host to be effective. What macromolecule ...
• Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE), is characterized by immune complexes in serum and the basement membranes ...
• When might the velocity criteria established for native (non operated) carotid arteries NOT be valid ...
• What is stenosis at the CEA site usually considered to result from more than 24 ...
• What is the guidewire used for CAS usually first used to deploy and position? ...
• Which artery is most often used for catheter insertion for CAS? A. the popliteal artery ...
• Which of the following can cause difficulties with carotid artery stents, such as restriction of ...
• During a duplex exam post-CAS, the stent is noted to have an irregular border with ...
• During duplex evaluation of a patient post-CEA, residual plaque is noted at the distal end ...
• Which malformation may be associated with neck swelling post-CEA? A. pseudoaneurysm B. hematoma C. infection ...
• Abbreviated PTFE, a synthetic graft material used to create grafts and blood vessel patches; a ...
• During duplex assessment of a carotid artery stent, velocities at the distal end of the ...
• How is flow maintained to the ECA when a stent has been deployed from the ...
• A narrowing of the lumen of a stent, which causes a stenosis A. carotid endarterectomy ...
• Which of the following is NOT a common problem leading to stenosis at the level ...
• A surgical procedure during which the carotid artery is opened and plaque is removed in ...
• Stent distortion has been reported with mechanical forces on the neck from all the following ...
• Where does a typical carotid endarterectomy procedure involving a longitudinal arteriotomy begin and end? ...
• For maximal efficacy, how far should a stent extend proximal and distal to the lesion? ...
• A surgical incision through the wall of an artery into the lumen A. carotid endarterectomy ...
• A catheter-based procedure in which a metal mesh tube is deployed into an artery to ...
• Why does the eversion technique for carotid endarterectomy not require a patch? A. The ICA ...
• When surveilling an ICA stent, when do the majority of >50% stenosis occur? A. within ...
• When evaluating an endarterectomy site within 48 hours of the surgical procedure, one should be ...
• What is a perivascular fluid collection above an irregular buckling of a patch an indication ...
• Which statement is true of postprocedural evaluation of velocities in CAS? A. it is always ...
• Because of limitations in evaluating the vessels following an endarterectomy, what becomes more important to ...
• Heart attack is when blood flow to the heart is blocked A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Condition caused by too much water loss through sweating on a hot day A. frost ...
• Injuries happen at any time. What should we do to prevent unintentional injuries? A. ...
• How would you FIRST stop bleeding? A. ...
• Unintentional is used to refer to injuries that were unplanned, often called accidents. Is the ...
• We should perform R.I.C.E. therapy if there is a sprain or strain injury. What does ...
• What can cause Sprains? A. Over stretching or tearing the ligaments results in a sprain. ...
• You are giving first aid to a person with a muscle, bone or joint injury. ...
• The RICE method is for A. choking B. someone who is not breathing C. a ...
• Which of the following is NOT a first aid procedure for sprain and strain? ...
• Who among the Grade 9 students are good first aiders? A. Micahel who frightens ...
• “Prevention is better than cure” can be applied to which situation? A. Dalmi who ...
• 37 – 47% A. Hematocrit- male B. Hematocrit- female C. Hemoglobin- male D. Hemoglobin- female ...
• 1- 4% A. Eosinophils B. Neutrophils C. Basophils D. Lymphocytes
• 50 – 170 mcg/dl A. Iron- male B. Iron- female C. Hematocrit- male D. Hematocrit- ...
• 0.5- 1% A. Basophils B. Neutrophils C. Eosinophils D. Lymphocytes
• 55-70% A. Neutrophils B. Basophils C. Lymphocytes D. Eosinophils
• 20- 40% A. Lymphocytes B. Neutrophils C. Eosinophils D. Monocytes
• 4.5 – 6.2 million A. RBC- male B. RBC- Female C. Hemoglobin- male
• 42 – 52 % A. Hematocrit- male B. Hematocrit- female C. Hemoglobin- male D. Hemoglobin- ...
• 4 – 5.5 million A. RBC- male B. RBC- female C. Hemoglobin- male D. Hemoglobin- ...
• 65 – 175 mcg/dl A. Iron- male B. Iron- female C. Hematocrit- male D. Hematocrit- ...
• 14 – 16 g/dl A. Hemoglobin- male B. Hemoglobin- female C. RBC- male D. RBC- ...
• 2-8% A. Monocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Neutrophils D. Eosinophils
• 150, 000-400, 000mm3 A. Platelets B. WBC C. Lymphocytes D. Eosinophils
• 12 – 14 g/dl A. Hemoglobin- male B. Hemoglobin- female C. RBC- male D. RBC- ...
• 5, 000–10, 000 mm3 A. WBC B. Neutrophils C. Basophils D. Eosinophils
• As a heart chamber contracts, what happens to the pressure of the fluid within it? ...
• As exercise progresses, muscular activity __________ venous return. This increases the __________ on the right ...
• What is the double-walled sac that surrounds the heart called? A. Fibrocardium B. Endocardium ...
• The Frank-Starling law of the heart states that an additional stretch of the myocardium produces ...
• What is the ability to rhythmically depolarize without outside stimulation called? A. Autorhythmic B. Automatic ...
• Which of the following is a recording of all nodal and myocardial action potentials in ...
• What is the broad flat superior top portion of the heart called? A. Base ...
• What is the study of the heart and its disorders called? A. Myology B. Hematology ...
• Which term refers to relaxation of the heart? A. Diastole B. Systole C. Asystole ...
• Which circuit carries blood from the right ventricle to the lungs for gas exchange and ...
• Which of the following has a strong, positive inotropic effect, meaning it increases the strength ...
• If a person's heart is pumping 5000 mL of blood in one minute and the ...
• The difference between the maximum and resting cardiac output is called __________. A. preload ...
• Heart sound __________ is thought to result from the transition from expansion of the empty ...
• What are the thick inferior chambers of the heart that pump blood into the arteries ...
• Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating cardiac output? A. HR - ...
• The passage of blood from the atria to the ventricles is regulated by which valves? ...
• If the right ventricle begins to pump an increased amount of blood, this soon arrives ...
• The amount of tension in the ventricular myocardium immediately before it contracts is called _________. ...
• Use of a traction splint is indicated for a painful, swollen, deformed A. ankle ...
• Pulselessness and cyanosis distal to an injured extremity are signs of a very serious condition. ...
• The most appropriate splint for a shoulder dislocation is the traction splint. A. TRUE ...
• Proper splinting may serve to decrease the incidence of permanent injury. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Another term for the collarbone is the A. clavicle B. humerus C. scapula D. patella ...
• An injury in which the skin over a fracture site is broken may be described ...
• The bones of the upper extremities include all of the following except the A. radius ...
• The splint best suited for easing the pain of muscle spasm associated with fractures of ...
• All of the following are part of the musculoskeletal system except A. Bones B. Joints ...
• An injury to a joint in which the bone ends become separated from each other ...
• The sound or feel of broken bone fragments grinding together is referred to as ...
• After taking BSI precautions, exposing the area, and controlling any external bleeding, the next step ...
• Improvised splints can be made from a cardboard box, a rolled-up magazine, a broom handle, ...
• Both before and after applying a splint, the EMT should assess pulses, movement, and sensation ...
• The bones of the lower extremities include all of the following except the A. pelvis ...
• The main sources or branches of blood supply to the head, neck, and face are ...
• The smaller bone in the forearm on the same side of the thumb is the ...
• An automatic nerve reaction to a stimulus that involves movement is A. reflex B. sensation ...
• Thin-walled blood vessels that are less elastic than arteries and located closer to the skin ...
• The chief motor nerve of the face is the A. auricular nerve B. fifth cranial ...
• Ductless glands that release secretion of hormones directly into the bloodsttream are A. endocrine glands ...
• The scintific study of the structurre, function, and pathology of the nervous system is known ...
• The largest and most complex nerve tissue of the body is the A. spinal cord ...
• Muscles that turn the hand inward so the palmms face downward are A. pronators ...
• the clear yellowish fluid that carries waste and impurities away from cells is A. protoplasm ...
• The largest ofthe cranial nerves is the A. sensory nerve B. mandibular nerve C. fifth ...
• A helmet is a preventative measure to reduce the risk of what type of injury ...
• The major muscle involved in shoulder flexion is: A. Sartorius B. Serratus Anterior C. Pectoralis ...
• Muscles can be classified into three main groups: A. Voluntary, involuntary and smooth B. Cardiac, ...
• Which of the following is not an important consideration for the physiological preparation of an ...
• The role of pre-participation screening is to: A. Check your strengths and weaknesses B. Determine ...
• Muscles move bones by: A. Lengthening B. Pulling C. Pushing D. Shortening
• The pair movement of a muscle is called: A. Agonist B. Reciprocal Inhibition C. Antagonist ...
• A muscle strain is an example of: A. An acute injury B. A chronic injury ...
• Pushing against an immoveable wall is an example of what type of muscular contraction? ...
• The muscle fibres responsible for explosive movements are called: A. Explosive twitch B. Fast-twitch oxidative ...
• Excessive movement of a joint is most likely to result in which type of injury? ...
• Which of the following is an example of an overuse injury? A. Broken wrist ...
• Muscles mainly responsibly for making movements are known as: A. Agonists B. Stabilisers C. Antagonists ...
• Each myofibril is made up of tiny units called: A. Myofilaments B. Myosin C. Actin ...
• __________ is a sign that noise is too loud for that individual A. ringing in ...
• Damage can be done to the inner ear, even if you don't feel any pain. ...
• 85 decibels and above is where hearing loss can begin. Which common noisy activity is ...
• Which female sport requires goggles for safety? A. softball B. tennis C. lacrosse D. basketball ...
• The colored part of your eye is your A. lens B. pupil C. iris ...
• Noise is measured by A. volts B. lumens C. amps D. decibels
• Where should light come to protect your eyes when reading? A. directly above you ...
• It is safe to share eye make-up A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Sound waves in the air are “caught” by the ____________ A. inner ear B. outer ...
• Sounds that cause harm/loss to one’s hearing is A. noise trash B. noise solution ...
• Sound vibrates against which part of the ear? A. inner ear B. outer ear ...
• Loud noises have a _________ number of decibels A. higher B. lower
• The part of your eye that dilates or contracts to control the amount of light ...
• ____decibels and above leads to loss of hearing A. 75 B. 85 C. 95 ...
• ______ of what we perceive comes through our sense of sight A. 70% B. 75% ...
• At least how far away should you sit from a computer? A. 1/2 foot ...
• If you get something in your eye, what should you do first to get it ...
• Which vitamin helps with the health of your eyes? A. A B. B C. C ...
• Which vegetable is high in Vitamin A? A. cauliflower B. carrots C. brussel sprouts ...
• will remain elevated for several days until excess fibrinogen is removed from the serum ...
• Macrocytes A. fall faster, increasing ESR B. fall slower, decreasing ESR
• period of fast settling, usually lasts about 40 minutes A. Lag phase B. Decantation phase ...
• final period, RBCs crowd closely together, last 10 minutes A. Lag phase B. Decantation phase ...
• 1.Tilting the tube 2. Increasing the length of the tube 3. Temperature above room temp ...
• polycythemia vera, the RBC count is increased; the blood is more viscous A. fall ...
• Serum glycoproteins Levels increase quickly in response to injury or trauma to tissues and ...
• 1. Decreased diameter of the tube 2. Using old blood collected longer than 2 hrs ...
• decrease of the zeta potential A. fall faster, increasing ESR B. fall slower, ...
• Usually performed in Hematology Department of Laboratory A. CRP C-Reactive Protein Test B. ...
• more sensitive and accurate reflection of the acute phase of inflammation. Increases within hours of ...
• usually performed in Chemistry or Immunology Dept of Laboratory A. CRP C-Reactive Protein Test ...
• test is specific for a specific disease. i.e. Rheumatoid Arthritis A. Acute Phase Reactants ...
• Males, 0-15 mm/hr; >50 yrs. old 0-20 mm/hr Females, 0-20 mm/hr; >50 yrs. old 0-30 ...
• Specimens needs EDTA collection A. Wintrobe or Modified Westergren B. true Westergren
• decreased numbers of RBC’s (anemia) A. fall faster, increasing ESR B. fall slower, ...
• ESR Settling dependent on ______ A. protein composition of plasma (fibrinogen) B. size and shape ...
• usually changes more rapidly, because it is made by the liver and secreted hours after ...
• plays a part in your immune response by interacting with your body’s complement system ...
• When inflammatory process is present, fibrinogen enters the blood in high amounts and causes red ...
• Cells with abnormal shapes (poikilocytes such as sickle cells or spherocytes) A. fall faster, ...
• first 10 minutes, initial period of aggregation, rouleaux is formed A. Lag phase B. Decantation ...
• Increasing levels of plasma proteins (primarily fibrinogen, alpha globulins, or gamma globulins) A. fall ...
• Sodium citrated whole blood (blue topped tube).   The diluted blood is aspirated into a calibrated ...
• first 24 hours of a disease process, the ____ may be normal and ____ elevated ...
• Specimens needs Sodium Citrate tube collection A. Wintrobe or Modified Westergren B. true Westergren
• returns to normal, within a day or so, if the focus of inflammation is eliminated. ...
• allowed to sediment at an angle of 18º and read at the appropriate time, the ...
• Automated ESR Methods Roller Principle A. measures RBC aggregation and extrapolates the sedimentation rate ...
• formation of a cavity A. incipient caries B. cavitation
• soft deposit on teeth that consists of bacteria and bacterial by-products A. xylitol B. plaque ...
• white spots, brown spots, decay on tooth surfaces A. plaque B. carious lesion
• xerostomia A. decay in teeth B. dryness of the mouth caused by reduction of saliva ...
• The colorless, soft sticky coating is also known as A. Plaque B. plague
• True or False? A good flow of saliva is necessary to control tooth decay? ...
• True or false; is the bone stronger than the enamel? A. yes B. no
• loss of minerals from the tooth A. demineralization B. remineralization
• remineralization A. is the dissolution of the calcium and phosphate from hydroxyapatite crystals. B. replacement ...
• tooth decay that is beginning to form or become apparent A. incipient caries B. rampant ...
• the science and study of dental caries A. CAMBRA B. cariology
• what is not true about saliva A. protect the teeth from dental caries B. physical, ...
• What two types of disease-producing bacteria primarily cause dental caries? A. Mutan Streptococci, Lactobacilli ...
• saliva flow rate test A. dryness of the mouth test B. determines the flow rate ...
• the infectious disease process of tooth decay A. cavitation B. caries
• pellicle A. thin film coating of salivary materials deposited on tooth surfaces B. reduction of ...
• test for cariogenic bacteria A. cariology B. caries risk test
• minerals used in dental products to make teeth more resistant to decay A. fluoride ...
• ingredient in chewing gum that has an antibacterial effect against decay-causing bacteria A. fluoride ...
• caries management by risk assessment A. ECC B. CAMBRA
• information based upon documented evidence from critically reviewed research A. evidence-based B. caries risk test ...
• decay that develops rapidly and is wide-spread throughout the mouth A. carious lesion B. rampant ...
• simple carbohydrates such as sucrose, fructose, lactose, and glucose. A. caries B. fermentable carbohydrates ...
• bacteria that produce lactic acid from carbohydrates A. lactobacilli B. mutans streptococci
• decay in any primary teeth A. caries B. early childhood caries EEC
• Xerostomia is: A. overproduction of saliva B. tooth pain C. dry mouth D. gingival recession ...
• Incipient caries is: A. white spots, brown spots, decay on tooth surfaces B. a cavity ...
• CAMBRA stands for: A. Caries And Management By Right Arm B. Caries Are Managed By ...
• What term refers to tooth decay? A. xerostomia B. caries C. fluorosis D. demineralization
• What term indicates multiple decayed areas throughout the mouth? A. incipient caries B. frank caries ...
• What is xylitol? A. replacement of minerals in the tooth B. formation of a cavity ...
• Cariology is: A. dry mouth B. mineral used in dental products to make teeth more ...
• Demineralization is: A. replacement of minerals in the tooth B. formation of a cavity or ...
• Enamel is stronger (more mineralized) than bone. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What is the earliest sign of tooth decay? A. dark stained tooth B. white spot ...
• Which is NOT true of plaque? A. it is a colorless, sticky coating on the ...
• What dental instrument is usually used to check for decay? A. pliers B. chisel ...
• The presence of lactobacilli in a patient's mouth indicates that the patient: A. is diabetic ...
• What is the main cause of tooth decay? A. presence of saliva B. position of ...
• What term indicates an exposed root? A. rampant B. recurrent C. cavitation D. recession
• The receptors sensitive to light are the: A. Thermoceptors B. Nociceptors C. Photoceptors D. Interoceptors ...
• The jelly-like substance that helps to keep the shape of the eye, found between the ...
• Bones of the wrist are: A. Carpal B. Metacarpal C. Tarsal D. Metatarsal
• The receptors sensitive to stimuli that cause pain are the: A. Thermoceptors B. Nociceptors ...
• Number 9 in the picture is the: A. ...
• The joints with the widest range of movemet are: A. Sutures B. Sinovial C. Fibrous ...
• The mucous membrane in the nasal cavities that has blood vessels that warm inhaled air ...
• Number 9 in the picture is the: A. ...
• Myopia is a problem in which you can not see properly: A. In a long ...
• Number 2 in the picture is the: A. ...
• Muscles are attached to bones by: A. Ligaments B. Tendons C. Joints D. Sutures
• Chemoreceptors are found in: A. The skin and ears B. The retina C. The nose ...
• The process in which the crystalline lens changes its shape to focus objects is called: ...
• Number 6 in the picture is the: A. ...
• The active part of the musculoskeletal system is formed by the: A. Bones B. Tendons ...
• When two bones move from their normal position in a joint, that is called: ...
• The problem that causes distant objects to appear out of focus is called: A. Hypermetropia ...
• A function of bones is: A. Glucogen storage B. Active part of the musculoskeletal system ...
• Rods enable us to see: A. In the darkness B. Color C. During day and ...
• The part of the eart that is involved in the sense of balance is the: ...
• The structure of the eye that controls how much light reaches the retina is the: ...
• The receptors used when there is light, that make posible colour vision, are the: ...
• Arthrosis is a disease that produces: A. Joint inflammation B. Joint's cartilague degeneration C. Muscle ...
• The sense of taste depends largely on the sense of: A. Smell B. Touch ...
• Number 3 in the picture is the: A. ...
• The place where two bones get together is a: A. Suture B. Joint C. Diaphysis ...
• The bone of the shoulder is the: A. Tibia B. Scapula C. Fibula D. Patela ...
• The coclea is located in the: A. External ear B. Middle ear C. Internal ear ...
• The disease in which a loss of bone tissue happens is: A. Osteoporosis B. Sprain ...
• The disease in which the crystalline lense loses its transparency until it becomes opaque causing ...
• The tissue that covers the hole muscle is the: A. Epimisium B. Perimisium C. Endomisium ...
• Thumbs are formed by these number of phalanges: A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 ...
• Ribs that are directly attached to the sternum are: A. FALSE B. TRUE C. External ...
• The white outer layer of the eye is the: A. Retina B. Choroid C. Sclera ...
• The part of the ear that contains hair and glands that produce earwax to prevent ...
• Chemoreceptors are clustered in: A. Taste buds B. Taste papillas C. The tongue D. They ...
• Slipped disc disease causes the displacement of a: A. Bone in a joint B. Bone ...
• The bone of the arm is the: A. Fibula B. Femur C. Carpal D. Humerus ...
• The permanent muscle contraction is called: A. Muscle tone B. Muscle maintenance C. Muscle function ...
• The receptors sensitive to sensations like thirst, need to urinate, etc. are the: A. Mechanoceptors ...
• Lymph is made of mostly A. proteins B. water C. leucocytes
• What are Leukocytes? A. Red Blood cells B. White Blood cells
• Oxygenated blood is transported away from the heart A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Blood is heavier than water A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Blood accounts for how much of your body weight? A. 20% B. 40% C. 8% ...
• What is haemostasis? A. Blood type B. Blood clotting
• What colour is oxygenated blood? A. Bright Red B. Deep red-purple
• Blood vessels allow the blood and its components to be circulated around the body ...
• Lymph capillaries are like blood capillaries but slightly larger A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Plasma is made up of 90% water A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Lymph is filtered through lymph nodes A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What does lymph mean? A. interstitual fluid B. clear water
• Renal circulation supplies the liver A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Platelets are also called A. Erythrocytes B. Thrombocytes
• Lymph is only found in lymphatic capillaries, vessels, nodes and ducts A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• When surfactant in the alveolar fluid is missing or reduced, what malady results? A. Collapsed ...
• As air is exhaled, which structures are encountered first? ...
• The case in which lungs inflate A. total lung capacity B. residual volume C. compliance ...
• Volume of air inhaled or exhaled during normal, quiet breathing A. tidal volume B. functional ...
• When one of the factors that aid the collapse of lungs during expiration is missing, ...
• What is the relative size of the thoracic cavity during a forceful inhalation? A. Large ...
• The part of the respiratory system containing the nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, & pharynx. ...
• When in a healthy person's life is lung compliance at its lowest? A. When the ...
• The process of oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange between the alveoli and blood. A. Internal ...
• The part of the respiratory system containing the larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. A. Lower ...
• Volume of air left in lungs after a normal exhalation A. tidal volume B. functional ...
• What are the muscles of principal expiration? A. sternocleidomastoid B. abdominal C. no muscles are ...
• The process of oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange between cells and blood. A. Internal Respiration ...
• A person inhales forcefully, what is the pressure in the lungs as compared to the ...
• What is the general term that refers to the infection of lungs? A. Infected lungs ...
• A molecule with a hydrophilic end and a hydrophobic end A. Surfactant B. Aspirate ...
• Volume of air left in lungs after a forceful exhalation A. tidal volume B. functional ...
• Air in the pleural cavity, which leads to collapsed lung. A. Compliance B. Functional residual ...
• What happens when there is negative pleural pressure in the lungs? A. Collapsed lung ...
• To take in by means of suction A. surfactant B. functional residual capacity C. aspirate ...
• Maximum volume of air contained in lungs after a forceful inhalation A. tidal volume ...
• What does normal PCO2 abnormal HCO3 show? A. Respiratory condition B. Metabolic condition
• Which is NOT a cause of metabolic alkalosis? A. Loss of hydrogen ions in gastric ...
• How can you tell if metabolic alkalosis has been compensated? A. Lower than normal PCO2 ...
• How can you tell if respiratory acidosis has been compensated? A. Lower than normal HCO3 ...
• What are the regular measurements of oxygen? A. 90> B. 70> C. 65> D. 80> ...
• Which is not an example of a cause of metabolic acidosis with a raised anion ...
• Which is NOT a cause of metabolic acidosis? A. Increased production of acid B. Increased ...
• What are the regular measurements of PH? A. 7.25-7.35 B. 7.35-7.45 C. 7.45-.755 D. 7.55-7.65 ...
• What does higher than normal PH show? A. Alkalosis B. Acidosis
• How can you tell if metabolic acidosis has been compensated? A. Lower than normal PCO2 ...
• What does abnormal PCO2 normal HCO3 show? A. Respiratory condition B. Metabolic condition
• What does lower than normal PH show? A. Alkalosis B. Acidosis
• What are the regular measurements of Bicarbonate? A. 18-22 B. 22-30 C. 22-26 D. 20-30 ...
• How can you tell respiratory alkalosis has been compensated? A. Lower than normal HCO3 ...
• What are the regular measurements of PCO2 A. 35-45 B. 35-37 C. 45-55 D. 55-57 ...
• ___________________is located in the back portion of the third cerebral ventrical of the brain. ...
• Estrogens and progesterone are produced by the _____________. A. Ovaries B. Testes C. Adrenal glands ...
• Medulla also consists of thymic corpuscles which are oval structures ...
• What stimulates the release of PTH from the parathyroid gland? A.  TSH from the posterior ...
• Which organ is called third eye? A. Pituitary B. Pineal C. Adrenal D. Thymus
• Which two hormones produce by the pituitary that help to regulate reproductive cells, one is ...
• In mammals, __________ is one of the largest gland. A. Thyroid gland B. Adrenal gland ...
• Which among the following is not a disorder of pituitary gland? A. Gigantism B. Acromegaly ...
•  The posterior pituitary gland stores and secretes ___________hormone.  A. ADH B. LTH C. ACTH ...
• Which of the following gland has both endocrine and exocrine functions? A. Anterior pituitary ...
•  Which among the following is an endocrine gland? A. Mammary gland B.  Tear gland ...
• T/F: Hand surgery is second most competitive A. T B. F
• Since orthopaedic oncology is so small, surgeons would likely be working where? A. Rural areas ...
• T/F: Foot and ankle mainly deals with bony and soft tissue work A. T ...
• T/F: A great deal of pediatrics is operative A. T B. F
• Paideia means what? A. Bones B. Incisions C. Rearing of children D. Casting
• T/F: In foot and ankle, it is unlikely you will see diabetic foot infections because ...
• In spinal surgery, as an orthopaedic surgeon, you'll stick to the ____ spine and leave ...
• T/F: joints usually deals with hip and knee replacements A. T B. F
• How long is residency? A. 3 years B. 5 years C. 7 years D. 4 ...
• What does targeted muscle reinnervation allow patients to do? A. Experience better blood flow ...
• T/F: trauma tends to be predictable A. T B. F
• Orthopaedic surgeons specializing in tumors will mostly be dealing parts of the body. EXCEPT ...
• What is the most common fellowship for ortho? A. Joints B. Hands C. Sports ...
• T/F: Orthopaedic residency is significantly more inpatient than outpatient A. T B. F
• T/F: podiatry generally deals with more nonoperative treatments A. T B. F
• type of white blood cell that can destroy infected body cells  A. T lymphocytes  ...
• when the body is infected with the same pathogen for a second time  A. secondary ...
• type of white blood cell with specific cell surface receptors, secretes antibodies into blood and ...
• defence proteins secreted from phagocytes; involved in signalling to other white blood cells to attract ...
• molecule on the surface of the body’s own cells  A. self antigen  B. faster production ...
• features of the secondary immune response  A. faster production and higher concentration of antibodies  ...
• white blood cells involved in the specific immune response  A. lymphocyte  B. clonal population  ...
• examples of autoimmune diseases  A. type 1 diabetes and rheumatoid arthritis  B. phagocytes  C. autoimmune ...
• events following a second exposure to an antigen  A. secondary immune response  B. self antigen  ...
• group of genetically identical lymphocytes produced from one parent cell that bound to an antigen  ...
• programmed cell death brought about by proteins released by T lymphocytes when they detect an ...
• virus that attacks and destroys T lymphocytes  A. HIV  B. type 1 diabetes and rheumatoid ...
• any condition where T lymphocytes responds to self-antigens & attacks its own body tissues   ...
• response to damage or infection involving vasodilation and increased capillary permeability  A. inflammatory response  ...
• cells that produce histamine in response to tissue damage  A. mast cells  B. antigen-antibody complex  ...
• lymphocytes remaining in the body for many years after recovery from an infection  A. memory ...
• molecule (often a protein) on the cell surface that can trigger an immune response in ...
• error in immune system when T lymphocytes attack the body’s own cells  A. autoimmunity  ...
• organelles in phagocytes that contain digestive enzymes to destroy engulfed pathogens  A. lysosomes  B. B ...
• method used by phagocytes to engulf and destroy pathogens  A. phagocytosis  B. autoimmunity  C. pathogen  ...
• specific molecule on the surface of lymphocytes that can bind to antigens  A. membrane receptor  ...
• white blood cell that recognises surface antigens then engulf and destroy them  A. phagocytes  ...
• acquired immune deficiency syndrome which leads to weakened immune system  A. AIDS  B. self antigen  ...
• Y-shaped protein, with binding sites specific to one type of antigen  A. antibody  B. lysosomes  ...
• molecule on the surface of cells that are foreign to the body  A. non-self antigen  ...
• substance released by mast cells that causes the inflammatory response  A. histamine  B. antigen  ...
• cluster of antigens bound to antibodies, to be destroyed by phagocytosis  A. antigen-antibody complex  ...
• hypersensitive immune response to a normally harmless antigen  A. allergic reaction  B. membrane receptor  ...
• general response to infection including phagocytosis  A. non-specific defences  B. allergic reaction  C. T lymphocytes  ...
• A good source of Calcium would be A. Milk & Dairy Products B. Cereals, Grains, ...
• The biggest sources of lipids would be A. Fruits & Vegetables B. Red Meat, Seafood, ...
• What is the main source of energy that our body uses? (Instant Energy!) A. Carbs ...
• Another word for Fats A. Lipids B. Carbohydrates C. Calories D. Nutrients
• The biggest sources of Vitamins & Minerals would be A. Fruits & Vegetables B. Red ...
• Which nutrients are used for repairs in your body? A. Vitamins B. Minerals C. Carbohydrates ...
• What do we call the very large molecules that allow for energy to be stored ...
• Which nutrient helps to fill your cells, dissolve materials, digest food, dilute wastes, and main ...
• Different proteins serve different functions based on A. The number and sequence of amino acids ...
• The biggest sources of Carbohydrates would be A. Fruits & Vegetables B. Red Meat, Seafood, ...
• The process by which organisms take in food and break it down A. Metabolism ...
• What unit is used to measure the amount of energy in food? A. Calories ...
• Which nutrient makes up the largest percentage of your body and cells? A. Water ...
• What are the substances that work together with enzymes to catalyze metabolic reactions? A. Vitamins ...
• Which contain the most energy? A. Lipids B. Carbs C. Vitamins D. Minerals
• Which essential nutrients serve as fuel for your body? A. Carbohydrates & Lipids B. Carbohydrates ...
• Proteins are made of A. Amino Acids B. Vitamins C. Minerals D. Lipids
• The biggest sources of proteins would be A. Fruits & Vegetables B. Red Meat, Seafood, ...
• A good source of Vitamin C would be A. Oranges and Lemons B. Turkey and ...
• What nutrients serve as the building blocks of much of your body? A. Proteins ...
• Posterior border of the posterior triangle of the neck: A. Trapezius B. Sternocleidomastoid C. Splenius ...
• This cranial nerve has NO connection with the parasympathetic system A. CN VII B. CN ...
• These muscles separate the neck into the posterior and anterior triangle. It is also protects ...
• By placing the finger just under the zygomatic arch and over the ramus of the ...
• NOT an important crutch walking muscle A. Anconeus B. Latissimus Dorsi C. Pectoralis Major ...
• Bandage muscle wrapping around other neck muscles A. Sternocleidomastoid B. Trapezius C. Splenius D. Serratus ...
• The vagal system includes the following, except: A. VI cranial nerve B. Cranial portion of ...
• Which of the following is true about external intercostals? A. When present with the internal ...
• Expulsive form of cough requires which of the following muscles to contract most forcefully: ...
• The line fusion between the external oblique is called: A. Linea alba B. Inguinal ligament ...
• The most superficial muscle in the posterior trunk A. Semi-spinalis B. Longissimus C. Multifidus muscle ...
• The following statements are true of trigeminal neuralgia, except: A. A small trigger zone may ...
• Point at the root of the nose where the frontonasal suture crosses the median plane: ...
• What is the test position of a fair or better lower trapezius muscle testing? ...
• If the motor root of the trigeminal nerve is injured, paralysis occurs in: A. Masseter ...
• Facets of thoracic spine are oriented in what plane? A. Frontal B. Sagittal C. Horizontal ...
• A facet oriented in the sagittal plane allow what motion? A. Gliding B. Flexion-extension ...
• Intervertebral discs are located between vertebral bodies from: A. C1-S1 B. C1-L5 C. C2-L5 ...
• Rotation around the vertical axis occur in this plane, and divides the body into upper ...
• The superficial group of the muscles of the back includes: A. Serratus Posterior B. Levator ...
• The external jugular vein is found at the: A. Submandibular Triangle B. Posterior triangle of ...
• Branch of Facial Nerve innervating the lacrimal gland: A. Temporal B. Zygomatic C. Petrosal ...
• This muscle is innervated by the facial nerve, except: A. Risorius B. Masseter C. Frontalis ...
• Neck side flexion isometric movements is the a test for muscles innervated by roots: ...
• The strongest extensor of the lumbar spine is strengthening up from a forward flexed bending ...
• What is the part of the renal corpuscle that filters fluid? A. Loop of Henle ...
• What is the process in the kidney that removes waste, forming urine? A. Osmosis ...
• What blood vessel enters the glomerulus? A. Afferent Arteriole B. Interlobular Artery C. Renal Vein ...
• Which is the correct order of blood flow through the kidney? A. Inferior Vena Cava, ...
• The renal arteries attach to the _______________________ A. superior vena cava B. aortic arch ...
• Which one of the following is NOT a function of the urinary system? A. Removes ...
•  This moves urine to the outside of the body. A. Urethra B. Ureters C. Uterus ...
• Where are the kidneys located? A. Inside the parietal peritoneum B. Anterior to the large ...
• What blood vessel leaves the glomerulus? A. Afferent Arteriole B. Interlobular Artery C. Efferent Arteriole ...
•  This transports urine from the kidneys to the bladder: A. Urethra B. Ureters  C. Bladder ...
• What isn’t filtered by the glomerulus? A. Plasma B. Red Blood Cells & Protein ...
• The renal veins attach to the _________________________ A. Abdominal Aorta B. superior vena cava ...
• What is the correct order of fluid filtration in the kidney? A. Bowmen's Capsule, Proximal ...
• What is actually the filtered part of the blood? A. Red Blood Cell B. White ...
• Birds eliminate nitrogenous waste in the form of? A. amino acids B. ammonia C. urea ...
• Which animals are being studied as examples of an adaptation called anhydrobiosis? A. tardigrades ...
• Which of the following kinds of animals excrete their nitrogenous waste entirely as ammonia? ...
• The functional unit of the kidney is the A. renal unit B. glomerulus C. Bowman's ...
• What is the advantage of excreting nitrogenous waste in the form of ammonia? A. Ammonia ...
• To conserve precious salts, freshwater fish... A. produce small amounts of urine B. significantly dilute ...
• Which of the following statements about uric acid is true? A. Uric acid is more ...
• Which of the following by-products of metabolism is most toxic? A. Urea B. Uric acid ...
• Which of the following is a function of the excretory system? A. detoxification B. blood ...
• Which of the following statements regarding freshwater fish is true? A. Freshwater fish frequently drink ...
• Which of the following statements regarding saltwater fish is true? A. The concentration of solutes ...
• Which of the following is not associated with the production of urine? A. proximal tubule ...
• Which organs are considered excretory? A. Lungs, liver, stomach, kidneys B. Skin, kidneys, ovaries, lungs ...
• Marine animals that have body fluids with a solute concentration equal to that of the ...
• Mammals have evolved a sophisticated mechanism for eliminating nitrogenous waste that involves: A. secretion through ...
• You start with a 1:2 dilution then create three subsequent 1:10 dilutions. What is the ...
• The concentration of a solution is reduced by adding: A. solute B. particles C. diluent ...
• A new assay is used to test 120 samples from patients with a clinically confirmed ...
• How should a 1:50 dilution be made if the final volume needed is 10 mL? ...
• If 0.9 mL of saline is added to 0.1 mL of serum, what is the ...
• To prepare 70 mL of a 10% solution of acetic acid, how much acetic acid ...
• A blowout pipette would be labeled A. TD B. TC C. ML D. SD ...
• Pipettes calibrated to deliver only one volume of a liquid are known as: A. graduated ...
• A patient’s serum must be added to a series of test tubes, but a different ...
• What is the dilution factor for the following serial dilution: 1:5, 1:10, 1:20, 1:40? ...
• If you want to make 4 mL of a 1:20 dilution, how much serum would ...
• The probability that a person with a positive screening test actually has the disease screened ...
• If you want to make a 1:20 dilution from a 1:5, which dilution factor would ...
• A serial dilution with the following tubes is set up: 1:2, 1:4, 1:8, 1:16, 1:32, ...
• A blood sample is processed, and the resulting serum is pink. This indicated: A. a ...
• What type of pipette must be blown out to deliver the exact volume of liquid? ...
• Which series of dilutions would be best in order to make a 1:3000 dilution? ...
• To process a whole blood sample to produce serum, the sample must: A. be spun ...
• Which of the following are typically used as the solute in a dilution? A. water ...
• To prepare 100 mL of a 20% solution of HCL, how much diluent is needed? ...
• When 0.5 mL of serum is added to 1.5 mL of diluent, what dilution does ...
• A new assay is used to test 120 samples from patients with a clinically confirmed ...
• What dilution factor would work to create a 1:100 dilution from a 1:2 dilution? ...
• An antibody titer is defined as the reciprocal of the: A. last serial dilution tube ...
• How could you create a 1:100 dilution fastest? A. make a serial dilution with a ...
• A new assay is used to test 120 samples from patients with a clinically confirmed ...
• Complement is essential for our body’s response to infection, by being heavily involved in: ...
• The recognition unit in the classical complement pathway consists of: A. C4b2a3b B. C5b6789 ...
• The C5 convertase of the alternative pathway of complement activation is:  A. C4b B. C4b2a ...
• Antibodies targeting C1s as therapy for cold agglutinin autoimmune hemolytic anemia would cause which of ...
• Therapeutics targeting the alternative pathway typically cause: A. increased AH50 B. increased CH50 C. decreased ...
• Which of the following is the correct order of activation of complement in the lectin ...
• Patients undergoing treatment with complement therapeutics for hereditary angioedema (HAE) would expect to have which ...
• Lack of the complement components C5 through C9 may result in which condition? A. Neisseria ...
• Which of the following complement therapeutics targets the classical pathway? A. PNH B. aHUS ...
• Formation of the membrane attack complex (C5b–C9) is stopped by which factor? A. Factor H ...
• A decreased CH50 and a decreased AH50 would indicate a low amount of which of ...
• Which of the following complement components has chemotactic activity? A. C3b B. C3a C. C1qrs ...
• Lack of the complement inhibitor C11NH results in which disease? A. hereditary angioedema B. parozysmal ...
• Which complement component is found in both the classical and alternative pathways? A. C1 ...
• The lectin pathway is initiated by the presence of which of the following? A. antibody ...
• What reagent is present in a CH50 assay and absent in an AH50 assay? ...
• Which of the following can activate the alternative complement pathway? A. IgG B. mannose-binding lectin ...
• Kidney glomeruli can become obstructed with immune complexes as a result of: A. Properdin deficiency ...
• Which of the following is a characteristic of complement? A. it is activated by IgE ...
• C5b6789 functions in: A. target cell lysis B. recongnition of antigen C. chemotaxis D. complement ...
• Select the test that could be used to determine whether a patient has a specific ...