Sitemap 6

• If a trait has physically shown through and is manifested in an animal, how would ...
• Which term is used to describe the PHYSICAL characteristics we can see in an animal? ...
• Which feed type is high in fiber but low in energy? A. Roughage ...
• What is the 95% rule with pet food and animal feed labels? A. 95% ...
• What percentage of an animal's body is made of water? A. 20% B. ...
• Which behavior reaction frequently is shown before an agression reaction? A. Comfort B. ...
• Which tool predicts pounds of feed needed to form a ration? A. Punnett Square ...
• If an animal carries at least one other variation of a trait, what word would ...
• Which of the following would be an example of a concentrate? A. Hay ...
• An animal has relaxed ears, bright eyes, relaxed muscles and a wagging or slightly lifted ...
• What is a genome? A. One specific trait B. All of the possible ...
• What is the term for a characteristic that an animal may have? A. Trait ...
• What is the function of vitamin C? A. To promote a healthy immune system ...
• Which of the following is an example of a roughage? A. Grain B. ...
• What is the function of fats? A. To provide a major source of energy ...
• What is the tool we can use to make genetic predictions? A. Pearson's square ...
• We get tea from _______ . A. plant B. animal
• Find the plant source of food . A. Fruits B. eggs C. ...
• We get butter from _______ . A. animal B. plant
• Foods which protect our body from various diseases are called ______ food. A. ...
• Rich in proteins and minerals. A. Body building food B. Protective food ...
• We get from wheat from_______ . A. animal B. plant
• Energy giving food is rich in carbohydrate and fat. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Food provides us ____________and __________. A. nutrition and energy B. milk C. ...
• We get honey from _______ . A. animal B. plant
• We get egg from _______ . A. plant B. animal
• Which of these is obtained from plants A. Cheese B. Fruits
• We get banana from _______ . A. animal B. plant
• Which is an example of a carbohydrate? A. Beans B. Avocado C. ...
• We get milk from _______ . A. plant B. animal
• Which food group does this belong to? ...
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• What is the purpose of the 5 major Food Groups? A. To learn about ...
• Which food group does this belong to? ...
• Which food group does this belong to? ...
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• Which food group does this belong to? ...
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• Which food group does this belong to? ...
• Which food group does this belong to? ...
• Which of these is an example of food that contains fibre? A. Cereal ...
• What does the A stand for in SMART goals? A. Awesome B. Aggressive ...
• Does a food label contain the country of origin? A. Yes B. No ...
• What is an example of a dairy product? A. Milk B. Bread ...
• What is an example of Protein? A. Vegetables B. Bread C. Chicken ...
• How many minutes of Physical activity are recommended by the Australian Guidelines? A. 60 ...
• Apples, Bananas, Peaches and strawberries are examples of: A. Vegetables B. Fruits ...
• What is the main reason we eat food? A. To stop boredom B. ...
• Why is it important to maintain a healthy lifestyle? A. To maintain a healthy ...
• Eggs are categorised under which food group? A. Protein B. Carbohydrates C. ...
• Milk, cheese and yoghurt are examples of: A. Dairy B. Protein C. ...
• Which of these is an example of a food source that has Carbohydrates? A. ...
• All healthy food has a star rating? A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Bread, cereal, oats, rice and pasta are examples of: A. Carbohydrates B. Fats ...
• We can get calcium nutrients from which food source? A. Dairy B. Fats ...
• What does the T stand for in SMART targets? A. Timely B. Tedium ...
• You can improve your physical activity by: A. Setting goals B. Eating food ...
• Rapid growth during puberty causes your body to release more and more growth hormones. As ...
• Protein is broken down into ______________ before they are asborbed into the small intestines. ...
• What is an ectotherm? A. fish B. cat C. dog D. ...
• This is the enzyme that works on protein. A. pepsin B. HCl ...
• What changes occur to cool the body down? A. Vasoconstriction, increase sweating and hairs ...
• What is involuntary contractions of voluntary muscles to warm up? A. Shivering B. ...
• What name do we use to describe the maintaining of constant/stable internal conditions, such as: ...
• Name this structure A. spleen ...
• The term for maintaining internal temperature is:  A. Thermoregulation B. Thermometer C. ...
• Where is pepsinogen secreted? A. the mouth B. the stomach C. the ...
• This organ produces the hormones that help regulate blood glucose levels. A. Pancreas ...
• Bile is made by which digestive organ? A. Gallbladder B. Stomach C. ...
• Fingerlike extensions of the small intestine that increase the surface area for absorption A. ...
• When glucose levels in the blood rise, your brain sends a signal to your pancreas. ...
• What is the function of the gall bladder? ...
• Which of the following organs produces digestive juice that does not contain enzymes? A. ...
• What type of digestion involves the actual breaking apart of the food by our teeth, ...
• An organism that produces its own body heat is called... A. Ectotherm B. ...
• The cause for something to happen is the A. response B. effect ...
• How does sweat cool you? A. evaporation B. condensation C. It doesn't ...
• The stomach wall produces mucus to cover its surface. Which of the following statements correctly ...
• The villi provides a surface area for the absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream. ...
• What enzyme is produced by this structure ...
• Salt water crocodiles bask in the sun for several hours every morning. which one of ...
• Which organ in the digestive system absorbs the most water from food? A. esophagus ...
• Waves of contractions that move food one way through the digestive system are called ...
• The two types of feedback systems that help organisms maintain homeostasis are: A. positive ...
• Which of these stages of digestion includes a chemical change? A. peristalsis B. ...
• What macromolecule is broken down by this structure? ...
• If the environment gets cold, we will often shiver in order to: A. keep ...
• Hydrochloric acid is secreted in the _______________ . A. oesophagus B. stomach ...
• What is an endotherm? A. a human B. a frog C. a ...
• What changes occur to increase body temperature A. Vasoconstriction, hair erector muscle relaxes and ...
• Which of the following is a hormone used to control glucose concentrations in the blood? ...
• What is the main purpose of the small intestine? A. nutrients get absorbed into ...
• Tube that carries swallowed food to the stomach A. esophagus B. liver ...
• What hormone is produced in the pancreas that lowers blood sugar? A. Insulin ...
• Which of the following foods contain little or no fibre? A. apples B. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a factor that determines how much energy we need. ...
• Which of the following foods contain little or no protein? A. butter B. ...
• What does a deficiency in iron cause? A. Anaemia B. scurvy C. ...
• What are fats in our diet mainly used for? A. bones and teeth ...
• What are small amounts of vitamins needed for? A. bones and teeth B. ...
• What nutrient is found in pasta and rice? A. Fibre B. Carbohydrates ...
• What are the correct units of energy? A. joules B. kilograms C. ...
• Define the term 'balanced diet'. A. A diet containing some nutrients in the correct ...
• Which nutrient? A. healthy fats ...
• Which nutrient? A. Fats ...
• Who needs more energy each day? A. babies B. athletes C. teenagers ...
• What are the nutrients needed for energy? A. Carbohydrate and fat B. Carbohydrate ...
• Which nutrient? A. carbohydrates ...
• What can happen if you don't eat enough? A. obesity B. starvation ...
• Which nutrient? A. Fibre ...
• Iron, a mineral, is needed for what? A. bones and teeth B. energy ...
• What can happen if you don't eat enough of a certain nutrient? A. Starvation ...
• Which nutrient? A. healthy fats ...
• Which nutrient cannot be digested? A. carbohydrates B. fibre C. protein ...
• A ............................... contains the right amount of nutrients that your body needs A. fat ...
• What is the main reason why we need protein in our diet? A. For ...
• Which of the following contains most calcium? A. cheddar cheese B. green apples ...
• Which of the following foods contain little or no carbohydrates? A. bread B. ...
• Fibre is needed for what? A. healthy blood B. cell chemistry C. ...
• Substances in food that provide nourishment essential for growth and the maintenance of life are ...
• What is the atmosphere? A. all the air and gases on the planet ...
• What is the biosphere? A. all the air and gases on the planet ...
• What is the hydrosphere? A. all the air and gases on the planet ...
• What are the 3 most important minerals? A. NPQ B. NPL C. ...
• Angie constructs models of the carbon cycle, nitrogen cycle, and water cycle. What type of ...
• What is the geosphere? A. all the air and gases on the planet ...
• Chemical process that animals and plants use to obtain energy. A. Transpiration B. ...
• The three most important mineral nutrients for plants are ____________, ____________, and _____________. A. ...
• Carbohydrates, Fats, Proteins, Vitamins & Minerals A. Breakfast B. Food Pyramid C. ...
• Matter cycles through food webs and biogeochemical cycles. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Comes from the Greek word for ground A. bio- B. hydro- C. ...
• Chemical process by which plants use sunlight to obtain sugars. A. Transpiration B. ...
• What does this equation represent?C6H12O6 + 6O2 -----> 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP A. The ...
• The chemical symbol for potassium is _________ A. K B. P C. ...
• The chemical symbol for phosphorus is _____________ A. P B. K C. ...
• A substance in food that your body needs to grow, to repair itself, and to ...
• Types of organisms that serve to break down inorganic waste and deposit into the soil. ...
• What is the main source of energy that drives the water cycle? A. Sun ...
• Organic material (like coal and oil) that are the remnants of dead/decayed matter from millions ...
• Comes from the Greek word for water A. bio- B. hydro- C. ...
• Comes from the Greek word for air A. bio- B. hydro- C. ...
• What is released as a waste product during respiration? A. ATP B. Carbon ...
• What is the process where nitrogen is moved from the air to the soil to ...
• N2 is A. Nitrogen that plants take up by their roots to grow ...
• The enzymes present in the saliva convert A. fats into fatty acids and glycerol. ...
• _____secretes pancreatic juice. A. Liver B. Brain C. Pancreas D. Skin ...
• The piercing and tearing teeth is called A. incisor B. Canine C. ...
• What is the finger-like projections found in the digestive ...
• The mode of feeding of the mosquito_____. A. Chewing B. Cuddling C. ...
• The basic process of digestion of food and release of energy is not the same ...
• _____ takes in food by the use of pseudopodia. A. Goat B. Tiger ...
• Glucose combines with oxygen and produces _________. A. Gas B. Energy C. ...
• ____transports the nutrients from the undigested food to every cell of the body. A. ...
• Which of the following pair of teeth differ in structure but are similar in function? ...
• Mostly grass eating animals are called____. A. Carnivore B. Omnivore C. Ruminants ...
• ____ is the largest gland in our body. A. Skin B. Hand ...
• Water from the undigested food is absorbed mainly in the_____. A. Stomach B. ...
• Choose the correct order after reading the statement below. Digestion is a complex process ...
• The ___ helps in mixing saliva with food. A. Heart B. Stomach ...
• Which of the following is an example of a HETEROTROPH? A. Grass B. ...
• The _____ carries water and minerals from roots to other parts of the plant ...
• Which structures open and close stomata to allow gas exchange but prevent water loss in ...
• Which of these will not affect photosynthesis? A. Light B. Temperature C. ...
• The leaf has a shiny, waxy cuticle around it to A. increase the rate ...
• What is a limiting factor? A. The factor which increases the rate of a ...
• thin stalk that connects the blade of the leaf to the plant's stem A. ...
• When it is chilly and raining outside, there is no photosynthesis taking place. What is ...
• Which of the following is an example of an AUTOTROPH? A. Appletree B. ...
• A student is collecting the gas given off from a plant in bright sunlight at ...
• If carbon dioxide is completely removed from a plant’s environment, what would you expect to ...
• The ______ carries food from leaves to other parts of the plant A. xylem ...
• What is the name of the elongated, packed cells ...
• The openings on the bottom of leaves, which allow in CO2 (carbon dioxide) and releases ...
• Most of the chloroplast cells are found in the A. upper epidermis B. ...
• What is letter D pointing to? A. ...
• How does photosynthesis benefit heterotrophs? A. It adds carbon dioxide to the air. ...
• What are the products of photosynthesis? A. water and carbon dioxide B. oxygen ...
• If a plant receives more carbon dioxide, what happens to the rate of photosynthesis? ...
• Which statement about photosynthesis is correct? A. Plants get the energy they need for ...
• Ethology has its roots in A. Sigmund Freud's theory of psychoanalysis. B. Charles ...
• An authoritarian (strict) caregiver would most likely... A. say, because I said so ...
• True or False. Nowadays, women are getting married at a much YOUNGER age. A. ...
• __________________ is the development a gradual, continuous process or a sequence of separate stages ...
• Meeting a child's physical, intellectual, emotional and social needs is called... A. adoption ...
• Using hands and facial expressions are examples of ___ motor skills. A. gross  ...
• Milestones progress in the same order and build on previous skills learned and mastered is ...
• The ability to use LARGE muscle groups is known as ___ motor skills. A. ...
• Change doesn't happen overnight is a description of the characteristic/principle ___ A. Development is ...
• The ability to use SMALL muscle groups is known as ___ motor skills. A. ...
• Nature refers to A. interactive forces that impact development. B. biological forces that ...
• An authoritative (democratic) caregiver encourages... A. strict rules B. compromise and child input ...
• What are the 3 primary areas of focus in child development? A. cognitive, socioemotional, ...
• When two or more generations live together, this is an example of an... A. ...
• ___ of development are different ways that a child grows and changes. A. areas/domains ...
• Using arms, legs and torso are examples of ___ motor skills. A. gross  ...
• While there are predictable age norms for milestones, development can be accelerated or delayed as ...
• People tend to have traits that are consistent and predictable is a description of the ...
• By using the ________ method, researchers investigate whether an observed behavior or a measured trait ...
• When a single parent *marries another person, this is an example of a... A. ...
• helping children learn what is acceptable behavior and what is not. A. nutrition ...
• Training children to help them live in society is called... A. cognitive B. ...
• Epigenetics genetics postulates that A. nurture has a larger impact than nature on a ...
• The longitudinal method compares the performance or observations across ages by taking repeated measurements from ...
• Which area/domain of development deals with understanding right from wrong? A. fine B. ...
• Sigmund Freud was an Austrian neurologist and the founder of A. cognitive theory ...
• The issue of the degree to which early experiences or later experiences are the key ...
• Which area/domain of development deals with how children learn, think, remember, and reason? A. ...
• ___ of development are rules that theorists came up with that all development follows. ...
• What are the TOP 3 expenses of having a child? A. baby bows, cute ...
• When two parents & biological children who live together A. single parent family ...
• Which area/domain of development deals with the way children learn to interact with others? ...
• Poverty, malnutrition, and a lack of adequate medical care are examples of A. nature. ...
• A person who regularly looks after a child or a sick, elderly, or disabled person. ...
• Even though researchers tend to focus on one area of development at a time, changes ...
• a penalty for doing something wrong A. punishment B. discipline C. reward ...
• A permissive caregiver would most likely... A. create rules & guidelines for a child ...
• True or False: All children must be born AFTER a couple is married in order ...
• When a child of one pair of parents legally becomes the child of another parent ...
• Which area/domain of development deals with children learning to recognize and control their feelings? ...
• Which theory of child development proposes that systems and interrelationships that surround a child affect ...
• Solid non-metals tend to be what in terms of physical properties? A. Dull and ...
• What 5 elements make up your DNA? A. Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Bromine, Phosphorus and Carbon ...
• What has properties of both metals and non-metals? A. Monsters B. Metallica ...
• An Electron Dot model of an atom includes the A. The number of electrons ...
• If a material has Luster it is A. Dull and Brittle B. Dull ...
• What is Electrical Conductivity? A. The measure of a material's ability to block electrical ...
• What type of solid are most metals? A. Crastiline B. Crystalline C. ...
• ________________ are substances that for when two or more elements bond together? A. Comprehensives ...
• What is the definition of Ductile? A. The ability to be hammered or rolled ...
• How many Valence Electrons do metals typically have? a. 1-3 b. 8 ...
• What two metalloids are most commonly used for semiconductors? A. Germanium and Silicon ...
• Group 14 is known as what family? A. Halogen B. Hydrogen C. ...
• What are the three main Physical Properties of metals? A. Malleability, Luster and Conductivity ...
• What is Specific Heat? A. the amount of energy required to raise the temperature ...
• Electrons of an atom are found in different? A. Energy Places B. Energy ...
• What is the definition of Malleable? A. the ability to be pulled out or ...
• What gas was used to fill the Hindenburg airship? A. Helium B. Hydrogen ...
• Why was filling the Hindenburg with hydrogen a bad idea? A. It's highly reactive ...
• The second energy level of an atom can hold a maximum of ___________ electrons ...
• Why are metalloids good for making semiconductors? A. They will conduct electricity only under ...
• The _________ ______________ of an atom are those electrons that have the highest energy level? ...
• What is the only non-metal that is liquid at room temperature? A. Brotine ...
• What is Thermal Conductivity? A. The measure of a material's ability to transfer an ...
• What holds metal together? A. An electromagnetic attraction between the negatively charged metal atoms ...
• A. stomach B. pancreas C. ...
• A muscular tube that helps move food from the mouth to the stomach. A. ...
• The opening at the end of the digestive track where feces exits the body. ...
• instrument used to view the inside of the small intestine.  A. enteritis B. ...
• Under the tongue A. sublingual B. glossitis C. glossal D. lingual ...
• Some of the functions of the liver are detoxification and secretion of bile. A. ...
• A. purging B. peristalsis C. ...
• The hardest substance in the body is enamel. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• A series of wave-like muscle contractions that moves food to different processing stations in the ...
• Gallstone A. lithotripsy B. neurotripsy C. pancreatolith D. cholelith
• Liver disease A. hepatitis B. hepatomegaly C. hepatopathy D. hepatectomy
• Removal of the spleen A. gastroduodenostomy B. gastrectomy C. gastroenterology D. ...
• Study of the stomach and small intestine A. gastroduodenostomy B. gastrectomy C. ...
• A. pancreas B. trachea C. ...
• A long folded tube inside the body attached to the stomach where nutrients in the ...
• Surgical crushing of a stone A. lithotripsy B. neurotripsy C. pancreatolith ...
• A. large intestine B. small intestine ...
• A. esophagus B. liver C. ...
• Fast eating A. phagocytosis B. bradyphagia C. tachyphagia D. dysphagia
• Inflammation of the liver A. gingivitis B. glossitis C. hepatitis D. ...
• The tube after the small intestine where the liquid is absorbed. A. large intestine ...
• Enlargement of the liver A. hepatitis B. hepatomegaly C. hepatopathy D. ...
• Removal of the stomach A. gastroduodenostomy B. gastrectomy C. gastroenterology D. ...
• Making a new opening between the stomach an first section of the small intestine ...
• A fluid in the mouth that helps digest food. A. pepsin B. pepsi ...
• Difficult digestion A. malnutrition B. malabsorption C. dyspepsia D. dysentery
• Inflammation of the small intestine.  A. enteritis B. enterorrahagia C. enteroscope ...
• Where in the body is Insulin and Glucagon produced? A. Large Intestine B. ...
• Slow eating A. phagocytosis B. bradyphagia C. tachyphagia D. dysphagia
• This is a example of ........ A. ...
• Is a quality of your relationship with friends, family, teachers, and others in contact with. ...
• What is the correct order of organization A. tissues-cells-organs-organ systems-organism B. cell-tissue-organs-organ systems-organism ...
• Compare the structures of animals with each other and with humans. A. Comparative Anatomy ...
• True or false... Cells that perform different functions form a tissue. A. TRUE ...
• A substance or ingredient that promotes growth, provides energy, and maintains life. A. Nutrition ...
• Is expressing your emotions in a positive, non-destructive way: A. Physical Health B. ...
• The ability or tendency of a living organism, cell, or group to keep the conditions ...
• This are the baic needs for humans: A. Oxygen, water and shelter B. ...
• Study the changes that occur from fertilization to birth. A. Embriology B. Gastroenterology ...
• Organs and tissues that perform the same function is called _____________? A. cells ...
• The ability to recognize and cope with the demands of everyday life: A. Physical ...
• A group of tissues that perform a similar function is called_____. (Examples include the heart, ...
• Set of practices, techniques and customs that the individual must follow on a regular basis ...
• Refers to the way your body works: A. Physical Health B. Mental Health ...
• It comprises the study of the structure of the human body in a healthy state ...
• A group of cells forms... A. Multicellular organism B. Organs C. Systems ...
• This is a example of ........ A. ...
• Is the study of the functions of each body part. Think of this as ...
• Keeping your air and water clean, your food safe, and the land around you enjoyable ...
• A very easy one... check the true statement. ...
• Is the intake of food, considered in relation to the body’s dietary needs. Good nutrition. ...
• When many organ systems work together it can form... A. organ B. cells ...
• Study the modifications suffered by the functions of diseased structures A. Anatomy B. ...
• Study the changes suffered by the body from fertilization to old age. A. Developmental ...
• Is the study of an organism’s body structures and their location. Think of this ...
• This is a example of........ A. ...
• The medical term colostomy means A. To cut into the small intestine B. ...
• The medical term colitis means: A. Inflammation of the collon B. Inflammation of ...
• The medical term hepatoma means: A. Pertaining to the liver B. Inflammation of ...
• The medical term Hematemesis means A. vomiting B. blood C. pertaining to ...
• The medical term esophagoplasty means: A. To cut into the esophagus B. Surgical ...
• The word root cholecyst means: A. Bladder B. gallblader C. bile duct ...
• Translate the root enter/o. A. mouth B. colon C. intestines D. ...
• Translate the root stomat/o. A. tongue B. mouth C. stomach D. ...
• The term Gastroenterology means: A. Study of the stomach B. the one who ...
• The medical term hyperemesis means: A. excessive vomiting B. vomiting C. above ...
• What is the correct meaning of the abbreviation N&V? A. not vocal B. ...
• The abbreviation GERD means: A. Gastroenterologist B. Gastroesophageal reflux disease C. Gastroenteral ...
• Patient's physical functions through physical examination, diagnosis, prognosis, physical intervention, rehabilitation and patient education are ...
• Medical specialty department which is focused on the ears, nose, and throat. A. Otolaryngology ...
• Performing traditional examinations referring to an examination of the lungs, bones and soft tissue without ...
• Contain the basics, like your name and your date of birth, but also have the ...
• Assists the clients of the hospital in all possible ways. A. Catering services ...
• Promotes and implements patients' rights and contributes to the improved quality of care by advising ...
• Treating people with kidney problems. A. Dialysis B. Emergency Care / First Aid ...
• Preventive health care that the employer has a duty to arrange by law. A. ...
• Provides a listening ear, emotional support and spiritual support to patients, relatives and friends, and ...
• Can help if you have an illness or impairment that makes it more difficult for ...
• A branch of medicine that specializes in the care of women during pregnancy and childbirth ...
• Subspecialties include allergy and immunology, cardiology (heart diseases), endocrinology (hormone disorders), hematology (blood disorders), infectious ...
• Responsible for recruiting, screening, interviewing and placing workers. A. Hospital sterilisation and disinfection unit ...
• E.g. rashes, wounds, venereal diseases and skin cancers are treated here. A. Dental and ...
• Here the entire surgical procedure, from beginning to completion is implemented on a same-day basis, ...
• The place where the central activities of running a hospital are located. A. Administrative ...
• The thickest and strongest blood vessel is the A. vein B. artery ...
• When blood enters the right atrium, where is it coming from? A. The body ...
• Wall of the heart made up mostly of cardiac muscle A. Pericardium  B. ...
• What chamber pumps blood to the body? A. Right atrium B. Right ventricle ...
• _____ carry blood to the heart. A. Arteries B. Veins C. Capillaries ...
• Carry blood toward heart; mostly oxygen-poor A. Arteries B. Veins C. Capillaries ...
• The heart has ___ chambers. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 ...
• Identify the circled valve A. Tricuspid ...
• Un-oxygenated blood enters the right atrium from the bottom ...
• The blood vessel that has the largest diameter is A. vein B. artery ...
• A. Left atrium B. Right atrium ...
• What is the name for a circulatory system that ...
• Name this part. A. Right ventricle ...
• Name this part. A. Right ventricle ...
• Valve that blood is forced through from right ventricle ...
• name of the valve that separates right atrium from ...
• What is the strongest (thickest) part of the heart? A. right atrium B. ...
• Which side of the heart has oxygen rich blood? A. Left Side B. ...
• Un-oxygenated blood enters the right atrium from the top ...
• Valves in veins A. support them B. protect them C. prevent the ...
• Identify the circled valve A. Tricuspid ...
• Identify the circled valve A. Tricuspid ...
• Vessels with walls that are one cell thick A. arteries B. capillaries ...
• A. Left atrium B. Right atrium ...
• The beating sound your heart makes comes from A. blood going in the wrong ...
• Largest artery of the body. A. Intercostal arteries B. Bronchial arteries C. ...
• Vessels that allow gas exchange A. arteries B. capillaries C. veins
• The fluid-filled sac that covers the heart A. Pericardium B. Epicardium  C. ...
• One of the following plants has two parts which can be eaten as food. This ...
• The ingredients reqired to prepare pumkin curry A. pumkin B. pumkin salt, oil, ...
• Which of the following gives eggs? A. Duck B. Cow C. Goat ...
• Which one of the following is not an omnivore animal? A. Tiger B. ...
• We eat____________of cabbage. A. stem B. fruits C. leaves D. seeds ...
• We need food for A. energy B. protection from disease C. growth ...
• Edible part in spinach plant is A. Stem B. Roots C. Leaves ...
• Which one of the following is a herbivore? A. kingfisher B. camel ...
• Find out the plant product. A. Milk B. Mutton C. Maize ...
• Which of the following plant store food in their roots? A. Radish B. ...
• Why do the boiled seed fail to sprout A. lost all food B. ...
• Brinjal which is an ingredient in Brinjal curry is which part of the plant? ...
• We eat roots of _______ A. Mustard B. Rajma C. Chilli ...
• Milk, curd, paneer and ghee are A. Animal products B. Plant products ...
• Which part of ginger is used as food? A. Root B. Stem ...
• Honeybee makes honey from A. pollen B. petals C. nectar D. ...
• Which of the following is NOT an ingredient for preparing Dal? A. Pulses ...
• Given below are names of some animals: (i) Goat (ii) Human beings (iii) Cockroach (iv) ...
• Germinating seeds are known as A. Sapling B. Sprouts C. Vegetation ...
• Humans are? A. Carnivores B. Herbivores C. Omnivores D. None of ...
• Animals which eat both plants and their products, as well as other animals A. ...
• The part of a banana plant not used as food is A. flower ...
• Which of the following food is obtained from the roots of the plant? A. ...
• Materials required to prepare a food item are called _________ A. Nutrients B. ...
• What are the main sources of food? A. shopping mall B. supermarket ...
• We get sugar from: A. Sugarcane B. Rice C. Milk D. ...
• Nectar is A. A place where bees live B. Honey C. Sweet ...
• Deer eats only plant products, therefore it is a: A. Carnivore B. Herbivore ...
• Which of the following is not a leaf? A. Cabbage B. Spinach ...
• body lice A. Parasite B. Fungus C. Virus D. Bacteria ...
• Coughing, sneezing, and runny nose are all _______________ of the common cold. A. Access ...
• True or False: Some vIruses and bacteria that live in food, water, and soil can ...
• If you are showing symptoms of a communicable disease you should still go to school. ...
• Common cold A. Virus B. Fungus C. Bacteria D. Parasite ...
• Disease that can be passed to a person from another person, animal or object is ...
• Infectious diseases can spread by contact with A. an infected person B. a ...
• Malaria A. Protozoa B. Fungus C. Virus
• Which of these diseases cannot be prevented through vaccination A. Mumps B. Common ...
• Organisms that cause disease are called A. Pathogens B. Host C. Phagocyte ...
• Which of the following is an example of direct contact with an infected person ...
• True or False: Some viruses and bacteria that live in food, water, and soil can ...
• Disease caused by fungus A. Athlete's foot B. Pin worm C. Cold ...
• The system in our body helps to fight disease is called A. Respiratory ...
• The picture represents muscle tissue. Which ...
• Identifying Structures of the Musculoskeletal System ...
• allows for receiving of information from the environment A. oil glands B. muscles ...
• When Jacob starts running, his legs move faster and his heart rate increases. Which types ...
• Which describes an interaction within the musculoskeletal system? A. When a ligament contracts, a ...
• _________ tissues support and bind tissues and organs together. A. cartilage B. connective ...
• The longest muscle in the body A. gluteus maximus B. stapedius muscle ...
• a connective tissue that holds bones together A. cartilage B. connective tissue ...
• striated, involuntary, helps pump the blood through the body A. cardiac muscle B. ...
• Which action would be completed by skeletal muscle tissue? A. kicking a soccer ball ...
• Which protects nerve endings at the ends of fingers and toes? A. joints ...
• Which function is common to skin, hair, and nails? A. release of waste materials ...
• What do the stapedius and gluteus maximus have in common? A. They move the ...
• Which is the largest organ? A. sartorius B. skin C. hair ...
• Which is the function of the skull? A. produces brain cells B. protects ...
• Supports bone in ear A. stapedius B. sartorius C. gluteus maximus
• The hair on Jamal’s arms is standing straight up. What most likely explains why ...
• tissue in the hollow part of the bone A. compact bone B. spongy ...
• Which structure of the skeletal system holds bones together? A. cartilage B. ligament ...
• The smallest muscle in the body A. gluteus maximus B. stapedius muscle ...
• moves hip and thigh A. stapedius B. sartorius C. gluteus maximus
• Identifying Structures of the Musculoskeletal System ...
• protects the body from harmful bacteria A. muscles B. nerve endings C. ...
• helps in controlling the temperature of the body A. muscles B. nerve endings ...
• Which is the biggest muscle in the human body? A. heart B. sartorius ...
• The skin is the largest organ in the body. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• nonstriated, involuntary, helps food go through digestive tract A. skeletal muscle B. smooth ...
• Identifying Structures of the Musculoskeletal System ...
• the point where two or more bones come together A. joint B. ligament ...
• What is the flexible connective tissue shown in blue? ...
• The biggest muscle A. gluteus maximus B. stapedius muscle C. sartorius
• moves hip and knee A. stapedius B. sartorius C. gluteus maximus
• Which structure connects muscles to bones? A. ligament B. cartilage C. tendon ...
• Which is a function common to both the muscular and skeletal systems? A. regulation ...
• Identifying Structures of the Musculoskeletal System ...
• Henry touched a hot plate and immediately moved his finger away from it. Which ...
• Which trait do cardiac and smooth muscle share? A. voluntary B. involuntary ...
• strong, dense outer layer of a bone A. compact bone B. spongy bone ...
• striated, voluntary, helps body to move A. cardiac muscle B. smooth muscle ...
• To raise an arm upward, the muscle on one side of it contracts. What ...
• lightweight, inner layer of a bone that contains many small spaces A. bone marrow ...
• Identifying Structures of the Musculoskeletal System ...
• __________ is a flexible connective tissue that protects bones as the bones rub against each ...
• How will you lift the stuff? A. Bend your neck and back B. ...
• When lifting from a low level you should... A. Keep your legs straight and ...
• Never bend your back when you lift the heavy stuff. A. TRUE B. ...
• How will you ensure 2 person lift is carried out perfectly? A. Coordination between ...
• What is the 1st step when you perform manual handling? A. Lift the weight ...
• Moving and handling are also know as..... A. Manual handling B. Material handling ...
• When carrying a load you should... A. Keep the load at arms reach ...
• What is it called when you have some one to help you to lift the ...
• What would you NOT consider when lifting a heavy load? A. Its centre of ...
• What comes under manual handling? A. Pushing, pulling, lifting B. Pushing, pulling ...
• Keep the load _________ to the body. A. Far B. Inside C. ...
• What type of manual handling method is this? ...
• Health and safety legislative acts also protect members of the public from workplace dangers. ...
• Avoid pushing or pulling on a slope. A. Yes B. No C. ...
• What will you do if you find that the stuff your lifting is over weight ...
• What is classed as manual handling? A. Pushing B. Carrying C. Pulling ...
• What should you keep away from the load? A. Hand B. Chest ...
• By law, employers are required to undertake a... A. Assessment B. Risk assessment ...
• Should you hold the load with both hands? A. Yes B. No ...
• Don't lift more than you can comfortably... A. Hold B. Stop C. ...
• What type of manual handling activity is this? ...
• What type of manual handing method is this? ...
• Before handling any load you should... A. Check the surrounding area for hazards ...
• What is the percentage surface area of an adults trunk? A. 4.50% B. ...
• Blood leaks into an affected muscle compartment -> A. Then drains out through another ...
• Cartilage is a ___________. A. Smooth, elastic surface between bones B. Smooth, elastic ...
• Epidermis is the: A. tough, external layer. B. inner layer.
• Black, foul-smelling, tarry stool. A. Melena B. Hematemesis C. Hemoptysis D. ...
• The strong, white, fibrous membrane that covers bones and through which blood vessels and nerves ...
• The major short bones of the body are found in the: A. neck ...
• Massive bleeding can occur due to extreme injuries such as open fractures. When direct pressure ...
• The most effective way to stop a non-severe bleeding from a wound is to apply ...
• Tissues or fibers that cause movement of the body parts or organs are called: ...
• What is the treatment for Compartment Syndrome? A. Urgent fasciotomy B. Amputation ...
• All the following are care steps in treating an ankle or a foot injury except: ...
• Muscle A. Tissue that contracts and relaxes to create movement. B. Tissue which ...
• Three basic causes for musculoskeletal injuries. A. Snapping, Bruising and Swelling B. Screen ...
• broken teeth fragment must be transported to the dental clinic inside the _________ solution or ...
• After taking Standard Precautions, exposing the area, and controlling any external bleeding, the next step ...
• Any chemical exposure to the eye should be flushed with a large amounts of __________ ...
• Injuries involving muscles result in _________ A. Sprain B. Luxation C. Strain ...
• The circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts is: A. ...
• Contusion is also called: A. Hematoma B. Epistaxis C. Coagulation D. ...
• What is the percentage surface area of a child's head? A. 4.50% B. ...
• An injury to a joint in which the bone ends become separated from each other ...
• The mechanism that causes the crushed tissues and fractures found in a patient struck by ...
• Blood leaves the lungs via the Pulmonary ________ and enters the Left __________. A. ...
• Dislocation A. Splint or other method to keep an injured body part from moving. ...
• Muscle injuries resulting from overstretching or overexertion of the muscle are called: A. sprains ...
• The bones found in the arm and thigh are examples of: A. long bones ...
• Bones broken in several places are classified as: A. angulated B. comminuted ...
• When performing the first aid on a person with suspected ______________ injury, avoid bending, flexing ...
• According to the Rule of Nines, an adult leg is worth: A. 18 ...
• The splint best suited for stabilization of a dislocated shoulder is a(n): A. air-inflatable ...
• The leading cause of death for people 44 and younger is... A. Stroke ...
• Injuries in a tendon result in a _______ A. Rupture B. Subluxation
• What is the role of ligaments? A. Connect bones to bones B. Connects ...
• Ligaments are very high tensile strength, inelastic and flexible A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Immobilize A. Structure where two or more bones are joined. B. Excessive stretching ...
• The result of force to the body that causes injury without penetrating the soft tissues. ...
• In blunt abdominal trauma, the incidence of blunt bowel and mesenteric injuries is frequent. ...
• The most common life-threatening event in a rollover crash is: A. ejection or partial ...
• All the following are part of the musculoskeletal system except: A. bones B. ...
• A 35-year-old male suffers a burn injury to his right upper extremity, with areas appearing ...
• If a patient’s injured leg appears shorter than the other, an EMR should suspect: ...
• Which is the correct technique to react for nosebleeds ...
• Vomited blood: A. Melena B. Hematemesis C. Hemoptysis D. Epistaxis ...
• the 5 types of vehicular crashes are: frontal, rear-end, lateral, rollover, and A. Diagonal ...
• The best way to give first aid to a person with head injury is by ...
• Direct pressure to a wound is not controlling the bleeding, what should you do? ...
• The Platinum 10 refers to: A. the amount of time it should take to ...
• Your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries. A. Mechanism of ...
• Which ONE is a wrong technique for the first aid of small burn? A. ...
• The splints that are most commonly used to immobilize joint injuries in the position found ...
• The splint best suited for easing pain of muscle spasm associated with fractures of the ...
• Open fractures A. Fracture that leaves the skin unbroken. B. The gradual weakening ...
• In an explosion, people are injured by flying debris; what type of injuries have they ...
• The Basal Ganglia are structures important for: A. Homeostasis B. Cognition C. ...
• What is the name of the red portion of ...
• Which brain part helps regulate body temp., controls water balance, and regulates metabolism? A. ...
• What part of the brain plays a role with emotion and survival instincts? A. ...
• Identify the structure in green. A. cerebrum ...
• What is the name of the blue colored portion ...
• Which brain part provides involuntary coordination of body movements? A. Cerebellum B. Frontal ...
• The Brain and Spinal Cord make up what? A. The Central Nervous System ...
• Identify the structure in green. A. brainstem ...
• What part of the brain is important for taking information from working memory and converting ...
• What type of neurons are damaged in Parkinson's Disease? A. Glutamatergic Neurons B. ...
• Muscle contraction in a shortened position A. Isometric B. Isotonic C. Concentric ...
• Opposing force to the patient's movement is what? A. Resistance B. Timing ...
• Muscle contraction in which movement occurs at the joint A. Isometric B. Isotonic ...
• What stimulates the activity of muscle spindle A. Stretch B. Strength C. ...
• What does the F in PNF stand for? A. Facility B. Facilitation ...
• Which of the following about verbal stimulation is false? A. The volume with which ...
• A muscle that opposes movement at a joint is called a what? A. Antagonist ...
• Which of the following is NOT a use of PNF A. Strength B. ...
• A muscle that causes movement to occur through it's own action is what? A. ...
• Muscle contraction that results in no joint movement but muscle is still working A. ...
• What is the elongation of the or an extremity A. Stretch B. Strength ...
• What does the N in PNF stand for? A. Nonsense B. Neuromuscular ...
• Why is body position and body mechanics important in PNF? A. So the athlete ...
• What does the P in PNF stand for A. Property B. Proportion ...
• Muscle contraction when the muscle is in a lengthened position A. Isometric B. ...
• isotonic contraction of the agonist followed immediately by an isotonic contraction of the antagonist ...
• Which PNF stretch is effective when ROM is limited by muscle tightness? A. Contract-relax ...
• Uses an isometric contraction of the agonist, followed by an isometric contraction of the antagonist ...
• What is the correct order for verbal stimulation? A. Preparation, correction, action B. ...
• Which of the following lobes of the cerebellum does not exist? A. anterior lobe ...
• Name the green line A. parieto-occpital fissure ...
• This structure is the auditory reflex center A. inferior peduncles B. cauda equina ...
• Name the yellow line A. lateral sulcus ...
• Identify #3 A. Medulla B. ...
• Which of the following structures is involved in motivation and reward? A. amygdala ...
• This structure contains the corpora quadrigemina A. pons B. thalamus C. medulla ...
• True or False: cerebellar dysfunction/damage typically leads to motor weakness and paralysis A. TRUE ...
• The cerebellum is divided into how how many lobes? A. 2 B. 3 ...
• what is the named of the outermost layer of the meninges? A. dura mater ...
• The finger to nose test is a good assessment for ___ damage A. caudate ...
• Identify #1 A. Midbrain B. ...
• Which of the following structures is involved in error recognition in one's behaviors? A. ...
• This structure is visual reflex center A. superior colliculi B. cauda equina ...
• Pyramidal decussation occurs where? A. Medulla B. Pons C. Forebrain D. ...
• This structure plays a vital role in deciding which sensory signals should be processed or ...
• Locus Coeruleus is located here and this structure plays a role in movement. Damage here ...
• This structure attaches the cerebrum to the brainstem A. Cerebellar peduncles B. Red ...
• Neuromarketing A. look for insight into consumers motivations, feelings and decisio B. the ...
• the motor cortex controls A. Emotion B. Movement C. Sensation D. ...
• amygdala volume can predict A. Non aggressive responses B. Aggressive behaviour C. ...
• G...... are inherited from parents A. Good taste B. Genes C. God ...
• People that produce fluent speech which is often bizarre and disconnected from their surroundings have ...
• Traits that were at one time adaptive in a certain environment are now maladaptive. ...
• Neurotransmitters A. Small gaps in the brain B. chemical messenger C. Synapic ...
• Broca's aphasia: Autopsies revealed damage to A. In the left hemisphere B. In ...
• A region of the brain which plays an important role in higher cognitive functions ...
• The CNS is made up of the A. Heart Liver and Lungs B. ...
• speech production is localised to A. Broca's area B. Wernicke’s areas C. ...
• fMRI EEG and eye tracking are A. unreliable tools B. tools used to ...
• The somatosensory cortex controls A. controls heart rate B. Sleep C. controls ...
• SRY gene is found on the A. X chromosome B. Y chromosome ...
• Neuroanatomy A. the structure of the nervous system, including the brain. B. the ...
• At about 6 weeks the SRY gene does what ? A. causes the embryo ...
• Messages are sent around the brain and body via A. Blood B. Sensation ...
• The gene linked to the inheritance of aggression is A. SKY Gene B. ...
• Total brain volume is greater in A. Women B. Men C. Zombies ...
• Phenotypes are A. Your actual genetic makeup B. Your unique sexual characteristics ...
• The MAOA gene makes people more A. Jumpy B. Sexy C. Aggressive ...
• The brains outer layer is called A. The Cortex B. grey matter ...
• Neurons are separated by a tiny gap called A. Neuron B. synaptic cleft ...
• gender refers to A. Your biology B. socially constructed roles
• Neurochemistry is A. chemical processes that occur within the brain B. Hormonal processes ...
• According to the biological approach thoughts, feelings and behaviour are all controlled by ...b ............... ...
• 5-HIAA (a serotonin related chemical) is A. significantly lower in violent criminals B. ...
• The thalamus is bigger in A. Men B. women C. Dolphins ...
• A persons Genotype is A. Their actual genetic makeup B. The effect of ...
• Brain scans reveal high levels of amygdala activity when individuals A. Saw people fighting ...
• differences can be seen in the brains of adult men and women A. TRUE ...
• Which philosopher was a student of Socrates? A. Plato B. Aristotle C. ...
• Plato was a student to which philosopher? A. Aristotle B. Xenophon ...
• Who was the philosopher that taught by asking questions? A. Plato B. Socrates ...
• Name the form of government that recognizes God or a divine being as the ultimate ...
• What makes a bad decision bad? A question that falls under the branch of Philosophy ...
• What are responsibilities? A. things you are expected to do B. a person ...
• Questions related to Beauty and Taste A. Ethics B. Aesthetics C. Axiology ...
• As sole leader of North Korea, Kim Jong Un has total, oppressive control over his ...
• An Autocracy is when: A. People participate in the running of their own government ...
• The study of Truth or Knowledge A. Epistemology B. Ecclesiology C. Ethnography ...
• This form of government exists when a single ruler has absolute control over people'd lives: ...
• Questions related to Universe A. Epistemology B. Theodicy C. Cosmology D. ...
• The reality that exists outside our human experience. A. physics B. mathematics ...
• Metaphysics derived from the Greek ___ A. Physics B. Meta Ta Physika ...
• This form of government means rule by the people. A. Democracy B. Monarchy ...
• Questions related to Truth and Knowledge A. Epistemology B. Theodicy C. Cosmology ...
• This branch of philosophy studies the concept of knowledge.  A. Metaphysics B. Empiricism  ...
• What is a citizen? A. things you are expected to do B. a ...
• What are rights? A. things you are expected to do B. a person ...
• It is the philosophy that characterize all those practices and institutions that are concerned with ...
• Confucius's ideas were put into a book called.... A. The Analects B. The ...
• Monarchy A. Ruled by Kings and Queens. B. A form of government which ...
• What did Confucius teach A. money B. beliefs C. how to live ...
• Philosophy comes from the two Greek words philo meaning “love” or “friendship” and sophia meaning ...
• Who was Confucius? A. the founder of Legalism B. the founder of Hinduism ...
• Which philosopher started an Academy in Greece? A. Aristotle B. Socrates C. ...
• The Queen of England does not have total control. She shares her power with Parliament, ...
• the study of knowledge, truth, and the nature of ultimate reality.  A. Philosophy  ...
• Which form of government is governed by a King or Queen? A. Anarchy ...
• Dictatorship A. Government owns all businesses and farms and provides its people healthcare, education, ...
• Questions related to Reasoning A. Ethics B. Aesthetics C. Axiology D. ...
• Philosophy comes from the Greek philosophia, meaning what? A. Lover of philosophy B. ...
• These laws include a wide range of subjects such as personal injury, divorce, taxes, property, ...
• The reality that exists outside our human experience A. physics B. mathematics ...
• Oligarchy A. A form of government which consists of rule by an elite group ...
• Which philosopher was known as the greatest scientist of the ancient world? A. Socrates ...
• What is a law? A. things you are expected to do B. a ...
• What is the study of bacteria? A. Embryology B. Physiology C. Bacteriology ...
• What is the study of classifying living things? A. Pathology B. Bacteriology ...
• What do we call the study of changes of organisms over time? A. Histology ...
• What is the study of the relationship between organisms and their environment? A. Genetics ...
• A. Microbiology B. Genetics C. Evolution D. Anatomy
• What is the study of insects? A. Oncology B. Physiology C. Virology ...
• What is the study of embryo development? A. Ecology B. Icthiology C. ...
• An expert in the field of zoology is called ___________. A. Zoologist B. ...
• What is the study of small living things A. Genetics B. Marine Biology ...
• The science that deals with the composition, properties, reactions, and the structure of matter. ...
• What is the study of the functions of living thing? A. Physiology B. ...
• The science of the forms of life that existed in prehistoric or geologic periods. ...
• What is the study of the structure of living things A. Anatomy B. ...
• What is the study of animals? A. Herpetology B. Ecology C. Zoology ...
• What is the study of plants? A. Botany B. Zoology C. Ornithology ...
• What is the study of animal and plant tissue? A. Histology B. Marine ...
• What is the longest stage of the cell cycle called? A. Cytokinesis B. ...
• An abnormal mass of cancer cells is called a  A. tumor B. cyst ...
• In mitosis, the two resulting cells are A. different from the starting cell and ...
• Non dividing state of the cell cycle A. Interphase B. Mitosis C. ...
• Identify the Cell Cycle Stage. A. Anaphase ...
• Identify the Cell Cycle Stage. A. Cytokinesis ...
• Uncontrolled growth can result in: A. G0 phase B. S phase C. ...
• Identify the Cell Cycle Stage. A. Anaphase ...
• Identify the Cell Cycle Stage. A. Interphase ...
• Chromosomes are visible and spindle fibers start to appear A. prophase B. metaphase ...
• The correct sequence of mitosis: A. metaphase, anaphase, telophase, prophase B. prophase, metaphase, ...
• Asexual reproduction will result in A. Identical offspring to the parent B. Twins ...
• Cancer creates abnormal cells by disrupting A. the cell cycle B. red blood ...
• Put the following actions in order: DNA replicates, cell grows, cell divides, cell prepares for ...
• Which type of tumor is being described below: Spreads Dangerous Grows quickly _ A. ...
• Sister Chromatids separate from each other A. prophase B. telophase C. anaphase ...
• A diagnostic procedure that involves removing a tissue sample from a patient. A. biopsy ...
• What is cancer? A. The heart does not receive enough blood. B. Sudden ...
• Chromosomes line along the center of the cell A. anaphase B. prophase ...
• Responsible for carrying instructions for growth, development and reproduction. A. Cancer B. DNA ...
• The phase in mitosis where chromosomes move away and are pulled apart by spindles to ...
• The division of the cytoplasm is called? A. anaphase B. mitosis C. ...
• Hypoventilation A. breathing pattern is too fast B. breathing pattern is fast then ...
• bradypenia A. absence of breathing B. slow breathing C. fast breathing ...
• Rhinoritis A. inflammation of the lungs B. inflammation of the nose C. ...
• The general term used to describe a group of respiratory conditions characterized by chronic airflow ...
• Dr. Doolittle discovers that his patient has an inflammation of the lungs. He records this ...
• to breathe A. pulmon/o B. spir/o C. sinus/o D. trache/o ...
• The test on arterial blood to determine oxygen, carbon dioxide, and pH levels. A. ...
• Eupenia is....... A. no breathing B. fast breathing C. normal breathing ...
• bleeding of the larnyx A. larnygorrhagia B. laryngitis C. laryngrrhea D. ...
• surgical opening of the trachea A. tracheotomy B. tracheorrhagia C. thoracotomy ...
• labored or difficult breathing A. dyspnea B. hypernea C. hypoventilation D. ...
• If someone has dyspenia - A. they have fast breathing B. they have ...
• identifies which antibiotic will provide the most effective treatment A. auscultation B. percussion ...
• paralysis of the wall of the bronchi A. bronchorrhagia B. bronchorrhea C. ...
• pyothorax A. infection of the pyo B. puss in the chest C. ...
• increased tissue spaces caused by destruction of alveoli A. pneumonia B. emphasema ...
• What is the incision of the chest? A. tracheotomy B. mediastinoscopy C. ...
• -ectasis A. process of recording B. stretching out or dialation C. breathing ...
• What is the term for without breathing? A. Asphyxia B. Apnea C. ...
• The term meaning an abnormal discharge from the pharynx: A. Pharyngorrhea B. Phlegm ...
• Aspiration would mean A. having good breathing B. removal of something from airways ...
• cyanosis A. someone is dead B. someone is breathing wrong C. someone ...
• meaning chest A. pulmon/o B. thorac/o C. trache/o D. spir/o
• You have a horrible sore throat (inflammation) of the larynx and the pharynx A. ...
• The term meaning the abnormal narrowing of the lumen of the trachea is: A. ...
• pharyngitis A. inflammation of the pharnyx B. infection of the pharnyx C. ...
• A disorder of the lungs called ____ causes the bronchi to become restricted (get smaller) ...
• meaning lung A. pulmon/o B. spir/o C. sinus/o D. thorac/o
• What is tachypnea? A. excessively fast breathing B. excessively fast heartbeat C. ...
• a specialist of the lungs A. pharyngologist B. laryngology C. pulmonology ...
• surgical repair of a bronchial defect A. bronchoplasty B. bronchoscopy C. bronchostenosis ...
• Dr. McSteamy's examination revealed that Clara Barton has an accumulation of blood in the pleural ...
• Transcription takes place in the  A. cytoplasm B. chloroplast C. nucleus ...
• The synthesis of a new strand of DNA ... A. starts at an operator ...
• Which of the following is a palindromic sequence? A. GGCCCG B. AATGGC ...
• HISTORY: Performed an experiment with Bacteriophage viruses that proved DNA was the genetic material ...
• The process of using an mRNA to make a protein is called A. Replication ...
• Which of the following enzymes is NOT needed in replication? A. DNA ligase ...
• HISTORY: Discovered that A and T bond together and C and G bond together... ...
• A mutation leading to an early 'stop' codon is a ... A. frameshift mutation ...
• A codon is to mRNA as an anti-codon is to ... A. DNA ...
• STRUCTURE: What Nitrogenous Base does RNA contain that DNA does not? A. Thymine ...
• Translation occurs in the: A. office B. cytoplasm C. nucleus D. ...
• This is A. tRNA B. ...
• Which of the following is not a post-transcriptional modification of mRNA? A. addition of ...
• The process of making an mRNA strand from a DNA template is called A. ...
• The two strands in a DNA molecule are held together by ... A. hydrogen ...
• Which piece of genetic material is double-stranded? A. DNA B. mRNA C. ...
• What mutation has occurred here? T-G-A-C-C-A T-G-A-G-C-A A. Substitution B. Deletion ...
• A DNA molecule made from 2 different sources is called ... A. recombinant DNA ...
• STRUCTURE: Nucleotides monomers are made up of a sugar, ...
• HISTORY: Discovered Bacterial Transformation A. Fredrick Griffeth B. Erwin Chargaff C. Rosalind ...
• What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA? ...
• HISTORY: Took the X-Ray crystallography photographs that revealed that DNA is a Double Helix ...
• In gel electrophoresis .... A.  15N is needed to weigh down the DNA samples ...
• Adenine bonds with ______________. A. Guanine B. Thymine C. Cytosine D. ...
• The replication of DNA is... A. conservative B. dispersive C. semi-conservative ...
• Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand ATG TGA CAG ...
• Since most amino acids are encoded for by more than one codon, the genetic code ...
• A type of substitution in which no  amino acids change is called  A. Missense ...
• STRUCTURE: Which 2 molecules form the sides of the DNA ladder? A. deoxyribose and ...
• Meselsohn and Stahl's experiment showed that... A. DNA is the hereditary material B. ...
• Any change in the sequence of DNA is... A. transgenic shift B. Single ...
• ATTTGAGCC- Original ATTGAGCC - Mutated The example above is an example of a ...
• A small circular piece of DNA found in bacteria are called ... A. recombinants ...
• Identify connective tissue structure. A. anterior cruciate ...
• Identify connective tissue structure indicated by the arrow. ...
• What is the function of the synovial membrane in synovial joints? A. Acts as ...
• What is the function of synovial fluid in ...
• What joint is displayed in the picture? ...
• What is the function of articular (hyaline) cartilage ...
• Identify the joint action being performed. A. ...
• Where is a plane (gliding) joint located? ...
• Identify the joint action being performed. A. ...
• What structures provide cushion between the femur and tibia? A. ligaments B. tendons ...
• Name this joint. This is the joint between the ...
• This type of joint between the proximal phalange ...
• Identify the joint action being performed. A. ...
• Identify connective tissue structure. A. anterior cruciate ...
• Identify the joint action being performed. A. ...
• Name this joint A. gliding ...
• What type of joint is displayed in the picture? ...
• What type of joint is displayed in the picture? ...
• What type of joint is displayed in the picture? ...
• Circumduction is a combination of... A. ...
• Identify the joint action being performed. A. ...
• The joints between the carpals (wrist) and tarsals ...
• The elbows, knees and in between the phalanges are examples of this type of joint: ...
• The following is NOT one of the 3 major joint classifications? A. Cartilaginous ...
• Fibrous joints are? A. freely moveable B. partially moveable C. immovable
• Identify connective tissue structure. A. anterior cruciate ...
• The joints that allow the most movement are called A. Fixed B. Fibrous ...
• Identify connective tissue structure. A. medial meniscus ...
• When David Beckham kicks a soccer ball the movement ...
• An example of a saddle joint is the: A. knee B. hip ...
• This type of joint allows the first two ...
• Which of these UV or LED gels cannot be removed with a solvent? A. ...
• A chemical called ______________ initiates the polymerization reaction. A. a chemoinitiator B. an ...
• Nail-size pieces of cloth or paper that are bonded to the top of the nail ...
• The product used to remove moisture and oil from the surface of the nail is ...
• _____ are an alternative when a hand washing station is not available, but should not ...
• Viscosity is the measurement of the ________________ of a liquid and how the fluid flows. ...
• Nail tips are applied for the purpose of:  A. repairing a damaged nail  ...
• A _____ abrasive is used for finish filing, refining, and buffing. A. Coarse grit ...
• When applying nail enhancements, surface moisture and natural oils left on the nail plate will ...
• Gel polish _________________. A. thickens over time B. thins out over time ...
• After the nail plate is properly prepared for a light cured gel application, each layer ...
• If a client has flat fingernails, which type of product would be recommended? A. ...
• As monomer liquid absorbs polymer powder, the chemical interaction produces a small ______. A. ...
• Which product removes surface moisture and tiny amounts of oil left on the natural nail ...
• A very thin synthetic mesh with a loose weave is: A. linen B. ...
• Introducing air into the gel as you apply it to the fingernail will ________________. ...
• Which of these products is used to increase adhesion of UV or LED gels to ...
• The tacky surface left on the nail after a UV or LED gel has cured ...
• Polymer powder is made using a special chemical reaction called _____, also known as curing ...
• An implement designed especially for use on nail tips is called a:  A. nail ...
• When lightly tapped with the handle of the brush, hard nail enhancements make _____. ...
• What is formed by combining many small molecules (monomers) into very long, chain like structures? ...
• The amount of polymer powder and liquid monomer used to create a product bead is ...
• The amount of colored pigment concentration in a gel is called ______________. A. viscosity ...
• A layer of any kind of nail enhancement product that is applied over the tips ...
• In a nail tip application, an abrasive is used to: A. attach the tip ...
• When gel polish is finished curing, a ______________ can be applied over it to create ...
• A ________________ is recommended to refine the surface contour for UV or LED gel nails. ...
• Light cured gels are usually packaged in opaque pots or ______________. A. glass jars ...
• The ____ serves as the point of contact with the nail plate. A. nail ...
• A thin, natural material with a tight weave that becomes transparent when adhesive is applied ...
• Monomer liquid and polymer powder should be stored separately in covered containers in _________. ...
• _____ are created when nail art is sandwiched between two layers of product while the ...
• During a gel procedure, keep the brush and open gel containers away from sunlight, gel ...
• A(n) _____________ is a short chain of monomer liquids that is often thick, sticky, and ...
• A tip is very weak without the addition of a/an: A. well B. ...
• The bonding agent used to secure the nail tip to the natural nail is: ...
• Damage to the natural nail can be reduced when applying nail tips by: A. ...
• Which of these is a thick-viscosity resin that allows the cosmetologist to build an arch ...
• What is the most common UV bulb on the market? A. Four-watt B. ...
• Light cured gels ____________. A. have a strong odor B. do not file ...
• Sculptured nails are created by combining monomer liquid with _________. A. Polymer adhesive ...
• A thin, elongated board with a rough surface is called a/an: A. abrasive ...
• The _______, also known as the arch, is the area of the nail with the ...
• A _____ is a buffer used to create high shine on a natural nail or ...
• Nail tips are attached to the nail plates by using a: A. cotton-tipped wooden ...
• A _____ abrasive is used for initial shaping of the perimeter of the nail, refining ...
• There are many names for glossing gels, but they do not include which of the ...
• An artificial nail made of ABS plastic that is adhered to the natural nail to ...
• Different bulbs produce greatly differing amounts of UV and LED light. This is referred to ...
• Which type of gel is also known as a soakable gel? A. Building gel ...
• Softened nail tips are removed by: A. rubbing them off B. nipping them ...
• If a light unit has four bulbs in it, and each bulb is 9-watts, then ...
• When using the brush to shape the enhancement on the free edge area, use ______. ...
• Most LED lamps cure gel about four times faster than UV lamps. What do the ...
• The ingredients in two-part monomer liquid and polymer enhancement systems belong to a branch of ...
• Natural oil and shine are removed from the nail plate with: A. antibacterial soap ...
• The initiator added to polymer powder to start the chain reaction of curing the nail ...
• What term describes any art or design that protrudes from the nail? A. 2-D ...
• What are preformed nail extensions made from ABS or tenite plastic? A. Nail forms ...
• A very thin-viscosity gel that is used as an alternative to traditional nail lacquers is ...
• _____ primers were developed because acid-based nail primer is corrosive to the skin and potentially ...
• The thickest nails adhesives that require more drying time are:  A. gels  B. ...
• A closely woven, heavy material used for a nail wrap is: A. silk ...
• A specialized acrylic monomer that has excellent adhesion to the natural nail place and polymerizes ...
• Which two leads are monitored simultaneously in perioperative period? A. Lead V5 followed by V4 ...
• Which of the following has no coronary vasodilating potential? A. Nitrates B. Verapamil C. Dihydropyridines ...
• Coronary perfusion pressure is... A. Arterial diastolic pressure minus left-ventricular end diastolic pressure B. Arterial ...
• What dose of protamine sulfate would be appropriate to reverse 5, 000 units of heparin? ...
• What should the activated clotting time be prior to initiation o cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) ...
• What dose of Protamine is used to reverse the effect of heparin? A. 4 mg/100 ...
• Which of the following monitors is started post-induction in CABG? A. Temperature B. CVP ...
• Which of the following inhalational agents causes the least coronary vasodilation? A. Halothane B. Isoflurane ...
• At what point on the cardiac pressure–volume loop shown in Figure 9.3 can preload be ...
• The systolic components of the arterial pressure waveform follow which ECG wave? A. P wave ...
• All of the following monitoring are used in CABG except A. BIS B. CVP ...
• Diastolic arrest for myocardial preservation during CABG is known as: A. Cardioplegia B. Retrograde perfusio ...
• The only clinically proven method to reduce the risk of perioperative myocardial infarction (MI) and ...
• What medicine is routinely given to reverse the effect of heparin? A. Fresh frozen plasma ...
• Medico obstetra A. Dermathologyst B. Obstetrician C. Dentist
• Psiquiatra A. Veterinarian B. psyquiatrist C. Dermathologyst
• Oftalmologo A. Dermathologyst B. Oftalmologyst C. General practitioner
• Reumatologo A. Dermathologyst B. Rheumathologyst C. Surgeon
• Urologo A. Surgeon B. Urologyst C. Dermathologyst
• Medico general A. Dermathologyst B. General doctor C. Ofthalmologyst
• Cardiologo A. Cardiologist B. Veterinarian C. Dermatologyst
• Radiologo A. Dermathologyst B. Radiologyst C. Veterinarian
• Pediatra A. Dermhatologyst B. Neurologyst C. Pediatrician
• Neurologo A. Dermathologyst B. Neurologyst C. Dentist
• Dermatologo A. Dentist B. Dermatologyst C. Veterinarian
• Epidemiologo A. Cardiologyst B. Epidemiologyst C. Surgeon
• Veterinario A. Dermathologyst B. Oftalmologyst C. Veterinarian
• Cirujano A. Surgeon B. Veterinarian C. Pediatrician
• Ginecologo A. Gynecologyst B. Dermsthologyst C. Surgeon
• Where can you buy a hammer? At the A. newsagent's B. plumber C. DIY shop ...
• Reklama in English is a ...... A. brand B. flyers C. advertisement D. catchy slogan ...
• Okazja in English is a ...... A. discount B. order C. bargain D. refund
• Where can you buy some medicine? At the A. butcher's B. newsagent's C. plumber ...
• zniżkZ in English is a ...... A. discount B. bargain C. order D. refund
• Can I pay ..... cash? A. on B. in C. by D. with
• skąłdać reklamację in English is a ...... A. take a refund B. make a complaint ...
• We don't accept cash. You have to pay ..... credit card A. with B. on ...
• I would like to try this derss on. Where is the......? A. real bargain ...
• Where can you buy some meat? At the A. baker's B. butcher's C. plumber ...
• Where can you buy a necklace? At the A. chemist's B. jeweller's C. plumber ...
• Where can you buy some newspapers? At the A. butcher's B. chemist's C. DIY shop ...
• Rachunek in English is a ...... A. recipe B. prescription C. refund D. receipt ...
• Phone me when you ............................ time. A. have B. will have C. would have
• She ____ her entire childhood in the woods. A. will be B. spent C. spend ...
• You ........................... an accident if you go on driving like that. A. are having ...
• Choose the correct sentence. A. When I woke up, he has already ...
• “Monica __________ since last week.” (plan) A. is planning B. ...
• Shruti ______ to study now. A. going B. is going C. has
• I .............................. all my childhood in South India. A. spend B. spent C. spending
• The judge ____ his verdict.(a). announced(b). announce(c). is announce A. announced B. anounces C. is ...
• Back in my native place, I __________ a smartphone. A. did not ...
• Choose the past perfect continuous tense form of the sentence. “The children played in ...
• She said that she ....................... help me. A. will B. would C. might be ...
• Try this dessert and let me know how it _____. A. will taste B. was ...
• The phone ......................... while I was having a bath. A. rings B. rang C. was ...
• The policeman ____ him. A. rescued B. was rescued C. rescue
• Identify the tense used in the sentence. “Nick has purchased a new laptop.” ...
• The climate in our city ____ warmer.(a). become(b). is becoming(c). was become A. became ...
• This time tomorrow, I ............................... on the beach. A. am lying B. will lie ...
• When Diya got the call, she _____ in her office. A. work B. will be ...
• The news __________ not updated timely.
• I will follow you wherever you ........................... A. go B. going C. went
• Which tense is used to express that an action started in the past and ...
• At this time tomorrow, Jason ____ in Paris. A. will be B. was C. were ...
• When you phoned, I ................................. in the garage. A. worked B. am working C. was ...
• The mobile ____ twice before I picked it up. A. was ringing B. rang ...
• I __________ the medicine as prescribed by the doctor for a week now. A ...
• The queen bee in a hive is the only female who lays __________. ...
• The bee is the only insect that can __________________. A. live in ...
• How many queen bees are in each hive? A. 20 ...
• After the pupa stage is... A. the larva stage B. ...
• All Drones are Male? A. Sometimes B. Yes and ...
• What color stripes do Honey Bees have? A. ...
• In the hive, bees live like a ______. A. insect ...
• Which honeybee is male and fertilized the eggs? A. queen ...
• The eggs look... A. fat and red B. long and ...
• The queen bee in a hive is the only female who lays __________. ...
• The queen has only one responsibility: A. eating larva ...
• What are the 3 types of bees? A. drone, worker and king ...
• A hive has the queen the drones and... A. the black bees ...
• Honeybees are .... A. robots B. mammals ...
• Who feeds the larva? A. the queen bee B. the ...
• This comes out of the egg. A. the adult B. ...
• What does the queen eat? A. nectar B. pollen ...
• Where can we find the bee hive? A. We can find the ...
• Micronutrients are: A. nutrients used in small amounts B. nutrients used in large amounts ...
• micronutrients we need A. vitamins a, vitamins b and vitamins c B. fat, protein and ...
• What are the different types of nutrition? A. Carbohydrates, Protein and fats ...
• Should we grow our own food? A. Yes B. No
• What is nutrition? A. the processes of eating foods necessary for health ...
• Micronutrients are nutrients A. Vital for correct body function B. Important for development C. Needed ...
• Macronutrients are measured in Grams A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Why do we need macronutrients? A. To assist the digestive system ...
• What are the three macronutrients? A. carbs, vitamins, proteins B. ...
• Macronutrients make up most of your daily diet A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Macronutrients are nutrients we use in large amounts A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What are some positive outcomes of good nutrition? A. Improved ability to ...
• The main difference between macro-and micronutrients is: A. The amount of the nutrient needed by ...
• What food is more organic? A. Fruit B. Fish C. Chicken D. meat
• Micronutrients consist of. A. Vitamins B. Lipids C. Minerals D. Proteins
• The organic food industry includes A. processes, manufacturers and exporters B. growers C. retailers and ...
• The nutrition facts panel on food labels include the number of calories per serving. ...
• What is an example of organic food? A. An egg from a hen farm that ...
• Industrial food produces more pollution than organic food because....... A. Organic food has more pollution. ...
• What is the Definition of Nutrition? A. The process of providing the ...
• Which department of the laboratory performs H&H tests? A. Hematology B. Chemistry C. Immunology
• When a medical assistant obtains a capillary blood sample, it is important that he or ...
• Troponin is a component of a(n) ________ panel. A. electrolyte B. cardiac C. liver
• Blood type O is considered the “universal donor, ” because no anti-A or anti-B antibodies ...
• Which is the proper technique for performing a venipuncture? A. The needle bevel is face ...
• which order listed below follows the CLSI standards? A. Yellow, red, then green B. Light ...
• _________________ results in leaving a tourniquet tied on the patient's arm for longer than the ...
• B cells produce specific antibodies against a particular antigen. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The Vacutainer tube with a marbled red-gray top contains silica particles to enhance clotting and ...
• ______________vacutainer tubes are routinely used for hematology testing A. Green topped B. Lavender topped ...
• Which of the following tests measures the time it takes blood to form a fibrin ...
• Platelets A. are fragments of a larger cell called a megakaryocyte B. ...
• A hematocrit reading of 37 indicates _____________ A. RBCs account for 63% of the total ...
• _________ is a device used for dermal puncture A. butterfly B. Vacutainer C. lancet
• ___________ is the slant at the open end of a needle used for venipuncture ...
• Using capillary blood from a finger, the Cholestech LDX analyzer is capable of measuring which ...
• ______________ is the part of the venipuncture needle that fits into the syringe or Vacutainer ...
• The name used to describe an immature neutrophil. A. Band B. Eosinophil C. Megakaryocyte
• Which part of the brain controls senses, thinking, and memory? A. cerebrum B. cerebellum ...
• A condition caused by sudden movement of the brain, where the brain hits the skull ...
• True or False: the right side of the brain controls the right side of your ...
• Someone who is right-brained is considered to be more... A. logical B. creative
• What structure is grey in this picture. It controls conscious thought and memory?
• What type of cell gathers and carries information? A. Nerve Ending B. Sense Organ ...
• Which of the following is NOT a sense? A. hearing B. nose C. smell ...
• #1 is pointing to the... A. cerebrum B. ...
• What structure is bright blue and located at bottom of the brain and controls the ...
• What sense organ is responsible for our sense of touch? A. Ears B. Face ...
• The cerebellum is labeled as #... A. 1 ...
• Someone who is left-brained is considered to be more.... A. logical B. creative
• The ________ is a rope-like bundle of nerves. It is also the main pathway for ...
• What are the three parts of the nervous system? A. brain, spinal cord, nerves ...
• The brain stem/medulla is labeled as #... A. 1 ...
• What bone protects your brain? A. Skull B. Cerebellum C. Cerbrum D. Deltoids
• What is the main function of the nervous system? A. to inhale oxygen and exhale ...
• The _______ send and receive messages from the brain. A. Nerves B. Spinal Cord ...
• Blood cells are formed here: A. Bone Marrow B. Brain C. Heart D. Liver
• Which of the following blood vessels contains blood with the highest concentration of dissolved oxygen? ...
• The iliac vein: A. carries blood away from the pelvic organs and lower abdomen ...
• Which of the following materials would be found in relatively high concentrations at the venous ...
• Select the true statement: A. T cells are produced in the thymus B. B cells ...
• Skeletal muscle contractions account for the flow of blood in: A. veins and arteries ...
• The fetal circulatory system is exactly the same as adult circulatory system. A. TRUE ...
• What part of the body decreases the activity of the SA and AV nodes? ...
• The superior vena cava: A. carries blood from the heart B. delivers blood to the ...
• Select the correct composition of blood: A. 55% plasma,
• What is the difference between the pulmonary vein and all the other veins of an ...
• Arteries carry blood: A. towards the heart B. away from the heart C. in the ...
• We are all born with an innate immunity A. TRUE B. FALSE
• How does the concentration of oxygen in the blood compare in the right ventricle and ...
• The reason we always bleed when we are cut is because: A. Our arteries are ...