Sitemap 15

• It is also known as HYPERTENSION. A. High blood glucose B. High blood cholesterol ...
• It is the ability to shift your body in different directions quickly and efficiently. ...
• It is a weight-to-height ratio, calculated by dividing one's weight in kilograms by the square ...
• It refers to the ability of the muscles to work over an extended period of ...
• It refers to the maximum amount of force a muscle can exert against an opposing ...
• It is focused on factors that prevent the onset of disease and problems associated with ...
• It is the ratio of body fat to lean body mass, inclusive of bones, water, ...
• It is anybody's movement that works your muscles and requires more energy than resting. ...
• It is a disease that occurs when your blood glucose, also called blood sugar, is ...
• Sodium ion (Na+) is being reabsorbed into blood capillary through ________________, while chloride ion (Cl-) ...
• Choose the correct pathway in the production of urine. A. Kidney - Ureter - Bladder ...
• Drinking too much water causes A. blood osmotic pressure increases above the normal range ...
• Proximal convulated tubule is located at ____________ part of the kidney. A. medulla B. cortex ...
• Blood entering the glomerulus under ______________ because the diameter of the afferent arteriole is ____________ ...
• Renal artery carries ______________, while renal vein carries ______________. A. carbon dioxide, oxygen B. oxygen, ...
• To regulate the level of ions in the blood are the importance of A. reabsorption ...
• Loop of Henle is located at the __________________ part of the kidney. A. medulla ...
• Three major processes involved in the production of urine are ultrafiltration, reabsorption and _______________. ...
• Distal convoluted tubule is located at the _______________ part of the kidney. A. medulla ...
• ______________is cluster of blood capillaries. A. Glomerulus B. Neuron C. Renal tubule D. Bowman's capsule ...
• Health problem that related to urinary system is A. hyperthroidism B. diabetes insipidus C. diabetes ...
• All below are the parts in renal rubules, except for A. loop of Henle ...
• What is the name of the fluid that enters Bowman's capsule? A. Urine B. Neuron ...
• Secretion is a process of secreting waste substances that are not filtered earlier into the ...
• This mineral helps the red blood cells transport oxygen to all parts of the body. ...
• This lists shows how many servings are in the package. A. nutrition facts B. name ...
• It is mineral and an electrolyte. It helps your muscles work, including the muscles that ...
• It is a component of salt. It adds flavors and preserve food. A. sodium ...
• This vitamin helps us to have strong immunity. A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B ...
• It is the building blocks of the body. A. sodium B. protein C. carbohydrates ...
• It is complex helps prevent infections and helps support or promote cell health growth of ...
• It is a powerful antioxidant that may help reduce free radical damage and slow the ...
• This helps in making your digestive system healthy, has no calories and makes you feel ...
• This shows how many calories are in one serving a particular food. A. total fats ...
• This vitamin helps us for having a good eyesight. A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin C ...
• These are often called good fats because they can improve blood cholesterol level and stabilize ...
• It is a nutrient needed to have strong bones A. iron B. calcium C. carbohydrates ...
• If taken too much, they can increase a person’s risk of developing heart disease. ...
• It is the main source of energy of our body. A. iron B. calcium ...
• Which nutrient found in fruits would a doctor most likely recommend to help boost the ...
• Too much or too little of this mineral can cause thyroid problems A. Iron ...
• This nutrient helps muscles and nerves work and helps regulate blood pressure. A. Iron ...
• A lack of protein can cause which non-communicable disease? A. scurvy B. kwashiorkor C. rickets ...
• When our body has an absence of regular, balanced supply of the diverse nutrients needed ...
• Which vitamin can be obtained from sunlight? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B C. Vitamin ...
• Essential for making hemoglobin; deficiency lead to anemia; common in red meat. A. Iron ...
• B and C vitamins are examples of... A. Water soluble vitamins B. Fat soluble vitamins ...
• Vitamins A, D, E and K are classified as the... A. Water soluble vitamins ...
• Which mineral builds strong bones? A. Collagen B. Vitamin C C. Calcium D. Chromium
• Vitamin D's function is: A. Prevents Rickets, helps bones and teeth B. Hair, skin, prevents ...
• An example of where you can get vitamin C is from: A. Legumes B. Citrus ...
• How many calories are in vitamins and minerals? A. 2 B. 0 C. 1 ...
• Vitamin B.. A. Gives us energy B. Helps us see at night C. Heals our ...
• A disease caused by a lack of a specific nutrient, vitamin or mineral. A. Scurvy ...
• This is the colorless liquid in which the components of blood are suspended... A. red ...
• Which blood type is known as the universal donor? (can be used by all) ...
• Someone with Type A blood has... A. A antigens B. A antibodies C. B antigens ...
• These are found in blood and help the blood to clot... A. white blood cells ...
• Someone with both Type A & B antibodies is which blood type? A. A ...
• Which blood type is also known as the universal recipient? A. O- B. O+ ...
• A substance on the surface of red blood cells that can trigger the production of ...
• What is the blood type? A. O+ ...
• What is the reaction between antibodies and antigens that allows you to determine blood type ...
• What types of antigens are present in a person with O+ blood? A. A and ...
• What is the blood type? A. AB+ ...
• In which row of the chart would agglutination most likely occur?
• A car wreck victim is in need of a blood transfusion. The victim's blood type ...
• Someone with Type A blood also has... A. Type A antibodies B. Type B antibodies ...
• Proteins produced by the immune system that destroy foreign substances... A. antigens B. agglutinates ...
• These are found in blood and help fight infections... A. white blood cells B. platelets ...
• What is this blood type? A. A+ ...
• Someone who has Type O blood has what for antibodies (clumping proteins)? A. No antibodies ...
• Mike has type O blood. Mike can receive blood from someone who has Type A ...
• Which of the following is not made of involuntary muscle? A. stomach B. heart ...
• All muscles cross at least ___ joint(s). A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 ...
• Muscle contraction relies on the stimulus from the ______ system. A. circulatory B. endocrine ...
• ______ are bands of tissue that attach a muscle to a bone. A. Tendons ...
• A muscle that helps the prime mover is called a A. antagonist B. agonist ...
• True or false: Your brain sends signals to your muscles and tells them when to ...
• True or false: Some skeletal muscles work in pairs. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Which of the following muscle cells are not striated, involuntary, and have one nucleus per ...
• Your stomach and intestines are made of _____ muscle. A. skeletal B. cardiac C. smooth ...
• All of the following are functions of the muscular system EXCEPT: A. blood production ...
• Muscles that are attached to bones are called _____ muscles. A. skeletal B. smooth ...
• Which type of muscle cell is striated, voluntary and has multiple nuclei located at the ...
• Muscles have several properties that make them unique in the body. The ability to contract ...
• Muscles that you can control are called _____ muscles. A. voluntary B. involuntary
• Another name for the prime mover is A. antagonist B. agonist C. synergist D. fixator ...
• Tetanus is...? A. A rare condition caused by the toxins of the Clostridium botulinum bacteria ...
• Which of the following is not a voluntary muscle? A. bicep (arm) B. tricep (arm) ...
• Muscles can only __________, they never ___________. A. push, pull B. pull, push
• Muscles that you cannot control are called _____. A. voluntary B. involuntary
• What is the type of air that your lungs remove from your blood cells? ...
• What is the part of the cell that produces energy from oxygen? A. The stomach ...
• What can you do to improve your health when you have asthma? A. Do exercise ...
• What is the muscle that helps your lungs to move? A. Tongue B. Biceps ...
• Where are your lungs located? A. Inside your heart B. Inside the rib cage ...
• How long is the trachea? A. 6 to 8 inches long B. 4 to 5 ...
• What is the name of the two short tubes that carry air into the lungs? ...
• Is Covid-19 a respiratory disease? A. Yes B. No
• You trachea transports oxygen from where to where? A. The nasal cavity to the lungs ...
• Why do we have hairs inside of our nose? A. Yes B. It protect our ...
• Which is the largest organ of defense? A. Stomach B. Skin C. Liver
• What is the name of this process? The same pathogen ever attacks the body ...
• The Lymphatic system is connected to the circulatory system and drains into the... A. saliva ...
• The main function of this system is to protect us from infection and disease. ...
• All pathogens contain special markers on them called... A. antigens B. cells C. pathogens
• When the same pathogen ever attacks the body again lymphocytes will recognize it and quickly ...
• A system that consists of a network of vein-like structures and glands that produce a ...
• Lymph contains billions of white blood cells. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• It is a small amount of killed or weakened virus. A. medicine B. cells ...
• What is the name of the largest lymphatic organ in the body? A. Antibodies ...
• When an antibody fits into an antigen, the pathogen is... A. strong B. disabled ...
• People are given vaccines so their bodies can produce... A. antigens B. pathogens C. antibodies ...
• These cells manufacture antibodies, which are specialized molecules that can be customized so they can ...
• Broken Bone A. Fracture B. concussion C. sprain
• type of physical fitness that improves a person's performance in a particular sport or leisure ...
• brain chemicals released during physical activity that improve mood A. endorphins B. sedentary behaviors ...
• ability to continue performing a physical activity over time A. resistance B. endurance C. lifting ...
• activities that consist of sitting or lying down and using very little energy A. Physical ...
• Type of brain injury that results from a blow or jolt to the head or ...
• Type of physical fitness a person needs to perform daily activities with ease and energy ...
• Any action when the body uses energy A. Physical Activity B. Exercise C. Sedentary
• serious injury in which the bones move out of their position A. sprain B. strain ...
• Injury to a ligament A. Sprain B. Strain C. muscle spasm
• Ability to rapidly change the body's momentum and direction A. agility B. endurance C. resistance ...
• resource health professionals use to provide guidance on how people can improve their health through ...
• injury caused by the freezing of skin and body tissues A. sprain B. dislocation ...
• serious condition that results when the heat regulating mechanisms of the body are unable to ...
• Physical activity that is structured, planned, and has a purpose of increasing physical fitness ...
• serious condition that results when a person's body loses heat faster than it can produce ...
• Nutrients that the body can make are called A. essential nutrients B. nonessential nutrients ...
• Where do the healthiest sources of fat come from? A. plants B. animals
• The energy nutrients are A. vitamins, minerals, water B. carbohydrates, proteins, fats C. fruits, vegetables, ...
• _________________ are responsible for growth, maintenance, and repair of tissues as well as formation of ...
• Which type of carbohydrates should you try to consume more than others? A. complex carbohydrates ...
• ______________________ help the body absorb certain vitamins, make food taste good, make baked goods tender, ...
• A lack of right proportions of nutrients over an extended period of time. A. hunger ...
• The units used to measure the energy in food. A. calories B. carbohydrates C. grams ...
• The study of how the body uses the nutrients in the foods that are eaten. ...
• The body's chief source of energy A. carbohydrates B. proteins C. fats D. caffeine
• Starches and fibers are types of A. simple carbohydrates B. complex carbohydrates C. grains ...
• Which groups of people generally need more protein in their diet? A. toddlers and elderly ...
• ____________________ are chemical chains that contain carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms and make up the ...
• Most people in the United States have a hard time getting enough protein in their ...
• Chemical compounds that are found in every body cell and made up of small units ...
• Which type of fatty acid is known for being good for heart health? A. cholesterol ...
• What happens to excess carbohydrates, proteins, and fats in the body? A. excreted as waste ...
• Which type of fat should you try to limit the most. A. trans fats ...
• Chemical substances from food the body needs to live. A. nutrition B. nutrients C. energy ...
• Failure to get enough nutrients may result in A. malnutrition B. hunger C. deficiency disease ...
• _____________________ are ingredients that are put into food during processing A. added sugar B. sucrose ...
• ____________ __________________ is NOT a sign of a person's nutritional status. A. body weight ...
• How many calories per gram does protein contain? A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 ...
• What groups of people are more vulnerable to nutrient deficiencies? A. athletes and body builders ...
• _____________________ is a form of complex carbohydrates from plants that humans cannot digest. A. complex ...
• Number 9 on diagram A. Nerve ...
• The protein that makes us “waterproof” is called A. Mucus B. Carotene C. Keratin ...
• Number 11 on diagram A. Oil gland ...
• Number 3 on diagram A. Dermis ...
• The waterproofing protein that fills the cells in the upper layers of the epidermis. ...
• What is dermatology? A. The study of muscle B. The study of nerve C. The ...
• Number 10 on diagram A. Sweat gland ...
• Number 8 on diagram A. Blood vessels ...
• Which layer contain accessory structures such as sweat glands, oil glands, and hair follicles? ...
• Which of the following is NOT part of the integumentary system? A. Skin B. Cartilage ...
• Scalp infection A. Ring worm B. Moles C. Dandruff D. Skin spot
• Which layer of the skin does NOT contain blood vessels? A. epidermis B. hypdermis ...
• What cell produces a protein allows for waterproofing of the skin, nails, and hair? ...
• This system helps to maintain body temperature and gives sensor information about surrounding environment. ...
• Overgrow is skin with excess pigment A. Moles B. Skin spot C. Boils D. Warts ...
• The smallest unit of a living organism A. Cell B. Tissue C. Organ
• Type of tissue that connects and supports most part of the body A. Epithelial ...
• Describes the front direction of the body A. Dorsal B. Distal C. Anterior
• These are imaginary surfaces or lines that divide the body in to sections A. Sagittal ...
• It is specialized for locomotion, composed of one long fiber A. Cilia B. Microfilaments ...
• Describes the side direction of the body A. Lateral B. Superior C. Inferior
• It is the part of the body near the axis of the body. A. Appendicular ...
• The study of structures that make up a discrete body system A. Regional Anatomy ...
• It binds the cell and organs of the body together A. Epithelial B. Muscular ...
• The study of the body's structure A. Physiology B. Anatomy C. Biology
• The branch of science that studies the cell A. Microbiology B. Cytology C. Hematology ...
• It contains the cell's DNA A. Nucleus B. Lysosomes C. Ribosomes
• It houses the lungs and heart A. Abdominopelvic Cavity B. Thoracic Cavity
• Formula to calculate adjusted body weight A. IBW + (0.4 x (ABW - IBW) ...
• What is the nearest approximate percentage figure for the proportion of patients with penicillin allergy ...
• What is the dose for Tablet ciprofloxacin to dicharge patient with P. aeruginosa? A. 150-250mg ...
• Which of the following is NOT a current example of clinically important antibiotic resistance? ...
• Take appropriate cultures before starting antibiotics A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Which of the following is NOT a way that a bacterium can acquire antibiotic resistance ...
• Gentamicin sulphate in Collatamp G should not exceed A. 6mg/kg body weight B. 7mg/kg body ...
• Cockcroft and Gault formula is calculated using A. Actual body weight B. Ideal body weight ...
• Which of these antibiotics have useful clinical activity against pseudomonas? A. Ciprofloxacin B. Cefotaxime ...
• Antibiotics remove the need for surgical or other intervention A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Which of these conditions have become harder to treat because of antibiotic resistance? A. Gonorrhoea ...
• Collatamp G contain A. 57mg of gentamicin sulphate B. 2.0mg of gentamicin sulphate C. 2.1mg ...
• Consists of nerves, blood vessels, and loose connective tissue. A. Enamel B. Dentin C. Cementum ...
• How many permanent teeth do canines have? A. 30 B. 32 C. 42 D. 45 ...
• Used for tearing and located at the corners of the incisors. longer than the other ...
• Cheek tooth found between the canine teeth and molars; also called bicuspids A. Incisors ...
• Plaque that has become calcified and is firmly adhered to teeth A. Calculus B. Plaque ...
• What is the medical term for baby teeth? A. Deciduous B. Permanent C. Adult ...
• A. I 4/4 B. I 4/3 C. I 3/4 D. P 3/4
• Soft tissue within the center of a tooth, consisting of cells, vessels, and nerves ...
• Which of the following is chemical digestion? A. Teeth crushing food B. Saliva dissolving food ...
• Hard, white substance covering the dentin of the crown of the tooth. A. Enamel ...
• This is a cross section of a human tooth. The 'X' is a _____ ...
• What causes periodontal disease? A. bad diet B. accumulation of bacteria and plaque on teeth ...
• What is the canine permanent dental formula? A. 4( I2/2, C1/1, P3/3, M2/3) B. 2( ...
• Bonelike connective tissue that covers the root of the tooth A. Enamel B. Dentin ...
• steatorrhea A. Discharge of fat in feces. B. Enzyme to digest fat. C. Storage form ...
• cholestasis A. Stoppage of the flow of bile. B. No opening of the bile ducts ...
• buccal A. Pertaining to the cheek. B. Abnormal condition of the lip. C. Pain in ...
• dyspepsia A. Difficult digestion; indigestion. B. Much (over) eating. C. Difficult swallowing.
• splenic flexure A. Area of the colon that bends downward near the spleen. B. Removal ...
• cholecystectomy A. Removal of the gallbladder. B. Inflammation of the stomach and intestines. C. Abnormal ...
• gingivectomy A. Removal of gum tissue. B. Removal of the tongue. C. Removal of the ...
• pancreatic A. Pertaining to the pancreas. B. Pertaining to the lips and teeth. C. Pertaining ...
• glossectomy A. Removal of the tongue. B. Removal of gum tissue. C. Removal of the ...
• lipase A. Enzyme to digest fat. B. Enzyme to digest carbohydrates. C. Enzyme to digest ...
• dysphagia A. Difficult swallowing. B. Much (over) eating. C. Vomiting blood (from the digestive tract). ...
• pylorospasm A. Involuntary contraction of the pyloric sphincter. B. Narrowing of the pyloric sphincter. ...
• abdominoplasty A. Surgical repair of the abdomen. B. Suture (repair) of a hernia. C. Discharge ...
• oropharynx A. The region of the throat near the mouth. B. New opening of the ...
• choledochal A. Pertaining to the common bile duct. B. Dilation of the common bile duct. ...
• gastroenteritis A. Inflammation of the stomach and intestines. B. Pertaining to the duodenum. C. New ...
• biliary atresia A. No opening of the bile ducts (into the duodenum). B. No opening ...
• cholangitis A. Inflammation of bile vessels. B. Inflammation of the stomach and intestines. C. Twisting ...
• pyloric stenosis A. Narrowing of the pyloric sphincter. B. Involuntary contraction of the pyloric sphincter. ...
• bronchospasm A. Sudden, involuntary contraction of bronchial tubes (as during an asthmatic attack). B. Involuntary ...
• labiodental A. Pertaining to the lips and teeth. B. Pain in a tooth. C. Pertaining ...
• gluconeogenesis A. Formation of new glucose (by liver cells). B. Storage form of sugar. ...
• hepatomegaly A. Enlargement of the liver. B. Abnormal condition of stones in the gallbladder. ...
• hemoptysis A. Spitting up blood (from the respiratory tract). B. Vomiting blood (from the digestive ...
• atresia A. Not open (no opening). B. No opening of the bile ducts ...
• cholangiectasis A. Dilation of bile vessel. B. Difficult digestion; indigestion. C. Vomiting blood (from the ...
• ileostomy A. New opening of the ileum to the outside of the body. B. New ...
• cheilosis A. Abnormal condition of the lip. B. Abnormal condition of gallstones. C. Inflammation of ...
• glycogen A. Storage form of sugar. B. Enzyme to digest fat. C. Pertaining to under ...
• herniorrhaphy A. Suture of a hernia. B. New opening of the ileum to the outside ...
• cholelithiasis A. Abnormal condition of gallstones. B. Abnormal condition of the lip. C. Removal of ...
• cecal volvulus A. Twisting of a part of the cecum upon itself. B. Removal of ...
• celiac disease A. Autoimmune disorder of the small intestine; villi are damaged as a result ...
• hemorrhage A. Bursting forth of blood. B. Discharge of blood from the stomach. C. Vomiting ...
• sublingual A. Pertaining to under the tongue. B. Enzyme to digest fat. C. Pain in ...
• proctosigmoidoscopy A. Visual examination of the anus and rectum. B. Formation of new glucose (by ...
• gastrojejunostomy A. New opening between the stomach and the jejunum. B. New opening of the ...
• herniorrhaphy A. Suture (repair) of a hernia. B. Stoppage of the flow of bile. ...
• aphthous stomatitis A. Inflammation of the mouth with small ulcers. B. Pertaining to under the ...
• rectal carcinoma A. Cancer of the rectum. B. Abnormal condition of stones in the gallbladder. ...
• periodontal membrane A. Membrane surrounding a tooth. B. Pertaining to the lips and teeth. ...
• cholecystojejunostomy A. New opening between the gallbladder and the jejunum. B. New opening between the ...
• cholangiocarcinoma A. Malignant tumor of bile vessel. B. Dilation of the common bile duct. ...
• duodenal A. Pertaining to the duodenum. B. Inflammation of the stomach and intestines. C. Visual ...
• pancreatoduodenectomy A. Removal of the pancreas and duodenum; Whipple procedure. B. Removal of a salivary ...
• cholecystolithiasis A. Abnormal condition of stones in the gallbladder. B. New opening between the gallbladder ...
• gastrostomy A. New opening of the stomach to the outside of the body. B. New ...
• sialadenectomy A. Removal of a salivary gland. B. Inflammation of a salivary gland C. Inflammation ...
• diarrhea A. Loose, watery discharge of feces. B. Discharge of blood from the stomach. ...
• hematemesis A. Vomiting blood (from the digestive tract). B. Dilation of bile vessel. C. Spitting ...
• esophageal atresia A. Closure of the esophagus. B. Not open (no opening). C. No opening ...
• polyphagia A. Much (over) eating. B. Difficult swallowing. C. Spitting up blood (from the respiratory ...
• gastrorrhagia A. Discharge of blood from the stomach. B. Bursting forth of blood. C. Spitting ...
• dentalgia A. Pain in a tooth. B. Pertaining to the duodenum. C. Pertaining to the ...
• choledochectasia A. Dilation of the common bile duct. B. Removal of the gallbladder. C. Pertaining ...
• pyloric stenosis A. Narrowing of the pyloric sphincter. B. Surgical repair of the abdomen. ...
• colectomy A. Removal of the colon. B. Visual examination of the colon. C. Pertaining to ...
• colonoscopy A. Visual examination of the colon. B. Removal of the colon. C. Pertaining to ...
• palatoplasty A. Surgical repair of the palate. B. Removal of a salivary gland. C. Removal ...
• The ____________ protects our body from cold, heat and diseases. A. Epidermis B. Dermis ...
• Openings where perspiration or sweat comes out. A. dermis B. epidermis C. pores
• Label the pointed part of the skin. ...
• Label the pointed part of the skin. A. ...
• Help taste the food A. taste buds B. nerve cells C. tongue
• Which pair correctly describes the hypodermis? A. hypodermis-fat layer B. hypodermis- middle layer C. hypodermis- ...
• Thicker layer of the skin A. dermis B. epidermis C. pores
• Label the pointed part of the skin. ...
• Which among the following information about the skin is incorrect? A. The skin covers our ...
• Help detect taste and bring signals to the brain A. taste buds B. nerve cells ...
• The dermis is the part of the skin that you can see. A. TRUE ...
• Researchers suggest _________ percent of calories should come from protein each day. A. 10-25 ...
• Nutrients that build and repair tissues and cells e.g. meat, milk, eggs. A. Fat ...
• Protein needs also increase for people who: A. have injuries B. have undergone surgery ...
• If a person does not consume enough protein, they may experience: A. lack of muscle ...
• Protein is the major_______________ of the human body. It builds and maintains tissue. A. Cardiovascular ...
• Athletes having rigorous workouts should focus on one type of protein. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• The main job of antibodies is to A. Transport hormones B. Metabolize sugars C. Store ...
• _______ happens when the body cannot properly digest the food that is eaten A. food ...
• Which symptoms are found in all three diseases/ disorders: Gastroenteritis, IBD and food intolerances ...
• Which of the following shows the correct digestive process? A. stomach, esophagus, small intestine, large ...
• Intolerance is caused by... A. an infection B. a bite of a mosquito C. Deficiency ...
• A medical term referring to the Inflammation of the GI tract, usually the stomach and ...
• What is a natural sugar found in milk? A. Gluten B. Histamine C. Lactose ...
• Surgery can be used as a treatment for which disease A. Gastroenteritis B. Food intolerances ...
• Food intolerance happens _____________ A. suddenly B. gradually C. quickly
• What are possible disease that can occur from the process of the digestive system? ...
• Cells use substances from food being digested for energy, growth, and repair. A. FALSE ...
• What is Crohn's Disease? A. inflammation of digestive tract B. hard stool C. stomach acids ...
• A symptom of IBS is A. cramping B. bloating C. gassiness D. all of the ...
• True or False: It is hard to diagnose a food intolerance. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• The human eye is surrounded by how many muscles? A. 4 B. 2 C. 6 ...
• Proprioception relies on inputs from all of the following sensory systems EXCEPT A. the eyes ...
• What are the three main sections of the hearing system? A. outer ear, middle ear, ...
• Cornea is abnormally curved, causes blurry vision because it is unable to focus. A. Temporarily ...
• Something you detect using your sensory receptors is called a... A. stimulus B. reflex ...
• The nerves associated with smell are referred to as the: A. olfactory receptor cells ...
• Dr. Vazquez is examining a cell from the nervous system of an animal. He notices ...
• What is the middle ear filled with in a healthy ear?
• The two major parts of the nervous system are the A. brain and spinal cord ...
• The optic nerve transmits signals to the A. temporal lobe B. parietal lobe C. occipital ...
• Neurotransmitters are ______________ that travel across the ______________ to another cell. A. electrical signals; receptors ...
• Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. Taste is referred to as the gustatory ...
• The cochlea of the inner ear is lined with ______ to create an electrical signal ...
• The outer ear, responsible for gathering and focusing sound waves, is called the A. anvil ...
• Dopamine and Serotonin are examples of _______________ A. Axon B. Neurotransmitters C. Somatic Nerves ...
• The portion of the outer ear which sound waves hit, leading to vibrations which are ...
• Senses that respond to chemicals in solution utilize which of the following: A. Meissner's corpuscle ...
• Nearsightedness is also known as .... A. Myopia B. Hyperpopia C. Presbyopia D. none of ...
• What are the ossicles of the ear ? (1, 2, 3 in order ) ...
• The blind spot is created by the A. retina B. optic nerve leaving the eye ...
• Which part of the eye contracts and dilates based on the environment?  A. Pupil ...
• Which of the following senses are most closely related: A. touch and smell B. smell ...
• What does the eustachian/auditory/pharygnotympanic tube do ? A. helps with balance and equilibrium B. filters ...
• The branch like figures that receive impulses & conducts them to the cell body ...
• The optic nerve has a covering that helps protect and insulate it called the ...
• The papillae are: A. The bumps on the ...
• Our noses can detect chemicals in the air A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The speed of neural conduction between neurons will result in difficulties in speaking, vision, and ...
• A body part that responds to information from the outside world A. brain B. taste ...
• Select the five organs that make up the sensory system. A. Smell, eyes, touch, tongue ...
• Your sense of smell and taste are part of what system? A. Digestive system ...
• What part of the inner ear helps you keep your balance ? A. Vestibule ...
• The skin senses for which of the following? A. Temperature B. Pressure C. Pain ...
• Small projections located on the tongue’s surface where taste buds are located are known as: ...
• What is the main job of the respiratory therapist? A. help a patient relearn how ...
• What is a code blue A. chemical spill B. fire C. bomb threat D. patient ...
• Where does the gas exchange happen in the respiratory system? A. alveoli B. bronchi ...
• This is the branch like structure that air flows through after the trachea A. alveoli ...
• What is the condition for when the alveoli sacs are filled with fluid? A. pneumonia ...
• Which is part of both the respiratory system and the digestive system? A. larynx ...
• Which part of the respiratory system does air flow through first? A. larynx B. pharynx ...
• what is bronchitis? A. alveoli filled with fluid B. muscle under the lungs C. bronchi ...
• What is the main function of the alveoli? A. bring oxygen in and sent carbon ...
• What career clusters is the job of respiratory therapist in? A. support and informatics ...
• What are the two gasses exchanged in the lungs? A. oxygen and nitrogen B. nitrogen ...
• Which is not a condition of the respiratory system? A. asthma B. malaria C. bronchitis ...
• Which is a pathology of the respiratory system? A. landitics B. cirrhosis C. bronchitis ...
• which codes are respiratory therapists involved with most? A. code yellow B. code blue ...
• What is bronchitis? A. inflammation of the bronchi B. asthma C. inflammation of the lungs ...
• Where do respiratory therapists work? A. Emergency Room B. ICU C. All parts of the ...
• Chemotaxis is movement in response to: A. Light B. Seasons C. Anything D. Chemical compounds ...
• Temperature control is an example of A. Positive feedback B. Negative feedback
• TB is what type of necrosis? A. Coagulative B. Caseation C. Liquifactive D. Fibrinoid ...
• Organisms that are made up of only 1 cell are called: A. Multicellular B. Bacteria ...
• Movement in response to any stimulus is called: A. Taxis B. Phototaxis C. Chemotaxis ...
• Characteristic changes in a cell caused by a disease A. Necrosis B. Lesion C. Prognosis ...
• Listed below are characteristic of atrophy and hypertrophy EXCEPT: A. Hypertrophy occurs due to increase ...
• Nerve cells conduct impulses in the form of ... A. it's spherical shape B. branches ...
• Positive feedback system is A. Inhibitory B. Stimulatory
• Remaining stable by remaining the same is.. A. Feedback B. Homeostasis C. Repair
• Listed below are common adaptive cellular changes EXCEPT: A. Atrophy B. Hypertrophy C. Hyperplasia ...
• The word Pathology is derived from A. Greek B. Latin C. Hebrew
• The gap between the axon terminal of a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of a ...
• The segment of a myofibril that is called a sarcomere runs _________________________. A. one A ...
• Why are calcium ions necessary for skeletal muscle contraction? A. Calcium ions cause ATP binding ...
• The muscle fiber (cell) is indicated by ________. ...
• What organelle wraps and surrounds the myofibril and stores calcium? A. sarcoplasmic reticulum B. cross ...
• According to the sliding filament theory, how does muscle contraction occur? A. Both thick and ...
• The I band within a skeletal muscle fiber is indicated by ________.
• Which of the following is NOT a function of the muscular system? A. stabilization of ...
• The myofilament composed of actin is indicated by ________. ...
• The H zone is represented by ________. ...
• The mechanical force of contraction is generated by ________. A. shortening of the thin filaments ...
• During skeletal muscle contraction, to what do myosin heads bind? A. the H zone ...
• What is released by axon terminals into the synaptic cleft to stimulate a muscle to ...
• he A band within a myofibril is indicated by ________.
• The Headlines read: The anatomy class killed Mr. Cobb! First emotionally, and then physically. It ...
• The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle cell is called the ________. A. myofilament ...
• The epimysium is represented by ________. A. ...
• Is the part of the body that contains the appendages or limbs. The forelegs or ...
• Is a common genetic condition of large-breed dogs. The ball and socket joint of the ...
• The _____ skeleton contains the bones of the body that lie perpendicular or lengthwise. This ...
• What is an example of a flat bone? A. Patella B. Vertebrae C. Scapula ...
• Bone is constantly repairing and remodeling in response to the body's need for which substance? ...
• Are fibrous strands of tissue that connect one bone to another bone and serve as ...
• Bones are covered externally with a thin connective tissue called? A. Osteoblast B. endosteum ...
• This is the thick tissue that forms the outer layer of bone. This part of ...
• Which of the following is the definition of infectious disease? A. Structural or functional disorder ...
• Which of the following foods will likely cause cholera? A. Breads B. Vegetables C. Seafoods ...
• Dengue is caused by Aedes aegypti. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• It is produced by certain pathogens but is only released when the organism dies. ...
• Which of the following is the sign and symptom of dengue? A. High blood platelet ...
• There are _____ species that cause malaria. A. one B. two C. three D. four ...
• Nausea, fatigue and weight loss are examples of A. sign B. symptom
• The vaccine for tuberculosis that is available in the market is known as _______________. ...
• A sudden outbreak of a disease which spreads rapidly through the population and then subsides. ...
• HIV is caused by __________. A. direct contact B. vector C. air-borne D. sexual contact ...
• The main source of infection of cholera is drinking water or food. A. TRUE ...
• To recover from vomit and diarrhea and replace water and electrolytes, one can take __________. ...
• Which of the following is not a preventive action for dengue? A. Light mosquito coil ...
• Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium bovis. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• In malaria, symptoms appear when the ring stage trophozoites mature into schizonts which rupture and ...
• Tuberculosis is transmitted by __________. A. droplets B. water C. foods D. eye contact ...
• Untreated milk products will usually contain __________. A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Mycobacterium bovis
• Housefly and mosquito are examples of A. causative agent B. vector C. infection D. infectious ...
• Which of the following is not an example of anti-malarial drugs? A. Chloroquine B. Artemisinin ...
• In cholera, __________ stimulates the epithelial cells to secret large quantities of Cl- ions into ...
• The muscular organ that pumps blood through out your body is your A. Arteries ...
• How does the circulatory system work with the digestive system? A. Blood is used to ...
• Which body system controls the rest of the body by sending and receiving electrical signals? ...
• Where does digestion start? A. stomach B. mouth C. esophagus
• Which of these organs is NOT directly involved with the digestive system? A. Lungs ...
• The main purpose of the ________ system is to produce hormones for the body. ...
• Which of the following answers correctly sequences the pathway food takes from the beginning to ...
• Your skin and hair are parts of your ___________ A. endocrine system B. excretory system ...
• The skin is the major organ in which system? A. Integumentary B. Muscular C. Endocrine ...
• Which body system bring oxygen into the body and expels carbon dioxide out to the ...
• Which body system Breaks down food into nutrient molecules that can be transported in the ...
• What is the role of the muscular system? A. Support the body B. Digest food ...
• Which body system helps you move, gives your body shape, & makes new blood? ...
• Which body system transports gasses, nutrients and waste around the body? A. Digestive B. Circulatory ...
• The main purpose of the ____________ system is to break food particles into pieces that ...
• What system eliminates non solid waste from the body? A. Integumentary B. Digestive C. Excretory ...
• Which two human body systems are most responsible for getting oxygen to cells? A. digestive and skeletal ...
• What is the function of this system? ...
• Which system uses hormones to regulate body activities? A. Integumentary B. Urinary C. Endocrine ...
• This system controls everything you do. A. nervous system B. olfactory system C. digestive system ...
• T cells that kill infected cells are A. cytotoxic T's B. helper T's C. plasma ...
• What is thought of as the primary defenses against pathogens in the human body? ...
• In the production of monoclonal antibodies, B-cells are fused to tumour cells to make hybridoma ...
• Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. Active immunity is the stimulation of the ...
• What is the effect which thrombin has on the process of blood clotting? A. Fibrinogen ...
• Liz notices that shortly after cutting her arm accidentally the area around the cut is ...
• Anitigens on pathogens which have got into the human body can lead to the development ...
• T cells mature in the A. bone marrow B. spleen C. thymus D. kidney ...
• When activated by the presence of a pathogen some lymphocytes produce antibodies and other lymphocytes ...
• Pathogens are recognized by their... A. antigens B. antibodies C. killer t-cells D. B-cells
• What do antibodies attach to on the pathogen? A. Anti inflammatory B. Antigens C. Antiseptic ...
• What is a role of activated B cells? A. Secrete antibiotics in response to specific ...
• Which type of blood cells are capable of ingesting pathogens? A. Erythrocytes B. Antibodies ...
• If the skin is broken then a blood clot forms to seal this cut. ...
• The table shows the results of blood type tests on samples from four individuals. ...
• What is directly responsible for allergic symptoms, including a runny nose or itchy eyes? ...
• T cells are made in the___________ A. bone marrow B. spleen C. thymus D. tonsiles ...
• Myotome muscles are ___ shaped muscle segment found on both sides of fish spine. ...
• Which of the following is the muscle in the earthworm A. flexor B. extensor ...
• The arthritis is disease caused by wearing of the A. bones B. muscles C. tendon ...
• Which of the following is not the adaptations of birds for flying? A. streamlined shape ...
• which of the following control yawing and rolling of fish A. dorsal fins B. pectoral ...
• When the arm is bent, the bicep A. contract B. relax
• when the circular muscle contract, the longitudinal muscle relax, the earthworm become A. shorter and ...
• The skeletal muscle can only contract and relax. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• which of the following is not the adaptation of fish in water A. streamlined shape ...
• What does a virus require in order to reproduce? A. Energy in the form of ...
• Symptoms of HIV do not show up immediately because the virus can  A. stay dormant ...
• Observe the diagram of a viral reproduction process. This process is called:
• This infectious viral disease has many symptoms, from chills, fever, and aching muscles to coughing ...
• Which of the following can be used to prevent a viral infection? A. Vaccine ...
• During the lytic infection by a virus, the host cell is- A. destroyed B. copied ...
• The viral reproductive Process shown in the diagram is called:
• Which of the following correctly describes viruses? A. non-living because they grow and develop ...
• Choose the correct order of lytic cycle steps A. attachment, entry, assembly, replication, release ...
• An individual was infected with a particular virus. The symptoms caused by the virus began ...
• What is the 1st step of virus infection? A. Entry B. Attachment C. Replication ...
• Why do viruses have projections on the outside? A. To send signals to other viruses. ...
• Glucose is transported into intestinal lining cells via A. osmosis B. passive transport C. active ...
• Which of the following is NOT a significant source of resistant starches? A. bananas ...
• Stool is softened for elimination by A. fibers absorbing water B. bacteria fermenting fibers ...
• Fructose and galactose exit the liver intact. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Digestive enzyme found in the mouth A. amylase B. amylose C. maltase D. sucrase ...
• Intolerance is caused by... A. An infection B. Deficiency of enzymes that metabolize carbohydrates
• Carbohydrate digestion occurs in the stomach. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Lactase converts Lactose to Glucose + ____________________ A. Fructose B. Glucose C. Galactose D. Maltose ...
• The overall goal of carbohydrate digestion is to A. break carbohydrates down into monosaccharides ...
• Approximately how many adults are lactose intolerant worldwide? A. 65% B. 45% C. 35% ...
• Therapeutic diet refers to A. diabetes B. food allergies C. the use of diet or ...
• Maltase converts Maltose to Glucose + ____________________ A. Fructose B. Glucose C. Galactose D. Maltose ...
• Sucrase converts Sucrose to Glucose + ____________________ A. Fructose B. Glucose C. Galactose D. Maltose ...
• Lactose is found in milk or ice cream. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Which organs carry out most carbohydrate digestion? A. mouth B. stomach C. liver D. large ...
• Blood leaves the small intestine and head to the liver via the A. hepatic portal ...
• Beans are high in FODMAP. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The carbohydrate type that contribute the most to satiety is A. monosacharides B. disaccharides ...
• Which disease occurs when the heart is unable to pump enough blood to supply the ...
• Which of these items fights disease and infection? A. Erythrocytes B. Leukocytes C. Thrombocytes ...
• During a heartbeat, what do the ventricles do while the atria relax? A. Contract ...
• Which layer of the heart is made of muscle tissue and pumps the blood through ...
• When blood leaves the left atrium, where does it go next? A. Aorta B. Right ...
• Which of these types of blood vessels carry blood back to the heart? A. Veins ...
• Where does an electrical impulse go after it leaves the Bundle of His? A. Purkinje ...
• What is considered a normal blood pressure in a healthy adult? A. less than 120/80 ...
• Which of these items contains hemoglobin, which carries oxygen to all cells and removes carbon ...
• What is the purpose of the valves in the heart? A. To prevent pathogens from ...
• Which disease occurs when not enough oxygen is supplied to the body tissues, which results ...
• In what type of circulation does the blood flow between the heart and lungs? ...
• I am transmitted through airborne droplets. A. TB B. HIV/AIDS C. Cholera D. Malaria ...
• I cause fever, anaemia, nausea, headaches, muscle pain, shivering, sweating, enlarged spleen. A. TB ...
• I can also infect cattles and spread to humans in meat and milk. A. TB ...
• My vector is a mosquito A. TB B. HIV/AIDS C. Cholera D. Malaria
• I am transmitted in semen and vaginal fluids during sexual intercourse, infected blood or blood ...
• Treatment for me include: Oral rehydration therapy (to maintain osmotic balance of the blood ...
• I am food-borne & water-borne A. TB B. HIV/AIDS C. Cholera D. Malaria
• I will spread to another person if the infected person sneezes and a healthy person ...
• I do my job by the infection and destruction of the cell's body immune system ...
• My site of action is in the liver, red blood cells and brain A. TB ...
• I am caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis & Mycobacterium bovis A. TB B. HIV/AIDS ...
• I can be prevented with vaccination. A. TB B. HIV/AIDS C. Cholera D. Malaria ...
• I can be prevented if people ensure basic hygiene including washing their hands before handling ...
• I will start causing sickness if I am able to reach the intestine A. TB ...
• I am caused by the human immunodeficiency virus A. TB B. HIV/AIDS C. Cholera ...
• I am caused by Plasmodium falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae A. TB ...
• I can be treated with quinine and chloroquine A. TB B. HIV/AIDS C. Cholera ...
• I am distributed throughout the tropics and sub-tropics A. TB B. HIV/AIDS C. Cholera ...
• I have no cure. A. TB B. HIV/AIDS C. Cholera D. Malaria
• My symptoms include rocking cough, coughing blood, chect pain, shortness of breath, fever, sweating, weight ...
• I can be treated with drugs which takes longer than six months. A. TB ...
• I can be prevented by : 1) reducing the number of mosquitoes 2) avoid ...
• I am caused by vibrio cholerae A. TB B. HIV/AIDS C. Cholera D. Malaria
• I infect the lungs (primary infections); lymph nodes, bones and gut (secondary infections) A. TB ...
• When I infect a person, the person may only develop symptoms years later. A. TB ...
• ................ is crucially involved in the generation of spoken language A. Wernicke's Area  B. Localization ...
• The ____________ is part of the peripheral nervous system and controls our senses. A. Systemic ...
• Responsible for integrating sensory information, including touch, temperature, pressure and pain. A. Frontal lobe ...
• Functions include initiating voluntary movement, working memory, personality, and higher cognitive functions such as decision-making ...
• What does the neuron's Myelin Sheath do? A. Controls the actions of the neuron ...
• The center of visual perception A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Occipital lobe ...
• The basic unit of structure and function in the nervous system is a nerve cell. ...
• controls the fight or flight response A. Sympathetic B. Parasympathetic
• When shown the word ball in their LEFT field of vision, the split brain ...
• Processes hearing, language and helps us identify faces. A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe ...
• Producing nonsense words is associated with what? A. Wernickes aphasia B. Broca's aphasia
• The autonomic nervous system is divided into A. Motor and Sensory B. Peripheral and Central ...
• The human brain has _________major distinctive parts and functions differently from one another._ A. 2 ...
• The carotid artery is located in the: A. neck B. wrist C. arm D. groin ...
• Blood pressure measures A. The contraction and relaxation of the heart B. The number of ...
• Arterioles A. are innervated by parasympathetic nervous system B. carry blood to the capillaries ...
• Define Resistance A. Force exerted by the blood against the vessel wall B. The difference ...
• Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension: A. 120/80 ...
• Capillaries A. has smooth muscle for vasoconstriction B. has thin endothelial cells surrounded by basement ...
• The systolic blood pressure represents the A. Pressure in the arteries when the ventricles contract ...
• Blood pressure is recorded as A. Hydrostatic /diastolic B. Diastolic/ hydrostatic C. Systolic/diastolic D. Diastolic/systolic ...
• The 120 in the reading 120/80 represents the: A. systolic pressure B. arterial pulse ...
• Device used to take blood pressure: A. defibrillator B. stethoscope C. sphygmomameter D. thermometer
• lowest pressure against the blood vessels of the body. Measures between contractions A. diastolic pressure ...
• The greater the blood viscosity A. the less the blood flow B. the greater the ...
• The phase in the cardiac cycle in which the heart relaxes between contractions is known ...
• For a blood pressure reading, the number on top measures... A. Diastolic Pressure B. Systolic ...
• A blood pressure cuff is also called a  A. Mercury meter B. Stethoscope  C. Pythogometer ...
• Turbulent flow makes no sound A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Define Pulse Pressure A. Force exerted by the blood against the vessel wall B. The ...
• Define Blood viscosity A. measure of the thickness of blood. B. measure of the flow ...
• Normal blood pressure for an adult is A. 120/80 mm Hg or higher B. Less ...
• When measuring blood pressure, you are measuring the ____ of blood flowing through arteries ...
• What are the smaller arteries called? A. arterioles B. capillaries C. venules D. blood vessels ...
• Hypertension is known as: A. the leading cause of death in men B. the silent ...
• The radial artery is located in the: A. neck B. arm C. wrist D. groin ...
• Plants have many cells that have specialised functions and work together to keep the plant ...
• The peripheral nervous system consists of all the nerves outside the central nervous system. ...
• The main function of the muscle is to ______. A. Digest food B. Move bones ...
• The receptor system is the part of your nervous system that detects or senses the ...
• Which function of the skeletal system will help the lungs keep from getting damaged if ...
• Your muscles use the food you eat as energy to contract. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Within the lungs, gas exchange takes place between the capillaries and the __________. A. Arteries ...
• Which type of digestion breaks down pieces of food into small molecules? A. Mechanical Digestion ...
• The overall process of breaking down food so it can be used by the body ...
• The _______ is a muscle beneath your lungs that helps move air into and out ...
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five human senses? A. Hearing ...
• The kidneys, skin, and lungs are each part of the ______ system. A. Respiratory ...
• Removal of waste products in the body is called _____. A. Excretion B. Respiration ...
• All skeletal systems provide support to organisms, but only two types are hard. Which lists ...
• Diabetes is defined best as... A. A metabolic disease characterized by high blood sugar ...
• Which hormone activates its function at the pancreas? A. insulin B. glucagon C. both insulin ...
• Skeletal muscles collectively store about ___% of the body's glycogen stores. A. 25 B. 45 ...
• The primary storage sites of glycogen in the human body are A. Liver and heart ...
• A person ate a meal rich of carbohydrates. Which hormone is likely produced after the ...
• Which hormone is produced when the blood glucose concentration is above normal? A. insulin ...
• Which hormone is produced when the blood glucose concentration is below normal? A. insulin ...
• Which hormone increases cell membrane permeability to glucose? A. insulin B. glucagon C. both insulin ...
• The process of converting protein into glucose in times of low carbohydrate intake A. glycolysis ...
• Ketosis can be dangerous because it upsets the body's A. kcal requirements B. acid-base balance ...
• T/F: People can prevent type 1 diabetes A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Hormone that causes blood sugar to be raised A. Glucagon B. Glycogen C. Insulin ...
• Which hormone signals the liver to convert glycogen to glucose? A. insulin B. glucagon ...
• A person has not eaten for 12 hours. Which hormone is likely being produced consistently ...
• Hormone that causes blood sugar to be lowered A. Glucagon B. Glycogen C. Insulin ...
• Monosaccharide that is found in blood A. Maltose B. Fructose C. Sucrose D. Glucose ...
• T/F: Most people who have type 2 diabetes are overweight A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Which hormone is produced by the liver? A. insulin B. glucagon C. both insulin and ...
• Which hormone is transported by the bloodstream? A. insulin B. glucagon C. both insulin and ...
• Which hormone signals for the conversion of glucose to glycogen? A. insulin B. glucagon ...
• Gland that secretes hormones that regulate blood glucose A. Liver B. Adrenals C. Pancreas ...
• Proteins are often needed for purposes other than providing energy. Carbohydrates in the diet support ...
• T/F: People can prevent type 2 diabetes A. TRUE B. FALSE
• A steady or balanced state of the body A. Homeostasis B. Homeopathy C. Negative feedback ...
• Which condition reflects insensitivity of cells to insulin? A. type 1 diabetes B. type 2 ...
• Which condition reflects inadequate production of insulin? A. type 1 diabetes B. type 2 diabetes ...
• Which system is responsible for your body movement? A. Nervous B. Muscular C. Skeletal ...
• The ____________ can be said to be the most sophisticated and efficient pump as it ...
• This is the longest organ in the human body A. bones B. blood vessel ...
• Oxygen in absorbed here and brought to other parts of the body by the circulatory ...
• This is the main controller of the nervous system A. nerves B. brain C. skull ...
• The heart and the lungs are housed in this part of the body A. chest ...
• Which system sends and receives messages for our body? A. Muscular System B. Nervous System ...
• The bone that protects the brain is the ______. A. spine B. skull C. bone ...
• It is pumped to every corner of the body to provide nutrition and oxygen ...
• Food is stored here before being digested A. large íntestine B. stomach C. small intestine ...
• You do this to take in oxygen and drive out carbon dioxide A. breath ...
• The tube of nerves that run through the backbone is the _________. A. Skull ...
• Breaks down food into smaller particles with the help of enzymes so it can be ...
• The ________ is the central control for the nervous system. A. nerves B. neurons ...
• The process of ________________ is thought to be a human's property but research has shown ...
• A patient has just had a TB skin test read by an RN. The results ...
• _________ tuberculosis is a form of the disease that develops in previously unexposed, and therefore ...
• which statement best describes antigenic drift? A. involves major genetic rearrangement in either antigen ...
• the common cold is a viral infection of the _______ respiratory tract A. lower ...
• Elderly people are very susceptible to pneumonia in all its varieties. The symptoms the elderly ...
• this WBC accumulates in large numbers and becomes activated in allergic responses A. neutrophils ...
• _______ disease is a form of bronchopneumonia; infection normally occurs by acquiring the organism from ...
• Hospital-acquired, or __________ pneumonia is defined as a lower respiratory tract infection that was not ...
• which of the following WBC count values is within normal range A. 16, 000 ...
• The term _________ describes inflammation of parenchymal structures of the lung, such as the alveoli ...
• When providing education to a patient who tested positive for influenza, when can the patient ...
• The early stages of influenza pass by as if the infection were any other viral ...
• what does shift to the left indicate? A. bacterial infection B. viral infection
• Because influenza is so highly contagious, prevention relies primarily on: A. wearing a mask ...
• this WBC fights bacterial infection A. neutrophils B. monocytes C. eosinophils D. basophils
• what is another word used to describe hopsital-acquired pneumonia? A. mycoplasma' pneumonia B. nosocomial pneumonia ...
• _______ is the world's foremost cause of death from a single infectious agent A. pneumonia ...
• For a virus to reproduce and live, it MUST A. live in a damp, dark ...
• Viruses cause disease. Which is NOT caused by a virus? A. chicken pox B. flu ...
• Why is it that a virus that infects a human is not likely to infect ...
• Which statement about viruses is true? A. all viruses are latent B. viruses are considered ...
• What do viruses stimulate the production of in your body? A. antibodies B. proteins ...
• Spherical, complex, cylindrical, and polyhedral are all A. types of viruses B. life cycles of ...
• Which of the following is a true statement about viruses? A. viruses are smaller than ...
• Viruses are difficult to treat because they A. take too long to reproduce B. are ...
• What are viruses made of? A. fat molecules B. DNA or RNA C. eukaryotic cells ...
• A disease that occurs over a wide geographical area and affects a large proportion of ...
• Viruses are considered nonliving because they A. contain too much protein B. do not have ...
• What type of cells are infected by viruses? A. bacteria B. plant C. animal ...
• Vaccines are produced by using _____ from another organism. A. cells B. DNA or RNA ...
• Help fight infections from bacteria, viruses and other invading substances. These are bigger and fewer ...
• Help clot the blood to keep you from bleeding to death when you are injured. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system? A. get carbon ...
• Which of the following carry blood away from the heart? A. arteries B. veins ...
• What is function of the dome-shaped diaphragm? A. This is where gas exchange happens. ...
• Carry nutrients in the blood and is made mostly of water. It is like the ...
• Inhale!!!! Your lungs are ___________ air A. taking in B. letting out
• Which body system helps the respiratory system distribute oxygen and return waste carbon dioxide to ...
• What is the role of the circulatory system in the generation of energy from food? ...
• Which vessels in the circulatory system are responsible for transporting materials back to the heart? ...
• Carry oxygen in the blood and are small disk-shaped cells that have no nucleus and ...
• EXHALE!!! My lungs are __________________ air. A. taking in B. letting out
• What components of the circulatory system fight infection in the body? A. plasma B. platelets ...
• Which body systems work together to make sure that oxygen reaches the cells from the ...
• A part of the circulatory system allows the exchange of water, oxygen, nutrients, and waste ...
• Which of the following in NOT a function of the circulatory system? A. fight infection ...
• Tiny blood vessels where exchange of materials take place. Oxygen dropped off to cells and ...
• Small air-sacs in the lungs that increase surface area for more absorption of oxygen into ...
•  Liz notices that shortly after cutting her arm accidentally the area around the cut is ...
• Which type of immunity has memory? A. innate B. adaptive/acquired
• Which of the following states that a specific microorganism causes a specific disease? A. cell ...
• Which white blood cell is more common? A. Monocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Neutrophils D. Basophils ...
• A microbe that can cause harm is known as a A. Pathogen B. Pathogon ...
• Which is NOT considered FIRST line of defense? A. White Blood Cells B. Skin ...
• Leukocytes include a wide range of different white blood cells. Which of the following are ...
• What is a protective protein produced by the immune system? A. Antibody B. Antibiotic ...
• What are the two types of immune systems? A. Acquired & Adaptive B. Innate & ...
• The best way to prevent a viral infection is to A. take antibiotics B. take ...
• Goats are genetically engineered by adding the gene of Human antithrombin protein to be produced ...
• What pairs with thymine? A. Cytosine B. Adenine C. Thymine D. Guanine
• What are the building blocks of DNA? A. Nucleotides B. Blocks C. Cells D. Aminoacids ...
• Where is the DNA located? A. Inside the nucleus of the cell B. In the ...
• Which is the structure of DNA? A. Single helix B. Double helix C. Single strand ...
• Scientists removed the gene that makes a plant grow in sunflower seeds to investigate what ...
• What pairs with guanine? A. Thymine B. Citosine C. Adenine D. Guanine
• What is NOT an example of genetic manipulation? A. Dog's domestication B. Use of radiation ...
• What pairs with adenine? A. Thymine B. Guanine C. Cytosine D. Adenine
• After the enzyme and substrate bind together and perform the reaction, what does the substrate ...
• What is structure D? A. Substrate ...
• Enzymes need certain environmental conditions in order to function properly.  What happens when enzymes are ...
• What is the purpose  of an enzyme? A. give permission for the reaction B. raise ...
• What makes an enzyme specific? A. Size B. Shape C. Name D. Location it is ...
• What 3 letters do enzymes typically end in? A. -ose B. -ase C. -ese ...
• The primary role of a digestive enzyme would be to – A. build new polymers ...
• What is letter C pointing to? A. active ...
• Identify what is labeled with the letter D ...
• Enzymes are composed of which of the following monomers? (Hint: Enzymes are proteins. What is ...
• What is structure E, F, G? A. Substrate ...
• What is structure A? A. Substrate ...
• Which of the following is likely the name of an enzyme? A. Lactose B. Fructose ...
• Based on their role in the cell, enzymes can also be classified as – ...
• What is the primary role of enzymes inside of living cells?  A. store genetic information ...
• What is structure C? A. Substrate ...
• When an enzyme loses it's 3 dimensional shape, it becomes _____. A. denatured B. free ...
• Which of the following suggests that the shape of an enzyme determines the enzyme’s function? ...
• Using sound waves to create images of areas within the body. A. ultrasound B. MRI ...
• What is the removal of a breast tumor and surrounding tissue to help treat breast ...
• Which cancer would probably respond best to hormone therapies that block interactions between hormones and ...
• The goal of a pathologist is to (pick the BEST answer) A. diagnose diseases ...
• What can tumor grade (histological grade) tell you about a patient's cancer? A. How widespread ...
• A patient's tumor is between 2-5 cm and has spread to underarm lymph nodes. Which ...
• Which of these would you NOT find in the description part of a pathology report? ...
• If patient's HER2/neu test results are 3+, then... A. They will probably respond well to ...
• What is true about stage I breast cancers? A. There is a single tumor that ...
• Which of these patients is probably in stage IIIC? A. A tumor of any size ...
• Which tumor grade indicates that cells are the most aggressive, and appear very different compared ...
• If a cell undergoes mitosis repeatedly, but does not undergo cytokinesis, predict what the cells ...
• Which is NOT an early sign of breast cancer? A. Lumps in the breast ...
• As this number increases, the cancer appears more serious to a pathologist A. Number of ...
• Taking samples from the body for clues that might indicate certain diseases. A. pathology ...
• Smooth muscle is located where? A. heart B. bones C. toes D. internal organs
• What are the two classifications of muscles in your body? A. Voluntary and Controllable ...
• Where is cardiac muscle located? A. lungs B. heart C. liver D. stomach
• Skeletal muscles are voluntary. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• _______ system A. Muscular B. ...
• The.............system allows for movement by contracting. A. immune B. lymphatic C. muscular D. reproductive ...
• How many types of muscles are there? A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 2 ...
• Which two body systems work together to make movement possible? A. skeletal and muscle systems ...
• Tendons attach muscle to bone A. FALSE B. TRUE
• What does contract mean in reference to muscles? A. to shorten B. to lengthen ...
• Short, branched extensions of a nerve cell body that receives info A. dendrites B. axons ...
• Clear, curved material behind iris that focuses light A. pupil B. cornea C. lens ...
• Which system is the messages sent by chemicals A. endocrine system B. nervous system
• Which system is the messages sent by electrical impulses A. endocrine system B. nervous system ...
• Which systems responses last longer A. endocrine system B. nervous system
• What are the type of functions that do not require you to think about them? ...
• Which system has quicker responses A. endocrine system B. nervous system
• Group of cells that make special chemicals in your body A. receptors B. glands ...
• Which gland makes insulin? A. Pancreas B. Thymus
• The light sensitive area in the back of the eye A. retina B. pupil ...
• Glad that allows your body to respond to danger. A. thymus B. adrenal C. thyroid ...
• How do hormones get to their target cells? A. nerve impulses B. floating in the ...
• In a neuron, impulses move A. from dendrite to axon B. from cell body to ...
• Which allow you to smell A. cochlea cells B. olfactory cells C. optic nerve cells ...
• What are hormones? A. your body's chemical messengers B. a collection of glands
• _____________ is a group of organs and specialized cells that detect, process, and respond to ...
• Which system involves hormones A. endocrine system B. nervous system
• Photoreceptors that detect color A. cones B. rods
• Nerve cells, or ________________, are the basic units of the nervous system. A. cells ...
• Chemical signals released by the organs of the endocrine system are called _______________. A. Hormones ...
• Which of the following are the senses that humans detect in their external environment? ...
• Automatic movements in response to a signal are called ______________. A. deflectors B. reflexes ...
• Adriana was climbing a tree with her brothers and she fell and banged her head ...
• You do this to crawfish when you eat them? A. photograph B. decapitate C. hypothermia ...
• How do you treat a minor cut on your arm? A. Apply pressure to the ...
• A sign of a first degree burn is..... A. only the outer layer of skin ...
• Involves the first 2 layers of skin A. 1st degree burn B. 2nd degree burn ...
• a sweater/jacket and a tree limb can be used to make what? A. a fire ...
• What is the treatment for someone that has hypothermia (extremely cold)? A. Give them a ...
• Avoid contact with stray animals and bats because they could have...... A. bat flu ...
• In order to stop the bleeding, you need to stop the blood flow from above ...
• Ticks can transmit this disease...... A. Lyme Disease B. Lemonade C. Tick Disease D. Cancer ...
• Pain may not be present due to nerve damage? A. 1st degree B. 2nd degree ...
• Two neurons connect at a place called a A. Synapse B. Cell Body C. Stimulus ...
• Which of the following is caused by a lack of iodine? A. Goiter B. Tetany ...
• Function of pancreas: A. control blood pressure B. control female characteristics C. control sperm production ...
• What gland produces Prolactin? A. Anterior Pituitary B. Posterior Pituitary C. Thyroid D. Adrenal Gland ...
• Which system is made up of the nerves and five senses? A. Central Nervous System ...
• What is the pituitary gland? A. the master gland B. influence metabolic rate C. helps ...
• What is the part of an eye where light from an object passes through? ...
• The gland that stimulates body metabolism A. Thyroid B. Adrenal C. Parathyroid D. Testes
• Which system is made up of the brain and spinal card? A. Central Nervous System ...
• What are considered our fight or flight hormones? A. Cortisol & PTH B. PTH & ...
• The human nervous system is capable of a wide range of functions. What is the ...
• The neuron cell is made up of which of the following parts? A. Axon ...
• The Nervous System is composed of A. Limbs, Brain B. Brain, Spinal Cord, Nerves ...
• This hormone produced by your adrenal glands is responsible for your ability to react to ...
• True or False: the cell body of a neuron has a nucleus. A. TRUE ...
• Hormone regulation operates under which type of feedback mechanism? A. Positive Feedback B. Zero Feedback ...
• Which of the following hormones is not secreted by the anterior pituitary gland? A. TSH ...
• A solvent is A. A substance that does not dissolve B. A compound being dissolved ...
• A substance that is being dissolved is the A. Solution B. Solvent C. Solute ...
• Proteins have monomers called A. Nucleotides B. Amino Acids C. Monosaccharides D. Glycerol and fatty ...
• The element is found in all organic compounds A. Iron B. Carbon C. Nitrogen ...
• Carbohydrates are made of A. CHO B. CHON C. CHONP D. CHONS
• What word describes when water is attached to other substances? A. Cohension B. Capillary Action ...
• A protein is a macomolecule that is used to A. give cells/systems energy B. build ...
• True or False Macromolecules are tiny molecules that cells need? A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Water is necessary to A. Give cells/systems energy B. Build cell parts C. Give cells/ ...
• What are the single sugars that are the building blocks of carbohydrates? A. Monosaccharides ...
• When reading the nutrition facts on the food packaging, total fats is a measure of ...
• Acids have more what? A. OH ions B. H+ ions C. OH- ions D. All ...
• The ph scale is a range of A. 1-7 B. 1-15 C. 0-14 D. 1-20 ...
• Which macromolecules stores energy, insulates us, and make up the cell membrane A. Lipids ...
• Water is the universal solvent A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Water is a universal solvent because A. It can be found anywhere B. Floats when ...
• A carbohydrates is a macromolecule that is used to A. give cells/systems energy B. Build ...
• If you see someone in a laboratory using aseptic technique, what might that person be ...
• What is a pathogen? A. A doctor who specializes in curing diseases B. Microbes that ...
• True or False? Surgical asepsis is free of ALL pathogens. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• What microorganism causes the common cold? A. Bacteria B. Protozoa C. Fungi D. Virus ...
• Aerobic bacteria require what to live? A. Oxygen B. Acid C. Plants D. Sunlight ...
• Jana is diagnosed with Rocky Mountain spotted fever which is caused by a rickettsiae that ...
• How do you dispose of blood soaked sheets that have been removed from your patient's ...
• Identify the part(s) of the chain of infection that has been eliminated by the following ...
• When washing your hands, you should use soap, warm water, and friction, and keep your ...
• Which of the following diseases/ infections is NOT communicable? A. Chicken Pox B. Hepatitis B ...
• An opportunistic infection occurs when: A. the body is weak B. someone sneezes C. it ...
• What type of environment is best for the growth of most microorganisms? A. Hot and ...
• The purpose of infection control is to: A. remind all staff to wear gloves ...
• Identify the part(s) of the chain of infection that has been eliminated by the following ...
• Airborne infections are transmitted by which of the following? A. birds B. hairbrushes C. sneezes ...
• What is the best way to prevent nosocomial infections? A. Antibiotics B. Handwashing C. Clean ...
• What is used to cure someone with a bacterial infection such as strep throat? ...
• Which government agency created the rules for Standard Precautions? A. OSHA B. CDC C. FDA ...
• A simple tissue is composed of..... A. 3 or more cell types B. 2 cell ...
• __________ is the way in which life is found in individual cells which are capable ...
• Plants appear green in colour due to the presence of what pigment in their cells? ...
• The role of connective tissue is A. to protect the organism. B. to join and ...
• The Heart and its associated blood vessels form which organ system? A. Digestive B. Circulatory ...
• What is the sole function of Phloem (Vascular tissue) in plants A. Transports water around ...
• The following definition describes which term: All the members of the same species living in ...
• The mouth, stomach, small intestine, large intestine and anus form what organ system? A. Digestive ...
• Cell Diversity mainly covers which of these characteristics of life? A. Nutrition B. Reproduction ...
• The ______ is the sub-unit of life. A. Nucleus B. Organism C. Tissue D. Cell ...
• In plants, Vascular tissue has the main function of transporting materials. What are the two ...
• In plants, the dermal tissue has the role of? A. Transporting materials B. Protection ...
• Which of these is not an example of an animal tissue? A. Muscular B. Vascular ...
• A tissue is... A. A group of organs working together with a common function. ...
• _____ is a group of organs working together with a common function. A. Tissue ...
• These are between the atria and ventricles that allow blood to flow through the chambers ...
• What do platelets do? A. carries oxygen B. cures infections C. fights infection D. causes ...
• Define Veins: A. carries blood away from the heart B. carries nutrients away from the ...
• A wall of tissue that separates the 4 chambers of the heart A. Pulmonary Circulation ...
• What are the ventricles? A. bottom left chamber of the heart B. upper chambers of ...
• How big is the human heart? A. The size of the palm of your hand. ...
• After blood leaves the capillaries, it enters the A. arteries. B. arterioles. C. venules. ...
• What is the direction of blood flow in the circulatory system? A. lungs, body, heart, ...
• What is it called when there is an interruption of blood to the brain? ...
• Blood cell that protect the body against infection A. Platelets B. Plasma C. Hemoglobin ...
• A(n)______ is a blood vessel that carries blood away from the heart. A. capillary ...
• The oxygen-carrying protein in blood A. Platelets B. Blood C. Plasma D. Hemoglobin E. White ...
• The heart is made of ______ muscle A. skeletal B. cardiac C. smooth
• What types of cells are found only in organisms that reproduce sexually? A. Blood cells ...
• An elephant reproduces sexually, it has 62 chromosomes in each cell. How many chromosomes did ...
• What is not a disadvantage of asexual reproduction? A. The offspring does not multiply rapidly. ...
• When an egg and sperm form an embryo, the offspring that is formed will have ...
• What is true about sexual reproduction? A. There is no genetic variation B. There is ...
• An organism reproduces asexually, it has 10 chromosomes in each cell. How many chromosomes did ...
• Which of the following would produce the most variety offspring when compared to the parent ...
• In a family, two of the children have attached earlobes and one child has unattached ...
• A plant that has traits identical to the parent plant provides evidence that the plant ...
• Which of the following is a part of the process of sexual reproduction for plants?  ...
• Which of the following is a characteristic of a  disadvantage of Sexual Reproduction? A. Diverse ...
• What percentage of chromosomes are handed down by each parent in sexual reproduction? A. 100% ...
• Why does sexual reproduction result in more genetic diversity than asexual reproduction? A. Traits from ...
• 2 cats reproduce, 2 sex cells join together & form offspring. The resulting offspring is ...
• Which offspring will be most different from its parent? A. Hydra B. Sperm cell ...
• How do the number of chromosomes in an asexually reproducing plant compare to its parents? ...
• Which is an example of sexual reproduction? A. Yeast producing identical cells B. Cutting off the ...
• Which of the following describes the main advantages of sexual reproduction? A. Requires lots of time/energy ...
• Creates the greatest diversity, & therefore the ability to survive changing environments is A. Budding ...
• A plant that grows a new plant from a piece of the stem has which ...
• The skin is about ______mm thick. A. 3 B. 2 C. 4
• The first layer of the skin is called...... A. dermis B. epidermis
• What oil is secreted from the skin? A. coconut B. skin C. sebum
• Melanin protects us from the ________. A. sun B. diseases C. bones
• Melanin is found in the _____ layer of the skin. A. middle B. top ...
• Sweat comes out of the__________. A. fat layer B. pores C. dermis
• New skin cells are formed every _______ weeks. A. 3 B. 4 C. 2
• Nerve endings in our skin send signals to our ________ A. muscles B. brain ...
• How many layers of skin do we have? A. 2 B. 3 C. 1
• In which layer do you find the sweat glands? A. epidermis B. dermis
• Skin absorbs sunlight and gives us vitamin ______. A. A B. B C. D ...
• Sweat glands are found in the ___________. A. epidermis layer B. dermis layer
• The DNA shape is A. rectangular B. circular C. triangular D. spiral
• A change in the DNA sequence is called a A. replication B. translation C. multiplication ...
• Why is DNA called the blueprint of life? A. it contains genetic information which is ...
• The protein adenosine is paired with A. thymine B. guanine C. cytosine D. all of ...
• Identical twins have exactly the same traits because... A. they have exactly the same genes ...
• Genes are found in A. cytoplasm B. chromosome C. mitochondria D. ribosome
• DNA directs the sequencing of A. amino acids B. fats C. ribosomes D. traits ...
• Who is the father of modern genetics? A. James Watson B. Charles Darwin C. Gregor ...
• The proteins found in DNA are A. adenine, thymine, chromatin, guanine B. adenine, thymine, cytosine, ...
• What is the sex cell for females A. XX B. XY C. YX D. YY ...
• Most mutations in the DNA are considered A. harmful B. beneficial C. no effect ...
• How many sets of chromosomes do humans have? A. 13 B. 23 C. 33 ...
• A major male sex organ that produces and stores sperm. A. Prostate Gland B. Testicle ...
• Sex cells are produced by __________ A. meiosis B. mitosis C. cell division D. binary ...
• All forms of asexual reproduction use _________________ to grow new cells and organisms. A. mitosis ...
• The male reproductive organ that stores maturing sperm is the A. Epididymis B. ...
• How many parent(s)are needed for asexual? A. 4 B. 1 C. 9 D. 100 ...
• Which process is considered to be faster?  A. Asexual B. Sexual 
• What part of male reproductive system that function as a sac that holds the testes? ...
• Females produce sex cells called ________ A. eggs B. sperms C. ovaries D. uterus ...
• What is the primary sex hormones of males? A. Prostate gland B. Testosterone C. Urine ...
• Tiny male cell that unites with the female ovum to form a fertilized egg or ...
• One key advantage of asexual reproduction is A. Offspring complete for food and space ...
• Sexual reproduction requires _____ parents and asexual reproduction requires ___ parents A. 1, 1 ...
• When an egg is fertilized by a sperm cell, a new cell, called a _______ ...
• This structure is used for both excretion (urination) and reproductive funtions. A. Urethra B. Endometrium ...
• How are genetic traits passed down from generation to generation? A. Chromosomes B. Reproduction ...
• A set of coiled tubes that connect to the vas deferens. A. Fallopian tube ...
• A sperm and an egg join together in a process called ________ A. fertilization ...
• What is the function of vas deferens? A. A muscular tube that passes upward alongside ...
• Starfish use what type of asexual reproduction? A. Binary fission B. Budding C. Fragmentation ...
• Sexual reproduction increases genetic _______ A. variation B. division C. explanation D. condensation
• Half the _________ in the offspring come from each parent. A. genes B. molecules ...
• The male gonad that produces sperm and the male hormone testosterone is the  A. Penis B. Epididymis ...
• Lymphocytes are which type of cell? A. White blood cells B. T-cells and B-cells ...
• Which one of these is part of the 2nd line of defense against pathogens? ...
• Which of the following chemicals make capillaries more permeable? A. Histamine B. Heparine
• If histamine is present then the blood vessels become more...... A. Smooth B. Turgid ...
• Chemical that causes the blood vessels around the infection to dilate (expand) so that more ...
• The second line of defense in the body is the A. barriers. B. inflammatory response. ...
• This sticky fluid traps any pathogens that try and get in our body A. Mucous ...
• What happens first in the inflammatory response? A. ...
• Macrophages fight infection from viruses and bacteria by doing what?
• Interferon is group of hormone like peptides produced by cells in response to the presence ...
• Fluid and certain types of white blood cells leak from blood vessels into nearby tissues. ...
• Which blood component adheres to collagen to create a sticky matrix to obstruct fluid drainage ...
• What is the term used for clearing out a damaged site after an injury? ...
• Caused by the foot inverting, resulting in ligaments tearing. A. Medial Tibial Stress Syndrome ...
• Which injury would you most likely tape or brace to prevent a re-injury if you’ve ...
• When doing the Talar Tilt test in Inversion; which ligament are you testing? A. ATF ...
• What is indicates a positive test for an Anterior Drawer test? A. sensitivity on the ...
• What grade describes stretching or micro tears of a muscle or tendon? A. Grade 1 ...
• The anterior drawer test tests for: A. strength of the anterior talofibular ligament B. integrity ...
• Partial tearing of a ligament is what grade of injury? A. Grade 1 strain ...
• What injury are you checking for if you do the bump test? A. Ligament Sprains ...
• Where is a high ankle sprain located? A. anterior talofibular ligament B. calcaneofibular ligament ...
• A complete tear of a muscle or tendon is what grade of injury? A. Grade ...
• What type of injury would be associated with this ankle movement you see in ...
• A grade 3 ankle sprain is: A. complete tear of a tendon B. complete tear ...
• What motion causes a medial ankle sprain? A. inversion motion B. Eversion motion C. Dorsiflexion ...
• Eversion (medial) ankle sprains happen _______ as inversion (lateral) ankle sprains) A. less often ...
• inflammation of tendon is A. Tendinitis B. Strains C. Stress Fractures D. Jones Fracture
• What type of injury would be associated with this ankle movement you see in ...
• Which of these would test the Deltoid Ligament? A. Posterior Drawer B. Talar Tilt- Eversion ...
• Where is an eversion sprain located? A. lateral ankle B. medial ankle C. between tibia ...
• What two motions cause a high ankle sprain? A. Internal Rotation and Dorsiflexion B. External ...
• Identify the grade of sprain: moderate swelling, bruising, instability, moderate loss of function with visible ...
• Sally has a Grade I lateral ankle sprain, where as Jim has a Grade III ...
• What is the common name for a syndesmosis sprain? A. lateral ankle sprain B. medial ...
• Inversion Ankle Sprain is also known as the A. ATF Sprain B. Lateral Ankle Sprain ...
• On what side of the ankle is the pain, swelling, and bruising with a lateral ...
• All of the following are parts of the Integumentary system EXCEPT A. Sebaceous (Oil) Glands ...
• Your stomach is GROWLING because you are HANGRY! The body system that controls metabolic reactions ...
• All of the following are functions of the skeletal system EXCEPT A. Protection B. Hemopoiesis ...
• Which organ in your Endocrine/Digestive systems will release Insulin to control your blood sugar from ...
• What is the anatomical name for the FRONT of the KNEE? A. Patellar B. Popliteal ...
• Which of the following is a POSITIVE Feedback loop to maintain homeostasis? A. Increasing body ...
• All of the following are part of the Alimentary Canal of the Digestive System EXCEPT ...
• Which hormone will your body release to help control your rising blood sugar from your ...
• Which hormone below is used in a Positive Feedback loop to regulate childbirth and also ...
• You notice that your skin is breaking out, and a friend says, Oh, it's just ...
• Which of the following is part of the immune system A. Spleen B. Pancreas ...
• What is the anatomical name for the FINGERS & TOES? A. Metacarpals B. Metatarsals ...
• All of the following are part of the muscular system EXCEPT A. Quadriceps B. Hamstrings ...
• Which two body systems BEST collaborate to maintain homeostasis in the body? A. Endorine & ...
• Which of the following body systems is best protected by bone? A. Circulatory/Cardiovascular System ...
• You are doing your best to drink 80 ounces of water each day for your ...
• Your body is actively engaged in a negative feedback loop, causing you to sweat vigorously ...
• Your friend was playing in an intense UDJAA basketball game and was accidentally elbowed in ...
• What is the anatomical name for the FOREHEAD A. Cranial B. Frontal C. Buccal ...
• You just enjoyed a Caramel Swirl Hot Latte with Milk from Dunkin'. Your blood sugar ...
• Type of neuron that perceive information about your environment. A. Motor Neuron B. Interneuron ...
• Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease in which the body's own immune system destroys the ...
• Type of neuron that sends nerve impulses to muscles and gland, by the command of ...
• A nerve cell can also be termed A. Neuron B. Cell Body C. Dendrite ...
• ______ send signals away from neurons whereas ______ receive signals from other neurons.   ...
• What do Axon Terminals do? A. Intakes information from other neurons B. Produces fatty tissue ...
• Nerve impulses within the neuron are sent in _____ form A. Electrical B. Chemical ...
• Z A. Dendrite B. Axon Terminal ...
• The spaces between the covered parts of an axon are called:   A. synaptic clefts ...
• Type of neuron located only in the brain and spinal cord that pass impulses from ...
• What is the name of the part of the neuron that is pointed out ...
• X A. Axon Terminal Button B. ...
• What is the function of the nerve cells? A. They are responsable of your defense ...
• What direction foes the electrical signal travel through the neuron? A. From dendrites, down the ...
• The type of bond that links the nucleotides in DNA or RNA A. Phosphodiester bond ...
• The phosphodiester bond joins the ______ group of one nucleotide to the _______ group on ...
• Double helix structure A. RNA B. DNA
• Phosphate group in nucleotides formula A. PO4 B. PH3 C. PH4 D. PO3
• In a phosphodiester bond, the polymer grows in ________ direction A. One B. Two ...
• Pentose sugar in DNA A. Ribose B. Deoxyribose
• Double ring N base A. Purine B. Pyrimidine
• Single helix structure A. RNA B. DNA
• Controls instructions for reproduction from one generation to the next A. RNA B. DNA ...
• Controls protein synthesis A. RNA B. DNA
• In nucleotides, pentose sugar is how many carbons? A. 2C B. 3C C. 4C ...
• Controls its own synthesis and proteges A. RNA B. DNA
• Metabolism is what manages the material being used and formed and the energy needed for ...
• Metabolism is the totality of an organism's chemical reactions, each reaction will follow a pathway ...
• In nucleotides, nitrogen is a _____ ring A. C-N B. N-O C. N-H D. C-H ...
• Pentose sugar in RNA A. Ribose B. Deoxyribose
• Nucleic acids are made up of how many parts? A. One B. Two C. Three ...
• Single ring N base A. Purine B. Pyrimidine
• Short term treatment for an urgent injury or medical condition A. acute care B. short ...
• Clinical laboratory standards of practice in the United States have been established by which of ...
• correct order of clinical laboratory workflow pathway A. preanalytical phase, postanalytical phase, analytical phase ...
• In order to protect themselves on the job, phlebotomy should have which character trait? ...
• An example of how clinical laboratory test results are used is A. body mass index ...
• Which of the following tools is most useful for demonstrating steps in laboratory procedures. ...
• Potential Job sites for Phlebotomists are: A. Specialty hosp B. Rural health clinics C. home ...
• Which of the following individuals is most likely to perform phlebotomy procedures? A. office manager ...
• Which of the following is a characteristic of a pathologist's responsibilities? A. daily rounds with ...
• _____ where patients' conditions are less critical and can be treated without hospitalization. A. acute ...