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Sitemap 14

• T.B is caused due to the virus Mycobacterium Tuberculosis A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Jan Aushadhi Yojana was established by the Government on A. 1st April 2015 B. 10th ...
• _______ test is used for diagnosis of AIDS A. LFT B. KFT C. ELIZA ...
• Cholera is caused due to A. Bacteria B. Virus C. Fungi D. Algae
• AIDS is contracted by touching an infected person. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Following isn't a symptom of Rabies: A. Fever for 2-12 weeks B. Hydrophobia C. Exaggerated ...
• Rabies occurs due to bite of A. Rabbit B. Monkey C. Dog D. All of ...
• Hormone Insulin is produced by A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Gall Bladder D. Pituitary Gland ...
• AIDS stands for A. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome B. All Inclusive Disorder Syndrome C. Acquired Immune ...
• DEN- (1-4) Viruses belong to the ________ family A. Rhabdoviridae B. Flavivirus C. Paroviridae ...
• Lump of cancerous cells is known as A. Malignant tumour B. Tumour C. Cyst ...
• HIV was first reported in an African species of Monkeys A. TRUE B. FALSE
• There is always some pain with surgery. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Some operations that used to need a large incision can now be done using only ...
• You are discharging your patient home from day surgery after a general anesthetic. What instruction ...
• Most operations are performed because of a medical emergency. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Your patient is in the recovery room following chest surgery. The patient complains of severe ...
• Which of the following is not a skill necessary to become a surgeon? A. Good ...
• One way to reduce the risks from surgery is to choose a surgeon who has ...
• You are doing teaching with a patient who has a leg ulcer. You are teaching ...
• The supply of glucose to the brain must be continuous. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What are the responsibilities of an anesthesiologist? A. Use anesthesia to make a patient unconscious ...
• Is an anesthesiologist required to be present during a procedure? A. Yes B. No ...
• When caring for a client receiving supplemental oxygen through a nasal cannula, the nursing assistant ...
• Which of the following is an essential tool for surgery? A. calculation B. pencil ...
• The most important responsibility a nursing assistant has to a client who has just returned ...
• Some types of operations carry no risks. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Who determines the rate at which the oxygen should be delivered and how it should ...
• The purpose of a pulse oximeter is to _____. A. monitor the oxygen content of ...
• The nursing assistant will immediately report a pulse oximeter reading that is below______. A. 85% ...
• Anesthesia is quite safe for most people. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Why are individuals important in the development of surgery? A. People are interested in people. ...
• Your patient is a 78-year-old male who has had outpatient surgery. You are getting him ...
• Are there side affects to anesthesia? A. No, anesthesia is completely safe B. Yes, but ...
• Surgery generally requires an overnight hospital stay. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Care given during a client's recovery from cardiac bypass surgery will include A. Using a ...
• A pre-operative nurse works in the operating room. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What are the products of cellular respiration? A. oxygen and sugar B. carbon dioxide and ...
• What advantage do sugars provide for an organism’s diet? A. Produce some energy for cells ...
• When an organism oxidizes food, some of the energy is lost. Which best explains this ...
• Which would be most beneficial to an individual suffering from heart disease? A. Eating foods ...
• Which digestive process initiates cellular respiration? A. Eliminating waste B. Filtering out harmful substances ...
• Which best explains how mold is able to grow on an old piece of cheese ...
• Which is most likely the result of a diet high in sugars and fats? ...
• Which combination of foods best provides a healthy and nutritious meal? A. Steak, fries, orange ...
• Which is the primary molecule broken down for energy in cells? A. salt B. water ...
• Which best describes the nutrients that are sources of energy for the body? A. fats ...
• Which type of diet best contributes to a healthy lifestyle? A. A diet high in ...
• Which molecules are most closely linked to heart disease in humans? A. carbohydrates B. fats ...
• Crystal is trying to increase the protein in her diet. Which foods will best satisfy ...
• Which most accurately describes how plants and animals obtain the energy they need for growth ...
• Which best describes the process of photosynthesis? A. Carbon dioxide and oxygen are converted into ...
• Which activity would supply the most oxygen to the body for digestion and respiration? ...
• Which best describes the process by which the energy from the sun is used to ...
• High levels of glucose in the blood may be a symptom of which disease? ...
• What part of the eye is this? A. ...
• What part of the eye is this? A. ...
• This part of the eye focuses light onto the retina.
• The white portion of the eye (In Humans). A. Pupil B. Sclera C. Dyslexia ...
• What part of the eye is this? A. ...
• The pupil is located at the center of the A. sclera B. iris C. retina ...
• What part of the eye is this? A. ...
• What enters the eyes so you can see? A. air B. dust C. light ...
• What part of the eye is this? A. ...
• True or false: The pupil is physical structure. A. True, it is the black circular ...
• Rods are light sensitive cells in the retina that A. give you color vision in ...
• The vitreous humor is A. gel like and gives the eyeball its shape B. watery ...
• Cones are light sensitive cells in the retina that A. give you color vision in ...
• The opening of the eye where light enters ...
• Viruses exhibit all the following except ______. A. shape B. genes C. ability to infect ...
• Spikes are glycoproteins that can be found projecting from the viral capsid. A. TRUE ...
• Viruses are the most common cause of acute infections that do not result in hospitalization. ...
• Viruses mutate, and some viruses have not been discovered. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Prophages can be activated into viral replication and enter the lytic cycle. A. TRUE ...
• What structures are used by bacteriophages to attach to host cell receptors? A. nucleic acids ...
• Persistent viruses that can reactivate periodically are ______. A. cytopathic B. inclusion bodies C. oncoviruses ...
• Viruses are considered ultramicroscopic because they range in size from 2 mm to 450 mm. ...
• Infectious protein particles are called ______. A. spikes B. viroids C. virions D. prions
• Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically called ______. A. viroids B. bacteriophage C. prions ...
• Viruses are used to produce vaccines for prevention of certain viral infections. A. TRUE ...
• Viruses are not filterable. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Host cells of viruses include ______. A. animals B. plants C. bacteria D. all of ...
• Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called ...
• Mammalian viruses capable of starting tumors are ______. A. oncoviruses B. latent C. syncytia ...
• Infectious naked strands of RNA that affect plants are called ______. A. viroids B. virions ...
• Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease is _______. A. a spongiform encephalopathy of humans B. caused by a viroid ...
• Diagnosis of viral infections sometimes involves analyzing the patient's blood for specific _____ that the ...
• A common method for cultivating viruses in the lab is to use in vitro systems ...
• A fully formed virus that can cause an infection in a host cell is called ...
• Hair is an outgrowth on the: A. palms B. soles C. scalp and skin ...
• Hair receives its nourishment from the hair papilla which contains: A. blood vessels B. muscles ...
• The medulla of the hair is found in the: A. center of the hair ...
• The hair cortex is the: A. outer layer B. center layer C. inner (second) layer ...
• The lower part of the bulb is hollowed to fit over the: A. papilla ...
• The two parts of a mature strand of human hair are the __________________. A. dermis ...
• The hair root is that portion of the hair contained within the: A. hair cuticle ...
• At the bottom of the hair follicle is found a small cone-shaped elevation called the ...
• The hair cuticle is the: A. center layer B. outer layer C. second layer ...
• The scientific study of hair, its diseases, and care is called _________________. A. dermatology ...
• Hair follicles are not found on the ___________________. A. forehead area B. backs of the ...
• Hair growth starts in the hair: A. shaft B. bulb C. root D. papilla
• The club-shaped structure forming the lower part of the hair: A. bulb B. shaft ...
• Which of these is NOT a method of cleaning your tools or implements? A. washing ...
• You should wash your hands thoroughly: A. before and after every service B. only after ...
• When cleaning your implements, you should rinse them with: A. warm water B. disinfectant ...
• A state regulatory agency can issue penalties against:​ A. the cosmetologist B. neither the salon ...
• Which type of bacteria cause blood poisoning?​ A. bacilli B. streptococci C. staphylococci D. spirilla ...
• Hospital disinfectants can be used on _____ surfaces in the salon.​ A. nonporous B. neither ...
• ​A fungicidal disinfectant is capable of destroying: A. fungi B. bacteria, fungi and viruses ...
• Which of the following is an example of a single-use item?​ A. permanent wave rod ...
• A(n) _____ uses impellers to circulate water.​ A. air-jet basin B. pipeless foot spa ...
• Which of these is a ringworm fungus of the foot? A. tinea barbae B. folliculitis ...
• What should you do first when preparing to clean and disinfect a basic foot basin?​ ...
• The term _____ refers to colonies of microorganisms that adhere to environmental surfaces, as well ...
• OSHA defines ___ as specialized clothing or equipment worn by an employee for protection against ...
• The term _____ is defined as a chemical process for reducing the number of disease-causing ...
• How does the Circulatory System help the Muscular System? A. Protects muscles B. Sends messages ...
• What 2 systems: Diaphragm controls breathing A. Circulatory and Endocrine B. Respiratory and Muscular ...
• David has diabetes. His sugar level is often rising and lowering. Which body system is ...
• When your body comes in contact with a sharp object, an impulse sent you your ...
• Dialysis is a medical treatment used when a person’s kidneys are no longer able to ...
• What 2 systems: Allow organs to contract and push food through A. Muscular and Skeletal ...
• The circulatory system interacts with the ______ system to remove waste from our blood and ...
• Why is the maintenance of homeostasis important to multicellular organisms? A. They must keep their ...
• Which level of organization is listed correctly from simple to complex? A. Organelle, organ, organ ...
• Organs of this system include the kidneys and bladder A. Digestive B. Excretory C. Immune ...
• The skeletal system interacts with the _____ system when it produces red blood cells.   ...
• Which two body systems interact to send oxygen throughout the body? A. Nervous and Digestive ...
• Which two body systems work together to break down food and get rid of wastes? ...
• Kidneys are part of the urinary system in a human body. They purify the impure ...
• Our brain is a part of our ____ system and it interacts with our muscular ...
• Olympic sprinters undergo increased heart and breathing rates while competing. Which of the following best ...
• The digestive and respiratory rely on the ___ systems to transport needed materials to the ...
• The muscular system interacts with the ____ system because the heart is a muscle and ...
• The digestive and respiratory systems pair together to ... A. bring carbon dioxide and wastes ...
• Which type of muscle tires quickly during exercise? A. skeletal muscle B. breathing muscle ...
• Muscles that you control are known as.... A. Involuntary B. Fast Twitch C. Voluntary ...
• Flexible tissue that covers the ends of your bones at joints is called A. Synovial ...
• Which muscles are involuntary? A. Skeletal B. Smooth C. Cardiac D. smooth and cardiac
• When you walk, muscles in your legs contract and relax. This is a great example ...
• The most important muscle in the body is the A. Bicep B. Tricep C. Heart ...
• Exercise is important for muscles because it A. helps maintain strength and flexibility. B. gives ...
• Muscles always work in _____ A. pairs B. groups of 3 C. bones D. joints ...
• How should you care for your muscular system. Except? A. Exercise regularly. B. Warm-up before ...
• Cardiac muscles are ONLY located in the heart A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Involuntary muscle A. muscle found in the heart B. muscle found in the organs ...
• Which muscle type is found in your stomach, bladder, and intestines? A. Skeletal B. Smooth ...
• When muscles contract, the length of the muscle A. lengthens B. extends C. shortens ...
• What do tendons attach? A. muscles to ligaments B. muscles to other muscles C. muscles ...
• Your Heart beating is an example of what kind of movement? A. Voluntary B. Involuntary ...
• Turning your head to look both ways before crossing the street is what kind of ...
• Your stomach digesting food is an example of what kind of movement? A. Voluntary ...
• A place where two bones meet is called a A. Hip Bone B. Synovial Fluid ...
• Which one is a joint? A. ankle B. femur C. skull D. bicep
• The following is NOT one of the 3 Joint Classifications.. A. Cartilaginous B. Cartilage ...
• Examples of a Ball & Socket Joint are found in the A. Shoulder B. Knee ...
• True or False: muscles and bones work together to move your body. A. TRUE ...
• Hip and shoulder have examples of this type of joint A. ball and socket ...
• A hinge joint allows A. A wide range of movements B. Circumduction C. Rotation ...
• When kicking a football the knee A. Flexes B. Extends C. Abducts D. Adducts
• The joint in your knees is most similar to: A. The pendulum in a grandfather ...
• This type of joint allows the your first two vertebrate to rotate as in shaking ...
• Which type of joint gives you the largest range of motion? A. Pivot joint ...
• The elbows, knees and phalanges are examples of this type of joint A. ball and ...
• What is the slippery surface that cover the bones? ...
• Carpals and tarsals (flat bones) are examples of this type of joint A. condyloid ...
• The main purpose of synovial fluid is: A. Keeping bones moist B. Lubrication C. Strengthening ...
• What might happen if you snapped or tore one of your ligaments? A. Your joints ...
• which vessel has the highest resistance A. Vena cava B. Pulmonary vein C. Pulmonary artery ...
• which statement applies to living organisms living at high altitudes A. their HB has Lower ...
• the Blood vessel with the highest pressure is the A. pulmonary artery B. Aorta ...
• Which one of these molecules has the highest Affinity A. HB A B. HB F ...
• Thromboplastin catalyzes the conversion of A. Fibrin to fibrinogen B. Prothrombin to thrombin C. Thrombin ...
• Hydrogen Carbonate diffuses out of the RBC and is exchanged for A. chloride B. Sodium ...
• which statement about BOHR effect is true A. Explains the higher release of oxygen at ...
• Veins are A. vessels carrying oxygenated blood at high pressure B. vessels carrying deoxygenated blood ...
• Myocardial infarction happens when A. the carotid artery is blocked B. the heart gets deprived ...
• what perfectly describes an Embolus A. Blood clot forming in an artery B. an unattached ...
• What starts Atherosclerosis A. Thrombus B. Endothelial dysfunction C. Plaque formation D. No idea
• Most of the carbon dioxide returns back into the blood in the form of ...
• The Semi Lunar valves opens when A. the pressure in the ventricle becomes lower than ...
• Located deep in the temporal lobe; responsible for memory and learning. A. Hypothalamus B. Hippocampus ...
• Part of the frontal lobe responsible for speech production. Anterior to the motor cortex. ...
• Lobe of the cerebrum responsible for receiving and interpreting sensory information. Posterior to the frontal ...
• Part of the parietal lobe responsible for coordinating and processing information about touch, pain, and ...
• Responsible for your sense of smell. Located inferior to the frontal lobe and anterior to ...
• Lobe of the cerebrum responsible for processing auditory (sound) information and encoding long term memories. ...
• Responsible for feelings of hunger and thirst, regulates heart rate, and maintains stable body temperature. ...
• Responsible for emotional responses, especially those related to survival, as well as long term memory. ...
• Part of the cerebrum responsible for reasoning, logic, facial movement, and higher level thinking. ...
• Part of the temporal lobe responsible for understanding speech. Sometimes called the language center. ...
• Part of the brain stem responsible for eye movement and auditory and visual processing. ...
• All four lobes of the brain A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum C. Brain stem D. Cranium ...
• Controls balance, walking, and standing. Posterior to the temporal lobe and inferior to the occipital ...
• Part of the frontal lobe responsible for coordinating and controlling voluntary movements. A. Wernicke's area ...
• Lobe of the cerebrum responsible for vision. Most posterior lobe. A. Frontal B. Temporal ...
• Part of the brain stem responsible for breathing. A. Pons B. Midbrain C. Limbic system ...
• Responsible for relaying information from sense receptors to the parietal lobe, maintains consciousness and alertness. ...
• Inferior to the cerebrum, made up of the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata. A. Brain ...
• Part of the limbic system responsible for feelings of happiness and the fight or flight ...
• Part of the brain stem responsible for transmitting signals from the spinal cord to the ...
• Paranuclear halo or hof is usually seen in A. Promyelocytes B. Myelocytes C. Metamyelocytes ...
• What is the shape of an Oxygen Dissociation Curve? A. Sigmoidal B. Linear C. Parabolic ...
• Due to a problem in the bone marrow, the hepatic phase of fetal life is ...
• In a bone marrow biopsy specimen, the RBC precursors were estimated to account for 25% ...
• Which are the most common erythrocytic stages found in normal marrow? A. Polychromatophilic and orthochromic ...
• What is the first type of cell produced by the developing embryo? A. Erythrocyte ...
• Which of the following granules are last to be released? A. Proteinase-3 B. Collagenase ...
• This triggers the death and phagocytosis of neutrophils A. MAC-1 B. Mcl-1 C. Bcl-2 ...
• What is the preferred bone marrow collection site in adults? A. Anterior or posterior iliac ...
• Secretory granules are formed at this stage A. Bands B. Promyelocytes C. Metamyelocytes D. Myelocytes ...
• Charcot-leyden crystal protein is associated with A. Eosinophilic Promyelocyte B. Eosinophilic Myelocyte C. Basophilic Promyelocyte ...
• Which of the following is NOT an indication for a bone marrow examination? A. Crushing ...
• Programmed cell death is called A. Apoptosis B. Necrosis C. Cellular senescence D. Terminal differentiation ...
• What is the largest hematopoietic cell found in a normal bone marrow aspirate? A. Megakaryocyte ...
• The predominant hemoglobin found in a healthy newborn is: A. HbF B. Gower-1 C. Gower-2 ...
• All of the following are mechanisms of how eosinophils release its granules EXCEPT A. Classical ...
• Major cytokine responsible for mast cell maturation and differentiation. A. KIT-ligand B. IL-3 C. IL-1 ...
• What is the normal M:E ratio range in adults? A. 1.5:1 to 3.3:1 B. 5.1:1 ...
• Movement of WBC to extravascular space to access microorganisms A. Diapedesis B. Chemotaxis C. Margination ...
• The aspirate should be examined under low power to assess all of the following except: ...
• Interleukins and colony stimulating factors are cytokines produced by A. Monocytes and T cells ...
• The advantage of a core biopsy bone marrow sample over an aspirate is that the ...
• Transit time from myeloblast through myelocyte has been estimated to be roughly A. 6 days ...
• These are termed dawn of neutrophilia due to the increase of secondary granules and decrease ...
• Where do the early and late stages of heme synthesis occur? A. On ribosomes ...
• Typical symptoms of Parkinson's are A. facial drooping B. tremors C. shuffling gait D. tremors ...
• The medical term for abnormal sensation is A. tremor B. paresthesia C. seizure D. syncope ...
• The facial nerve (CN VII) controls eye muscle movement and pupil dilation. A. TRUE ...
• The inability to speak is known as A. ataxia B. aphasia C. dysphasia D. agnosia ...
• A patient present with numbness/tingling in the hand, but the origin of pain is from ...
• which of the following pairs is mismatched? A. Frontal lobe - most anterior part of ...
• Neuro related careers include all of the following except A. orthopedic surgeon B. chiropractor ...
• Cranial Nerve 8, the vestibulocochlear nerve is responsible for impulses of equilibrium and hearing ...
• The autonomic nervous system divides into parasympathetic and sympathetic branches A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• A cerebrovascular accident is also known as a A. Stroke B. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis ...
• Alzheimers can be diagnosed A. truly only after death B. by EEG C. by PET ...
• There are 8 pairs of cranial nerves A. TRUE B. FALSE
• How many vertebrae are in the cervical spine? A. 5 B. 7 C. 12 ...
• The cerebellum is responsible for A. breathing, heart rate, and digestion B. balance and coordination ...
• In the acronym FAST (for warning signs of a stroke), A stands for A. asymmetry ...
• The central nervous systems is made up of the brain and spinal cord. A. TRUE ...
• The peripheral nervous system divides into the A. central nervous system and autonomic nervous system ...
• An athlete's resting heart rate can be as low as 40-60 beats per minute due ...
• Which of the following is NOT associated with bradycardia? A. Heart disease B. Electrical heart ...
• The brachial pulse is located: A. inside the thigh B. behind the knee C. on ...
• Bradycardia is: A. a slow pulse less than 60 beats per minute B. a slow ...
• The popliteal pulse is located: A. inside the thigh B. behind the knee C. on ...
• Infant and children pulse rates are generally faster than adult and teen pulse rates. ...
• The apical pulse is taken on the right side of the chest. A. TRUE ...
• The radial pulse is located on the wrist. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Tachycardia is: A. a slow pulse less than 60 beats per minute B. a slow ...
• A pulse is the measure of blood against the wall of an artery. A. TRUE ...
• The three common places to take a pulse are: A. ulnar, apical, carotid B. radial, ...
• These are thick vessels that move blood carrying oxygen away from the heart and to ...
• system that communicates chemically via hormones A. endocrine B. nervous C. digestive D. reproductive ...
• supports, protects and gives structure A. skeletal system B. respiratory sytem C. integumentary system ...
• Which body system’s main purpose is to help the body move? A. muscular B. skeletal ...
• also known as the cardiovascular system; transports chemicals, gases, nutrients A. lymphatic B. circulatory ...
• Which body system is responsible for removing waste from your body? A. reproductive B. nervous ...
• This body system consists of the brain, nerves, spinal cord, and sensory organs. A. circulatory ...
• This is an organ that pumps blood throughout your body. A. capillaries B. veins ...
• also known as the excretory system; filters and eliminates wastes A. digestive B. respiratory ...
• This body system supports your body and gives it shape. A. muscular B. nervous ...
• defense against infection and disease A. circulatory B. lymphatic C. integumentary D. nervous
• The Stomach is part of what organ system A. Digestive B. Nervous C. Immune ...
• Which body system is responsible for bringing nutrients and oxygen to every cell in your ...
• This body system includes the lungs, diaphragm, and trachea. A. respiratory B. circulatory C. skeletal ...
• Which two body systems are most responsible for getting oxygen to the cells? A. circulatory ...
• system that is a protective covering A. integumentary B. nervous C. respiratory D. skeletal ...
• Which body system is responsible for carrying oxygen and carbon dioxide in and out of ...
• breaks down food and absorbs nutrients A. muscular B. digestive C. nervous D. urinary ...
• Who eats mosquitoes' larvae? A. bird B. frog C. fish
• Which symptom is shown by a person suffering from malaria? A. indigestion B. fever ...
• Malaria is spread only by A. anopheles male B. anopheles female C. houseflies
• Which one of the following is a symptom of dysentery? A. indigestion B. loose motion ...
• food rich in Iron A. jaggery, banana, spinach B. curd, milk, paneer C. fish, egg ...
• What happens to the children who suffers from anaemia? A. become thin B. become very ...
• What grows in the pond water? A. algae B. plants C. tree
• In which season is malaria more common? A. summer B. winter C. monsoon
• How much blood is needed to test malaria? A. 2-3 drops B. half a syringe ...
• From early times which tree bark was used to prepare medicine for malaria? A. teak ...
• Which one of the following disease is spread by a housefly? A. Malaria B. dengue ...
• Ronald ross got the Nobel prize for A. physics B. medicine C. chemistry
• mosquitoes breed in the A. river B. sea C. stagnant water
• What does a mosquito do when it bites us? A. it pinches us B. it ...
• Ronald Ross got the nobel prize in the year A. 1900 B. 1905 C. 1902 ...
• Anaemia is caused by the deficiency of A. calcium B. iron C. vitamin A ...
• The word malaria means A. bad air B. bad water C. pure water
• What is the minimum amount of haemoglobin required in our body? A. 8 mg ...
• Which instrument is used by the doctor to test the malaria patient's blood? A. x-ray ...
• How much blood is needed to test for anaemia? A. 2-3 drops B. half a ...
• Which of the following are NOT examples of organisms? A. dog B. cat C. lung ...
• This system supports your body; protects your internal organs; allows movement; stores minerals like calcium; ...
• A group of cells that perform a specific function is called a(n) A. cell ...
• The process by which your body breaks down food into small nutrient particles is called ...
• Mechanical digestion begins in the mouth and ends in the A. esophagus B. stomach ...
• The part of a cell that does a specific job is a(n) A. tissue ...
• Which of these are part of your muscular system? A. lung B. biceps C. kidney ...
• Which system removes carbon dioxide from your body? A. digestive system B. excretory system ...
• The process by which chemicals break food down into their building blocks is called ...
• A muscle that is not under your conscious control, like your heart, is a _______ ...
• Your hair, nails, and skin are all part of your A. skeletal system B. endocrine ...
• This system removes waste products from the body that can cause toxic build up and ...
• True or False: Being health and unhealthy are totally different. Either your are healthy ...
• Which type of risk factor is typically nonmodifiable? A. genetic risk factors B. behavioral risk ...
• To achieve optimal health, people practice __________, which is the process of identifying one's state ...
• True or False: Quality of life gauges a person's satisfaction with life, not just ...
• Illness and premature death lie at one end of the health continuum, and _______ health ...
• How people express their thoughts, emotions, moods, feelings about themselves, and views about the world ...
• While life expectancy measures the length of time a person is expected to live, the ...
• Which answer lists the 3 dimensions of health? A. climate, geography, & economic B. nutrition, ...
• True or False: Teens need at least 8 to 10 hours of sleep per ...
• True or False: Your actions can affect your health. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Which of the following is a part of your social environment? A. family B. peers ...
• Risk factors increase the chances a person will develop a disease or experience an injury, ...
• Your social environment includes your __________, or the beliefs, values, customs, and arts of a ...
• Which of the following is not an environmental risk factor? A. climate B. work conditions ...
• Lack of _______ due to blue light from digital devices reduces a person's resistance to ...
• True or False: A problem in one dimension of health will not affect other ...
• Which of the following is NOT a genetic factor? A. weight B. mental health condition ...
• _________ factors are aspects of people's lives that increase the chances that will develop a ...
• The presence of waste in the environment is called ________. A. pollution B. garbage ...
• _______ factors are choices and behaviors that affect a person's chance of developing a disease, ...
• What bone is this? A. Femur ...
• The picture of pelvis is ____ A. B. ...
• Where are blood cells made? A. Stomach B. Pancreas C. Bone Marrow D. Feet ...
• What two bones make up the skull? A. Radius and ulna B. Femur and pelvis ...
• What can you predict from the fact that babies have more bones than adults? ...
• Brain wll be protected by.... A. B.
• How many bones do adult humans have? A. 206 B. 24 C. 270 D. 145 ...
• What is the purpose of white blood cells? A. To carry oxygen B. To protect ...
• Why is it important that our bones are hollow? A. We can move around easily ...
• The function of ribs is protecting.... A. Lungs only B. Lungs and heart C. Heart ...
• What bone is this? A. Rib Cage ...
• Who has more bones: an adult or a baby? A. baby B. adult C. both ...
• What is the scientific name for the 'funny bone'? A. Humerus B. Femur C. Clavicle ...
• If you always eat 2000 calories and use 3000 calories, what will happen? A. You'll ...
• What are calories? A. Nutrients B. They determine if a food is healthy or not ...
• A good way to get a variety of vitamins A. Eat a lot of colorful ...
• This essential nutrient builds muscle and helps in the growth of hair, skin, and nails. ...
• Table sugar is a type of: A. cholesterol B. complex carbohydrate C. amino acid ...
• A carrot would be a good food source for... A. Water B. Vitamins C. Fat ...
• True or False: Trans fats are a healthy type of fat A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Which fats are SOLID at room temperature? (For example, butter, cheese, and fat from meat.) ...
• Which option is NOT true about Fat? A. Our body is mostly made of fat ...
• Ashley is getting ready for her soccer game. Which nutrient will give her body the ...
• Breads, rice, and cereal are all types of: A. protein B. carbohydrates C. water ...
• Which choice is NOT one of the essential nutrients? A. Protein B. Cholesterol C. Water ...
• Fiber has many benefits, such as... A. Strengthening teeth B. Helps with our digestive system ...
• This is the opposite of the myopia. A.Hyperopia B.Astigmatsm
• A condition of having bad breath. A Halitosis B.Malocclussion
• It is a condition wherein your skin becomes painful and red due to too much ...
• There is an excessive amount of body fats. A.obesity B.underweight
• The abnormal curvature of the spine causing a round back appearance. A.Scoliosis B.Kyphosis ...
• An outward curvature of the spine causing a round back appearance. A, Scoliosis ...
• It is a painful condition with irritation and/or infection of the outer ear. A.Impacted ...
• An inward curvature of the spine known as swayback. A.Kyphosis B.Lordosis
• Misalignment of your teeth. A.Halitosis B.Malocclusion
• It is a recurrent disease with inflammation and infection of the middle ear. A.Swimmer’s ...
• It is an individual’s positive concept emphasizing social and personal resources and physical capacities. ...
• It is an abnormal alignment of the eyes. A.Astigmatsm B.Strabismus.
• It is a condition where in your weight relative to age is lower than that ...
• There is an increase in body weight in relation to height. A.underweight B.overweight ...
• It is a common scalp condition marked by flaking and itching. A.Dandruff B.Blisters ...
• Blood leaves the glomerulus through a blood vessel called the A. afferent arteriole B. efferent ...
• water follows A. albumin B. carbon dioxide C. urea D. salt
• All of the following are true of the kidneys except that they are A. located ...
• Urine is temporarily stored in the A. urethra B. kidney C. urinary bladder D. ureter ...
• The urinary system does all of the following except A. excreting excess albumin molecules ...
• The outermost layer of the kidney is the A. renal medulla B. renal capsule ...
• The functional units of kidneys where blood is filtered and urine produced are called ...
• The majority of renal innervation is by the A. somatic nervous system B. parasympathetic nervous ...
• The urinary function of elimination occurs through the A. glomerulus B. kidney C. ureter ...
• Urine is carried to the urinary bladder by A. blood vessels B. the ureters ...
• A glomerulus is A. a knot of capillaries within renal corpuscle B. the source of ...
• Urine is carried from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body through the ...
• Glomerular (Bowman's) capsule and the glomerulus make up the A. renal pyramid B. nephron loop ...
• Glomerular blood flow is unique because it flows A. through a glomerular portal vein ...
• Filtrate first passes from the glomerular capsule to the A. proximal convoluted tubule B. distal ...
• The presence of what condition would indicate the urgent need for a kidney transplant? ...
• GFR in a healthy individual is approximately is A. 180 lit/min B. 200 lit/min ...
• Juxta medullary Nephrons are Characterised by A. Smaller afferent arteriole B. Bowmen's capsule with cuboidal ...
• Which of the following is not part of the renin-angiotensin mechanism? A. Angiotensinogen B. Angiotensin ...
• Which of the following is correct about juxta medullary nephrons? A. Vasa recta is prominent ...
• A fall in GFR can activate the JG-Cells to release A. Renin B. Rennin ...
• Kidney stone is caused by A. Drinking less water B. Eating dry fruits C. Eating ...
• Sebaceous glands Eliminate A. Sterols B. Hydrocarbons C. Waxes D. All
• Reabsorption of Na+ is controlled by – A. Vasopressin or ADH B. Aldosterone C. Renin ...
• Match the items of Column-I with those of Column-II. Column-I Column-II (a) Ammonotelism (i) ...
• A. Renal calculi B. Glomerulonephritis C. Diabetes mellitus D. Diabetes incipidus
• Human urine consists of A. water, urea, uric acid B. excess water, urea, uric acid ...
• An increase in blood flow in the atria of the heart can cause the release ...
• If you are over-hydrated (high water potential in the blood), the body must excrete excess ...
• Renal failure A. When the bladder cannot empty B. when the kidneys stop filtering waste ...
• The average amount of urea excreted out by person per day is A. 25-30gm ...
• Countercurrent mechanism to maintain the concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium. This special arrangement occurs ...
• Osmoregulation is the homeostatic mechanism of controlling... A. Blood glucose levels B. Temperature C. Oxygen ...
• When ADH is secreted, urine will: A. Be more dilute B. Be more concentrated ...
• How can urine be used to diagnose diabetes? A. There would be blood in the ...
• The innermost layer of skin is A. dermis B. epidermis C. stratum layer D. hypodermis ...
• Cancer of the bottom layer of the epidermis is called A. Malignant melanoma B. Basal ...
• The epidermis is composed of what kind of cells? A. Simple squamous epithelial B. Stratified ...
• The function of sebum is: A. Keeps skin soft and moist B. Help to regulate ...
• What layer of the skin contains sweat glands? A. Dermis B. Epidermis C. Hypodermis ...
• Gland in the dermis that produces sweat. A. sebaceous B. sudoriferous
• What layer of skin produces melanin? A. Dermis B. Epidermis C. Hypodermis D. Subcutaneous ...
• Function of the adipose tissue in the inner layer of skin functions to... A. insulate ...
• Your skin is ___________ to your bones A. deep B. lateral C. superficial D. dorsal ...
• The sweat gland that produces stinky sweat is the  A. Apocrine gland B. Eccrine gland ...
• Away from the midline of the body is called A. medial B. lateral C. proximal ...
• What part of a hair can be seen? A. Follicle B. Matrix C. Root ...
• Toward the midline of the body is called A. medial B. lateral C. inferior ...
• The hypodermis contains this type of tissue which is another name for fat. A. epithelial ...
• How many small layers make up the epidermis? A. 1 B. 4 C. 5 ...
• The layer of the epidermis that is capable of dividing is A. Stratum basale ...
• Goosebumps are caused by contractions of the ______ muscle A. Arrector pili B. Apocrine ...
• The outermost layer of skin... A. hypodermis B. dermis C. epidermis
• Sweating to regulate body temperature is an example of A. negative feedback B. positive feedback ...
• The protein that makes us waterproof is called A. keratin B. melanin C. carotene ...
• The clear layer only present in certain areas of the body is called: A. Stratum ...
• Skin color is due to a pigment called A. Keratin B. Melanin C. Chromatin ...
• The function of the integumentary system includes all of these except what? A. Homeostasis ...
• The vascular of the skin is the: A. Dermis B. Epidermis C. Hypodermis D. Stratum ...
• A body part said to be furthest from point of attachment to trunk is said ...
• This is a grid or graduated scale that can be used to measure a person's ...
• According to the Iceberg Model of Health & Disease, Illness and health are only the ...
• Proposes that health behaviors are predicted by the extent to which an individual believes they ...
• Which of the following models determines whether an individual is likely to participate in disease ...
• It is assumed in this model that sickness is the inability to fulfill societal roles ...
• Which component of wellness relates to maintaining a healthy body and seeking care when needed. ...
• In the agent-Host –Environmental Model, what should be present for an illness to occur? ...
• Becoming engaged with other people in your community & Valuing diversity and treat others with ...
• A young child who is starving in a drought ridden country exemplifies which of the ...
• Still finding meaning in life when you have come down with a disease is an ...
• Adaptive model assumes that the person: I. Is in constant interaction with a changing ...
• This component of wellness inspires us to live a lifestyle that is respectful of our ...
• Which model is illustrated by two arrows pointing on opposite directions and joined at ...
• Activities/Measures like increasing your knowledge and skills to accomplish your goals and create connections with ...
• The 4+ model of wellness includes____. A. Physical, Spiritual, Emotional and Intellectual plus the elements ...
• Which model is illustrated by the intersection of health & environment axes?
• In the epidemiological triangle of the Agent-Host –Environmental Model, what is known to be ...
• nonliving particle that can reproduce within a living cell A. endospore B. virus C. vacuole ...
• Viruses are smaller than a cell. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• cell in which a virus reproduces A. endospore B. host cell C. bacteriophage D. plasmid ...
• Viruses are _______. A. producers B. consumers C. parasites D. decomposers
• This is a--- A. Bacteria B. ...
• Viruses are living things A. TRUE B. FALSE
• You are a doctor and Little Billy is in your office with the flu. His ...
• Viruses can´t __________ by themselves. A. reproduce B. communicate C. die D. infect people ...
• Which of the following is one important difference between a virus and a bacterial cell? ...
• A/an ________ is an injection of a weakened form of a pathogen to help the ...
• A virus is made up of A. cells B. protein coat C. genetic material and ...
• What type of bone is large, strong, and flat? A. Long bones B. Short bones ...
• What is produced inside bones? A. Blood cells B. Cartilage C. Tendons D. Muscles ...
• What type of bone is about as wide as it is long? A. Long bones ...
• What is a fracture? A. Large bone B. Broken bone C. Bone made of cartilage ...
• Which of the following is a hard substance that keeps bones from rubbing together? ...
• What do bones need to grow? A. Lots of water B. Calcium C. Green Vegetables ...
• What type of bone is longer than it is wide? A. Long bones B. Short ...
• The area where bones meet is called a _________. A. Joint B. Tendon C. Ligament ...
• What are bones like on the inside? A. Soft and spongy B. Thick and strong ...
• Bones, joints, cartilage, tendons, and ligaments make up the ____________. A. Skeletal System B. Organs ...
• What does bone marrow produce? A. Muscles B. Blood C. Hair D. Water
• What hard substance is found in babies before bones grow? A. Joint B. Tendon ...
• Where in the skeleton might you find a flat bone? A. Hand B. Wrist ...
• Why is it important to keep bones healthy? A. Bones stop growing longer around age ...
• Bones that are not long, short, or flat are called ____________ bones. A. Long ...
• What type of bones are muscles attached to? A. Long bones B. Short bones ...
• Why is it important to keep bones protected? A. Bones can break. B. Bones are ...
• When do bones stop growing? A. Age 20 B. Age 15 C. Age 25 ...
• How many bones make up the adult human skeleton? A. 313 B. 400 C. 279 ...
• What are bones like on the outside? A. Soft and spongy B. Heavy and solid ...
• Tissues that hold bones together at a joint are called _________. A. Joint B. Tendon ...
• Where in the skeleton might you find a short bone? A. Hand B. Hip ...
• What can you do to keep bones strong? A. Lots of water B. Helmets and ...
• Why are bones able to heal themselves after a fracture? A. Bones are always growing ...
• What can be found inside bones? A. Nothing B. Sponges C. Ligaments D. Marrow
• What happens when babies’ bones fuse together? A. Split into two B. Create cartilage ...
• When do humans have the most bones in their bodies? A. As babies B. Age ...
• What happens when bones break? A. They stay broken forever B. Pieces grow back together ...
• Where might you find a long bone? A. Head B. Wrist C. Chest D. Leg ...
• All the bones in the human body are called the ____________. A. Ligaments B. Skeleton ...
• How many main types of bones are in the human skeleton? A. 300 B. 4 ...
• It refers to a static stretching regimen that improves joint range of motion and stretch ...
• It refers to your body’s ability to develop your heart and lungs together to use ...
• It is the ability to move your body or parts of your body quickly. The ...
• It refers to the extent of fat against the extent of lean muscle mass, organs ...
• It is the ability to use both your speed and muscular strength. A. Reaction Time ...
• It is the ability to use the senses or different parts of the body together ...
• It is the ability to control the body when standing still or moving. A. Agility ...
• It is essential to every individual. It is an indicator which determine whether you have ...
• It is the ability to move and control the direction and position of the body ...
• The following is the Components of Physical Fitness, EXCEPT? A. Cardiovascular Endurance B. Muscle Strength ...
• It is the ability to respond physically and mentally to what you hear, see and ...
• It refers to the amount of force that a muscle can exert in a single ...
• The range of motion is achieved through moving limbs to its limits in a suspended ...
• The range of motion is achieved through slow movement stretching: most recommended type when performing ...
• It refers to the muscles ability to continuously perform weight lifting without the feeling of ...
• what are the main organs in the Muscular system? A. Smooth, Skeletal, Cardiac B. tissue, ...
• A disease in which the immune system eats away at the protective covering of the ...
• What are the functions of Muscular system? A. fight against bacteria B. Allows for movement ...
• what is the function of Nervous System? A. gathers the water B. gathers and interprets ...
• Name a disorder that can happen with Excretory System? A. Skin disease B. Kidney Stones ...
• what the main organs involved in the cardiovascular system? A. Heart, veins, Arteries B. Heart, ...
• What are the functions of Digestive System? A. take in food, digest food into smaller ...
• what are the main organs involved in the digestive system? A. Brain, bones, teeth, pancreas, ...
• what is the function of Respiratory system? A. Takes in food and digest B. Takes ...
• What is the function of cardio vascular system? A. absorb water B. movement of the ...
• What is the function of immune system? A. Fights as a warrior in the war ...
• Cardiovascular system interacts with ..... A. respiratory, brain control B. respiratory, digestive, excretory, immune, nervous ...
• What are the main organs in the immune system? A. Bone, hand B. Bone marrow, ...
• what all other systems digestive system interacts with? A. circulatory, cells, tissues B. circulatory, muscular, ...
• which other body systems immune system interacts with? A. Circulatory, Skeletal B. Circulatory, tissue ...
• What are the functions of Excretory system? A. moving fast B. removes waste products from ...
• A disorder that affects the posture, balance and motor functions is called A. unhealthy muscle ...
• what are the main organs in the Excretory System? A. Kidneys, brain B. Kidneys, bladder, ...
• what are the main organs involved in respiratory system? A. Nose, Muscle B. Nose, Trachea, ...
• What are the functions of Skeletal System? A. Protects organs, Provides shape and support, stores ...
• It is the ability to sustain long continued contractions where a number of muscle groups ...
• It is the ability to move all or part of the body quickly. A. Muscular ...
• It is the ability to control organic equipment neuro-muscularly; a state of equilibrium. A. Agility ...
• It is the ability of the body in a steady position while standing and moving. ...
• It is the ability of the muscles to release maximum force in the shortest period ...
• It is the ability of the heart, lungs, blood vessels, and blood to work efficiently ...
• It is the ability to combine strength with speed while moving. A. Power B. Speed ...
• It refers to the soundness of the heart and lungs which contributes to the ability ...
• It is the ability to use muscles for a long period of time without tiring. ...
• It is the ability of body parts to work together when you perform an activity. ...
• It is the combination of all the tissues that make up the body such as ...
• It is the ability of muscles to lift a heavy weight or exert a lot ...
• It is the ability to use your joints fully through a wide range of motion. ...
• It is the capacity to sustain the application of force without yielding or breaking; the ...
• It is the ability to change body positions quickly and keep the body under control ...
• When glucose and oxygen are combined in the mitochondria of animal cells what process does ...
• What colour is the large intestine where water is reabsorbed?
• How does glucose get into a plant? A. Water goes up the roots B. Digestion ...
• Tiny little sac's called Alveoli are found at the end of lots of branches of: ...
• What organisms that NOT undergo respiration A. Animals B. Plants C. Rocks D. Fish ...
• The Trachea leads down and branches out into two A. Bronchi B. Stomach C. Bronchioles ...
• Respiration is the process of: A. Breathing B. Making Energy from oxygen and glucose ...
• What process in an animal allows glucose to get into the blood? A. Photosynthesis ...
• Which life process do we consider the activity of digestion? A. Nutrition B. Movement ...
• Alveoli are surrounded by lots of blood capillaries so that a big surface area allows ...
• Catalase, that was used in your lab, broke down this substance A. Hydrogen peroxide ...
• In the documentary “Super Size Me”, which of the following was the independent variable? ...
• Enzymes affect the reactions in living cells by increasing the A. Activation energy of the ...
• An animal that can keep its internal environment the same is called A. Hyperstasis ...
• How is a protein’s shape important to its function? A. The function of the protein ...
• A substance that increases or decreases the rate of a chemical reaction is called a ...
• Calories we see listed on nutrition labels indicates all the energy we WILL receive from ...
• Which element is found in life as we know it? A. Lead B. Aluminum ...
• What is “One piece”, such as nucleotides, that makes up the complex molecule of DNA? ...
• Enzymes and catalysts are A. always used up B. hard to replace C. are reusable ...
• This is also known as fats and help with energy storage and insulation. A. lipid ...
• All of the following are characteristics of life except A. Responds to stimuli B. Needs ...
• In an experiment , the condition being measured by a scientist is the A. Independent ...
• What is the dependent variable in the following experiment: An investigation found that cat grass ...
• Virus have not been officially confirmed to be alive because they fail this characteristic of ...
• This is found outside of the nucleus of an atom A. electron B. neutron ...
• In an experiment , the condition held the same by a scientist is the ...
• Enzymes in humans function best at cold temperatures. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What unit is the energy we consumed measured in? A. grams B. % C. calories ...
• This is the smallest unit that still has the same properties of an element. ...
• Enzyme function is temperature dependent. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Proteins help your body A. expand B. rebuild tissues C. gives you fast energy burst ...
• What is the following most likely called in an experiment? If Rhizobia bacteria can nodulate ...
• In an experiment , the condition that is manipulated (changed) by a scientist is the ...
• Which word best describes a scientific hypothesis? A. provable B. theoretical C. testable D. quantifiable ...
• Urine production takes place in the: A. nephrons B. bladder C. ureter D. renal pelvis ...
• How does blood leaving the kidneys compare to blood entering the kidneys?
• Which of the following parts is not found in the urinary system? A. Ureters ...
• Which row correctly shows what is excreted from the lungs and the kidneys?
• After the kidneys, where does the urine enter? A. Into the ureters B. Into the ...
• The medulla, cortex and pelvis are all part of the A. nervous system B. nephron ...
• A hollow muscular sac that holds up to 500 mL of urine: A. Bladder ...
• Where does the urinary tract start? A. In the kidneys B. In the urethra ...
• Where are your kidneys located? A. In the middle of your ribs. B. Over your ...
• What is the function of the urethra? A. It filters urea out of the bloodstream ...
• the removal of metabolic wastes such as carbon dioxide, water, salts, and urea A. digestion ...
• Which are the tubes that carry urine from the kidney to the bladder? A. Adrenal ...
• Which blood type is the universal recipient? A. Type A B. Type B C. Type ...
• The immune system functions to protect our bodies by identifying cells or molecules that are ...
• Which blood type is the universal donor? A. Type A B. Type B C. Type ...
• The three components of blood, red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, are carried ...
• The presence or absence of particular proteins, found embedded within a cell or plasma membranes ...
• The presence or absence of antigens on white blood cells determines a person's blood type. ...
• An individual's blood type is determined by A. environment. B. genetics. C. both environment and ...
• A and B proteins are found on the surface of some red blood cells. If ...
• Each blood type is determined by: A. a DNA reaction test. B. an antibody reaction ...
• White blood cells secrete proteins: A. known as antibodies, which assist in the immune response. ...
• Red blood cells: A. carry respiratory gases, mainly oxygen and carbon dioxide. B. fight disease ...
• What term describes the clumping of red blood cells? A. agglutination B. antigens C. eosinophil ...
• Which of the following is a factor that can lead to osteoporosis A. lack of ...
• There are two types of arthritis A. TRUE B. FALSE
• How do you treat arthritis? A. Physical therapy B. Medication C. Surgery D. All the ...
• Which of the following is not a sign of arthitis A. pain B. stooped posture ...
• Sarcopenia, osteoporosis and arthritis are communicable diseases A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Sarcopenia is a communicable disease A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Sarcopenia is the loss of muscle mass and function A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Which of these is a sign of osteoporosis? A. Strong bones B. Growing taller ...
• Which of these is a sign of sarcopenia? A. Strong bones B. small muscles ...
• Osteoporosis is a disease of the joints A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Osteosarcoma is an aggressive malignancy of the bone. What is the primary clinical feature of ...
• The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with an ...
• ______ injuries include contusions, hematomas, and lacerations A. joint B. soft tissue C. fracture ...
• ________ is the most common bone sarcoma among adults A. chondrosarcoma B. Ewing Sarcoma ...
• A ______ fracture occurs in bones that already are weakened by disease or tumors ...
• A patient tells the nurse she is very concerned because the health care provider informed ...
• The nurse is assessing a client who sustained a fractured radius. A cast was applied ...
• A ________ usually is caused by abnormal or excessive movement of the joint A. strain ...
• People treated with corticosteroids and/or bisphosphonates are more vulnerable to developing: A. osteomyelitis B. osteonecrosis ...
• The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who experienced a ligamentous sprain. The ...
• A young adult has been diagnosed with a tumor of the femur, and the health ...
• The signs and symptoms of a ________ include pain, tenderness at the site of bone ...
• Which gender is at higher risk for osteosarcomas? A. female B. male
• A 20 year old male athlete presents with a soft tissue contusion on the right ...
• A broad spectrum of _________ injuries result from numerous physical forces, including blunt tissue trauma, ...
• A client has developed osteomyelitis and asks the health care provider how the problem occurred. ...
• Osteonecrosis is a condition in which part of a bone dies because of the interruption ...
• A 6-year old child as developed idiopathic osteonecrosis disease from the proximal (capital) femoral epiphysis. ...
• A 16 year old male football player suffered a fracture of his radius and ulna. ...
• Which statement best describes osteosarcoma? A. Most commonly seen in those younger than 20 and ...
• A _______ is a stretching injury to a muscle or a musculotendinous unit caused by ...
• Many layers of cells A. Simple B. Stratified
• In pseudostratified epithelium which of the following is NOT TRUE? A. All the cells attach ...
• Used in places where diffusion needs to occur, such as blood vessels and air sacs ...
• Absorbs nutrients in the digestive tract A. Columnar B. Cuboidal C. Simple Squamous D. Pseudostratified ...
• What specialized function does transitional epithelium provide? A. absorption B. diffusion C. secretion D. stretch ...
• The epidermis of the skin is A. simple squamous keratinized B. stratified squamous keratinized ...
• Given these characteristics: 1. capable of contraction 2. covers all free body surfaces 3. ...
• is a waterproof protein found in certain types of epithelium and it is resistant to ...
• Which of the following can be found in the intestines? A. Simple squamos B. Simple ...
• Single layer of cells of the same shape A. Simple B. Stratified
• Which of the following is NOT a main function of epithelial tissues? A. covering exposed ...
• Epithelial tissue regenerate really quickly A. TRUE B. FALSE
• In pseudostratified epithelium which of the following is NOT TRUE? A. All the cells attach ...
• Where is keratinized stratified squamous epithelium found? A. skin B. lining of the mouth ...
• Why is that you can FEEL a paper cut, but it often does NOT bleed? ...
• Found in organs like the bladder that need to stretch A. Areolar B. Stratified squamous ...
• All of the following are common locations of simple squamous epithlium EXCEPT A. lungs ...
• Flattened cells A. Squamous B. Cuboidal C. Columnar
• Histology refers to the A. Study of tissues B. Study of the body C. Removal ...
• Pt (patient) acknowledges he/she wants you to provide care/transport A. Implied B. Informed ...
• The EMT has a legal duty to act if he or she is A. off ...
• All care provided by EMS personnel within an EMS system is authorized by a(n): ...
• A patients willingness to donate his or her organs is commonly documented on their ...
• An emancipated minor is: A. child who is injured in school, but the parent is ...
• Do not resuscitate orders are considered valid if they are: A. signed by a lawyer ...
• A provider has is required to perform care by law or because of job duties ...
• Member of the EMS system who provides pre-arrival instructions to callers, thereby helping to initiate ...
• An important safeguard against legal implication is A. responding to every call with lights and ...
• You are dispatched to the scene of a pedestrian hit my a car. You find ...
• In EMS where does the largest risk for a lawsuit occur. A. When lifting a ...
• What is another name for decomposition A. decapitation B. lividity C. putrefacation D. rigor
• Legal document that either provide instruction on a patients medical decisions such as do they ...
• Lividity in a patient can tell you: A. How the patient died B. Their temperature ...
• Which is an example of abandonment? A. EMT leaves scene after a competent adult has ...
• Written document of a patient requesting CPR not to be performed. A. DNR B. Advance ...
• What does HIPAA stand for? A. Health Insurance Portability & Accountability Act B. Health Insurance ...
• Permission for care given directly by the patients nodded head. A. Informed consent B. Expressed ...
• This is a set of rules, regulations, and laws that tell how you legally function ...
• If an action or procedure that was performed on a patient, but not recorded on ...
• A basic principle in EMS care is A. Treat others as they treat you ...
• A wrongdoing for which legal action can be brought to court for damages. A. criminal ...
• The sense of sight detects ________________ stimuli. A. electromagnetic B. chemical C. mechanical D. temperature ...
• Which two senses are directly connected? A. Sight and touch B. Taste and smell ...
• Which properties of nerve cells are most important for their ability to carry out their ...
• The sense of taste detects ________________ stimuli. A. chemical B. mechanical C. electromagnetic D. thermal ...
• Mark dropped a ruler and Tim caught it with his eyes closed. This experiment tested ...
• What type of stimuli does smell detect A. light B. vibration C. pressure D. chemical ...
• Taste and smell are similar because: A. They are both located on the face ...
• Taste receptors in the gustatory system are... A. Chemoreceptors B. Mechanoreceptors C. Electroreceptors D. Photoreceptors ...
• The sense of hearing detects ________________ stimuli. A. electromagnetic B. thermal C. mechanical D. chemical ...
• The sense of smell detects ________________ stimuli. A. chemical B. thermal C. mechanical D. electromagnetic ...
• “They are cells specialized in picking up stimulus, whether they are internal or external, and ...
• What type of stimulus does taste detect A. light B. vibration C. chemical D. pressure ...
• The sense of touch detects ________________ stimuli. A. electromagnetic B. chemical C. mechanical D. pH ...
• Why might you feel something touching you on your head quicker than on your foot. ...
• A receptor that detects light and darkness it's called... A. Photoreceptor B. Mechanoreceptor C. Chemoreceptor ...
• Anything that causes you to react is called A. sound B. response C. stimulus ...
• Which sense detects pressure and heat A. sight B. hearing C. taste D. touch ...
• You feel a mosquito biting your arm. This is because you have ....................... in your ...
• The Central Nervous system includes what two organs? A. Brain and Nerves B. Brain and ...
• The process by which wastes are removed from the body A. digestion B. excretion ...
• Blood's built-in safety net. When you get a cut, they help your blood to harden ...
• What part of the digestive system is highlighted? ...
• Tubes that carry oxygen-depleted blood towards the heart. A. Veins B. Arteries C. Heart ...
• Combination of plasma and cells. Vital fluid that supplies essential substances and nutrients to the ...
• A group of organs that work together to perform a major function in the body ...
• Which body system is responsible for protecting the structures underneath from infection and disease? (think ...
• What part of the digestive system is highlighted? ...
• Main part of respiratory system. Puts oxygen into the bloodstream. A. Mouth B. Lungs ...
• The system used to take in oxygen to the lungs A. respiration B. respiratory system ...
• Muscular organ that pumps in humans and animals. Pumps blood through the blood vessels of ...
• Permits blood to move through the body to carry nutrients, oxygen, hormones, etc. A. respiratory ...
• Any living thing or individual A. Cell B. Organism C. Tissue D. Organelle
• Carries oxygen-rich blood from (away) the heart to the tissues of the body. A. Veins ...
• The process by which the body breaks down food into energy A. excretion B. digestion ...
• What body system breaks down food for energy? A. Urinary System B. Digestive System ...
• The process by which the body breaks down food so that it can be used ...
• Muscle that moves up and down to expand the lungs. This helps you breathe. ...
• To take in matter or energy A. collection B. composition C. aborption D. density ...
• Colorblindness is a sex-linked recessive trait. A colorblind woman marries a male with normal color ...
• H= normal blood clotting h=hemophilia XHXh x XHY What is the probability ...
• Look at this cross: XB XB x Xb Y What proportion/percent of the male ...
• Look at this cross: XBXb x XBY What proportion of the male children are ...
• Why are men 16 times more likely to be color-blind than women? A. to be ...
• Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder. Which genotype represents a male with hemophilia? A. XHXh ...
• An individual's sex is determined by  A. 1 of 23 chromosomes B. 2 of 46 ...
• The visual representation of an individual's chromosomes is a
• Colorblindness is a recessive X-linked disorder. Which genotype represents a male with normal vision? ...
• Why is the gene for a disease or disorder more likely to be found on ...
• Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder. Which genotype represents a female who is a carrier ...
• How many PAIRS of sex chromosomes do humans have? A. 23 B. 46 C. 1 ...
• How many PAIRS of chromosomes do humans have? A. 23 B. 46 C. 1 ...
• _______________ is a general term used to describe the symptoms associated with a decline in ...
• Alzheimer's and Dementia are the same thing A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Epilepsy is: A. communicable B. Non-communicable & Chronic C. Acute
• Epilepsy can affect children only. This statement is: A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Sciatica is a disease of which body system? A. The immune system B. The digestive ...
• A group of brain disorders characterized by repeated seizures over time A. epilepsy B. dementia ...
• Epilepsy can affect anyone at any age, BUT it's more common in which of the ...
• What is Alzheimer's? A. A disease of the brain that causes problems with memory, thinking ...
• A condition involving a progressive loss of brain cells and brain function with major consequences ...
• Epilepsy is a disease of the nervous system and it affects the A. The Central ...
• What are the symptoms of the disease? A. getting lost in familiar places B. Confusion ...
• Inflammatory bowel disease is an autoimmune disease A. TRUE B. FALSE
• This occurs when the contents of the bowel pass very rapidly into the large intestine, ...
• Select correct answer: A. Acute gastroenteritis typically lasts less than 7 days B. Gastroenteritis is ...
• The symptoms of IBD are A. abdominal pain B. arthritis C. diarrhea D. skin lesions ...
• What is the first stop in the digestive system? A. mouth B. esophagus C. stomach ...
• Typical symptoms are diarrhoea, abdominal pain, fever, nausea, vomiting, headaches and muscular pain. A. Constipation ...
• Types of IBD A. ulcerative colitis B. crohn's disease C. both D. none of the ...
• Select the wrong answer: Symptoms of gastroenteritis include: A. fever B. abdominal pain ...
• What term means bone disease? A. osteopathy B. ostectomy C. osteiotomy D. ostiomalacia
• Bones of the skull spine and rib cage make up the : A. Boney thorax ...
• Bone forming cells are called : A. osteocytes B. osteoblasts C. foramen D. sutures ...
• What important minerals are stored in the bones? A. Iron and phosphorous B. Fluoride and ...
• What type of joint is found between the vertebrae? A. hinge B. ball and socket ...
• The outer covering of the bone is the : A. endosteum B. periosteum C. diaphysis ...
• The spine ribs and sternum protect the organs contained in what cavity? A. buccal ...
• What type of joint is found at the hip? A. hinge B. ball and socket ...
• John has a fractured radius near the wrist; this would be described as : ...
• Bones of the arms, legs. shoulder and pelvic girdle make up the : A. Boney ...
• What term means cutting into the skull? A. ostectomy B. craniomalacia C. craniotomy D. craniomegaly ...
• What term means softening of the bone ? A. osteopathy B. ostectomy C. osteiotomy ...
• What type of joint is found at the elbow? A. hinge B. ball and socket ...
• What term means surgical repair of a bone ? A. osteectomy B. craniotomy C. ostioplasty ...
• Sue has three fractured ribs; in relation to the sternum the ribs are: A. saggital ...
• AT is a 54 year old female who develops osteomyelitis of his left foot due ...
• CA is a 54 year old male with a mild erysipelas. He is allergic to ...
• SATA. What are the primary treatment options for a cutaneous abscess like a carbuncle? ...
• If you have a patient who comes to the emergency room with a soft tissue ...
• What SSTI is a serious infection that affects all layers of the skin? A. Folliculitis ...
• MM is a 69 year old male who is admitted to an internal medicine ward ...
• Which of the following abx would be the most appropriate to use for op tx ...
• MJ is an 86 year old male who develops osteomyelitis of his right foot due ...
• Which is a good empiric combination therapy for severe diabetic foot infections in a patient ...
• A patient admitted to the hospital with severe back pain is diagnosed with native vertebral ...
• An otherwise healthy patient presents with a foot infection. The physician would like to use ...
• The Cerebrum is the largest part of your brain. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The Cerebellum is located... A. in your stomach. B. in the center of your brain. ...
• Give another name for body parts A. fingers B. toes C. organs D. work
• Which of these is an external organ A. heart B. nose C. lungs D. intestine ...
• The ________ protects the brain. A. the head B. the bottom C. the hair ...
• Internal organs are found A. outside B. around C. on top of D. inside ...
• The brain helps to control what you... A. Think B. Feel C. Do D. All ...
• A __________________ is a medical doctor with specialized training in treating, and managing disorders of ...
• The brain is _____ A. hard B. soft C. rough
• Which part of the brain controls your balance and coordination? A. brain stem B. occipital ...
• What is the largest part of the brain? A. Our brains like cookies! B. The ...
• Two things the brain help us to do are: A. learn new things and remember ...
• How much does the brain weigh? A. 1 pound B. 3 ounces C. 16 pounds ...
• The brain is found in A. in the head B. in the chest C. in ...
• Synovial fluid is... A. Hard B. sticky C. Slippery D. thin
• Tendons are tough bands of fibrous connective tissue? A. FALSE B. TRUE
• The muscles of respiration can increase their strength following training (diaphragm and intercostal muscles). ...
• During short term exercise the muscle pliability is increased, meaning that your muscles are more ...
• Lactic acid anaerobic training stimulates the muscles to become more able to tolerate lactic acid ...
• The range of movement _______ due to the joints becoming warmer during exercise, this increases ...
• Muscle hypertrophy is a term for the growth and increase of the size of _______ ...
• Your bones store 99% of the calcium in your body. Your body uses your skeletal ...
• After short term exercise the musculoskeletal system responses with the blood supply is... A. decreased ...
• The muscle fibre micro tears as an effect of short term exercise. Each muscle is ...
• The fluid reduces friction between the articular cartilage, it also nourishes the articular cartilage. ...
• Ligaments and tendons will _______ in flexibility and strength with exercise. A. decrease B. increase ...
• Every time a fibre tears it repairs itself and grows back thicker and stronger, making ...
• The digestive system works with which system to distribute nutrients to the cells of your ...
• These blood vessels carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs. A. heart B. capillaries C. veins ...
• Water is absorbed in which digestive organ? A. large intestines B. pancreas C. small intestines ...
• The system that breaks down food into nutrients. A. lymphatic B. respiratory C. nervous ...
• Which system allows blood to circulate throughout the body to transport oxygen and nutrients to ...
• Why is the esophagus/food pipe important? A. To swallow food B. To choke C. To make ...
• Which organ starts the process of digestion? A. salivary glands B. stomach C. teeth and ...
• These blood vessels take oxygenated blood to the body cells. A. heart B. artery ...
• Delivers oxygen to your body cells. Made in bone marrow. A. white blood cell ...
• Which organ connects the mouth to the stomach? A. mouth B. esophagus C. stomach ...
• Which organ is part of the circulatory system? A. stomach B. lungs C. heart ...
• Nutrients are absorbed in which digestive organ? A. large intestines B. mouth C. small intestines ...
• Fights disease and infection. Made by the lymphatic system. A. white blood cells B. red ...
• Critical point where stop & go signals can regulate the cell cycle. A. External regulation ...
• One half of a duplicated chromosome. A. Chromosome B. Chromatid C. Centromere D. Telomere
• Clumps of cells that divide uncontrollably. A. Cancer B. Tumors C. Malignant D. Benign ...
• A signal that comes from outside of the cell A. External regulation B. Internal Regulation ...
• Place the following in order from smallest to largest. A. Organism, Organ System, Organ, Tissue, ...
• Ends of the DNA molecule A. Chromosome B. Chromatid C. Centromere D. Telomere
• Cancer cells that can break away from the tumor & be carried to other parts ...
• Cancer causing agents A. Malignant B. Carcinogen C. Metastasize D. Benign
• At the end of Interphase, the cell has A. 1/4 a set of chromosomes ...
• What occurs during the S phase of Interphase? A. Growth B. Protein production C. Chromosomes ...
• Two identical chromatids A. Chromosome B. Sister Chromatids C. Centromere D. Telomere
• One long continuous thread of DNA that consists of numerous genes & regulatory information. ...
• Abnormal cells that typically remain clustered together. A. Cancer B. Malignant C. Metastasize D. Benign ...
• Region of the condensed chromosomes that looks pinched A. Chromosome B. Chromatid C. Centromere ...
• Mitosis is the process of cell division. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Programmed cell death A. External regulation B. Internal Regulation C. Checkpoint D. Apoptosis
• Spread of disease from one organ to another. A. Cancer B. Malignant C. Metastasize ...
• Which of the following is NOT a phase of Interphase A. G1 Phase B. S ...
• In what stage of mitosis do the chromosomes move to the middle of the cell? ...
• In what stage of mitosis does the nuclear envelop form again, chromosomes start to look ...
• Uncontrolled cell division A. Cancer B. Tumors C. Malignant D. Benign
• In what stage of mitosis do chromosomes condense & are visible as sister chromatids, the ...
• A signal that comes from inside of the cell A. External regulation B. Internal Regulation ...
• When does the cytoplasm divide into two individual cells? A. Prophase B. Metaphase C. Telophase ...
• In what stage of mitosis do the sister chromatids separate & become individual chromosomes as ...
• What is the purpose of the cell cycle? A. Growth & repair B. Cell division ...
• Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins A. Assist in blood clotting ...
• What is a protein:  A. A polymer composed of many sugars. B. A polymer composed ...
• What atoms make up all carbohydrates? A. Carbon, Sulfur, Hydrogen B. Carbon, Oxygen, Phosphorus ...
• How do the number of H atoms compare to the number of O atoms in ...
• What is a peptide bond? A. Bond that holds two amino acids together. B. A ...
• How many different amino acids are there? A. 15 B. 20 C. 25 D. 30 ...
• What is an example of a protein? A. Strawberries B. Bread C. Pasta D. Steak ...
• Lipids are made of... A. CHO B. CHON C. CHONP D. CHONS
• Which macromolecule is this? A. carbohydrate ...
• What is the monomer of proteins? A. amino acids B. polypeptides C. nucleotides D. monosaccharides ...
• The process of adding water in order to break bonds within a polymer.... A. Dehydration ...
• Some carbohydrate foods are ________ A. fruits B. grains C. vegetables D. all the above ...
• The stage wherein tissues are being rebuilt and strengthened. A. Inflammatory Phase B. Proliferative Phase ...
• The following are the substances that will induce pain sensation after the initial injury EXCEPT: ...
• It is the substance that will cause transient vasodilation of the blood vessels immediately after ...
• Linear wounds heal faster than circular wounds. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• A type of scar that extends beyond the original boundaries of an injury and invade ...
• Dolor means: A. Swelling B. Heat C. Pain D. Redness E. Loss of function
• It is the formation of a calcified hematoma after a severe contusion to the muscles. ...
• It is the process of the development of a new blood supply system to the ...
• It is the substance that will cause transient vasoconstriction of the blood vessels immediately after ...
• Stages of fracture healing EXCEPT: A. Impaction B. Introduction C. Inflammation D. Callus formation ...
• The type of leukocytes that first arrives after the initial injury. A. Eosinophil B. Basophil ...
• Excessive collagen production and scarring can be caused by: A. Infection B. Edema C. Excessive ...
• Excessive inflammation will promote faster tissue healing. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• A phase of EXTRAVASATION wherein the cells squeezes through the blood vessel walls. A. Margination ...
• A decrease in this type of vitamin will result in a decrease in collagen formation. ...
• A decrease in this type of vitamin will result in a decrease in Epithelialization ...
• A type of collagen that is abundant in the dermal-epidermal junction of the skin. ...
• It is considered the most important cell during the inflammatory phase. A. Red blood cells ...
• The type of leukocyte associated with parasitic infections. A. Eosinophil B. Basophil C. Neutrophil ...
• It is the journey of cells from inside the blood vessel to the tissue outside ...
• Real-time intraoperative radiography that emits large amounts of ionizing radiation and requires use of C-arm ...
• Which of the following diagnostic studies emits ionizing radiation? A. fluroscopy B. amplification C. latex ...
• Equipment used by CRNA or MD for induction, maintenance, monitoring, and reversal of a patient ...
• which of the following is the type of head fixation used frequently for craniotomy procedures? ...
• Area of an operating room suite adjacent to an OR, which may contain a scrub ...
• Area of an operating room suite where patients IV lines are started, sign consents, interview ...
• The emergency shut off valve for the Supply of oxygen into n OR is designated ...
• What distance from the portable X-ray unit should sterile members of the surgical team stand ...
• what is the abbreviation for the sets of references that provide information about all potentially ...
• Soiled sponges from the operative field are discarded into l A. trash can B. kick ...
• What should not be used in the OR A. closed toes shoes B. extension cords ...
• which of the following is a substance that is derived from tropical trees and that ...
• If you laugh when you hear a funny story, what nerves control that action? ...
• Our skin cannot sense ................... A. pain B. light C. heat D. cold
• What activities do autonomic nerves control? A. Heartbeat B. Walking C. Crying
• A typical brain weighs how much? A. 1.4 kilogram B. 50 grams C. 2 tons ...
• The nervous system is made up of these three parts: A. Brain, heart, and spinal ...
• Eating too much of which nutrients will harm the brain? A. Sugar B. Healthy lipid ...
• A nerve cell is also called a ......... A. neuron B. meuron C. norway ...
• Which part of the nervous system carries communication signals around the body? A. Brain ...
• In the bright light, iris _____ light to allow ______ light to enter the eye ...
• A student sitting on the last bench can read the letters written on the blackboard ...
• A person with a myopic eye cannot see objects beyond 1.2 m distinctly. What should ...
• What will allow eye to change the focal length of eye lens? This ability of ...
• For correction of myopic and hypermetropia defect eye, ______ and _______ lens are used ...
• Appearant position of the object when looking through hot air, fluctuates because A. Dispersion ...
• A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected ...
• Fine particles scatter which light more? A. red B. yellow C. blue D. violet ...
• ___________ regulates and controls the amount of light entering the eye. A. Iris B. pupil ...
• Myopia defect may arise due to A. excessive curvature of the eye lens B. elongation ...
• Angle of deviation in prism is the angle between A. Incident ray and refracted ray ...
• cataract is A. the crystalline lens of people at old age becomes milky and cloudy ...
• all are part of PPE except A. gowns B. paper towels C. mask D. gloves ...
• Handwashing should be performed for a minimum of: A. 5-10 seconds B. 10-15 seconds ...
• Pathogen that causes disease A. portal of exit B. susceptible host C. causative agent ...
• person who gets a disease because of weak defenses A. causative agent B. susceptible host ...
• What is communicable? A. spread of disease or infection from person to person with (in)direct ...
• An infection that begins in a healthcare facility is a A. endogenous B. nosocomial ...
• pathogen transmitted through air, soil, food or feces A. direct contact B. indirect contact ...
• The smallest microbe is A. virus B. bacterium C. yeast D. spirochete
• Which of the following isn't a microorganism A. bacteria B. virus C. protozoa D. ant ...
• Immunizations are available to prevent A. AIDS B. hepatitis B C. hepatitis C D. herpes ...
• infection acquired while body defenses are weak A. nosocomial B. opportunistic  C. direct D. indirect ...
• You do not need to wash your hands as long as you are wearing gloves ...
• Vector-borne transmission of disease occurs A. when the hands come into contact with a fomite ...
• A type of disease where the body attacks itself is called? A. automatic B. antibiotic ...
• what is constantly beating towards the outside of your body to remove pathogens A. cilia ...
• Viruses are not affected by antibiotics. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What are universal precautions? A. safety standards of universal studios B. standard requirements of PPE ...
• An example of indirect contact with a pathogen is A. person to person contact ...
• Bacteria that cause disease are identified by A. signs and symptoms of the disease ...
• What is the single most effective way to break the chain of infection? A. handwashing ...
• Hepatitis A is transmitted by: A. blood and body fluid exposure B. feces and saliva ...
• Examples of illnesses caused by viruses are A. syphillis and gonorrhea B. AIDS and hepatitis ...
• how many links are in the chain of infection? A. 10 B. 5 C. 12 ...
• Infection can be transmitted by A. touching sterile items B. disinfecting equipment C. blood  and ...
• Body defenses against infection include A. fingernails and toenails B. hair on the head ...
• Health care workers who have direct patient contact are advised to take the A. AIDS ...
• Microorganisms that cause disease are called A. microbes B. flora C. pathogens D. bacilli ...
• Staphylococcal infections may cause A. athlete's foot B. wound infections C. herpes D. measles and ...
• An example of a droplet transmission by disease is by A. coughing, sneezing, or talking ...
• Handwashing should be performed before and after: A. direct patient contact B. touching an environmental ...
• A micro-organism that causes disease is.... A. an interferon B. an erythrocyte C. a troublemaker ...
• What is a pathogen A. a doctor who specializes in curing diseases B. microbe that ...
• cranioMETRY would be the act of....... A. measuring how tall you are B. measuring how ...
• PLASTY is the suffix meaning A. removal B. to cut into C. surgical repair ...
• metry is the suffix for A. the process of measuring B. math C. removing a ...
• The study of life would be this..... A. biology B. cardiology C. archeology D. astrology ...
• angioEDEMA is A. removal of blood vessels B. taking blood C. swelling of the blood ...
• If I have a LIPOMA, I have this...... A. fatty tumor B. fatty liver ...
• -edema is the suffix for .... A. swelling B. inflammation C. disease D. study of ...
• -scopy is the suffix for A. observing B. cutting C. swelling D. surgical repair ...
• Another term for heart DISEASE would be A. cardioMEGALY B. cardioPATHY C. cardioGRAPH D. cardioGENIC ...
• The suffix with the meaning of tumor or mass is...... A. otomy B. itis ...
• otomy is the suffix for A. surgical repair B. swelling C. tumor D. an incision ...
• If a patient has conjunctivITIS, they have what of the eye? A. inflammation B. cancer ...
• nephroPATHY means A. enlarged kidney B. removal of a kidney C. disease of the kidney ...
• A rhinoPLASTY would be this..... A. removal of an organ B. surgical repair of the ...
• -itis is the suffix for A. disease B. cancer C. inflammation D. illness
• Which agency is responsible for designating disinfecting agents as being effective enough to be used ...
• A sign of bacterial infection is the presense of_________. A. lesions B. tissue C. pus ...
• The type of bacteria that rarely shows any active motility is known as ________. ...
• Chemical products that destroy all bacteria, fungi, and viruses (but not spores) on surfaces are ...
• One-celled microorganisms with both plant and animal characteristics are known as___________. A. diseases B. bacteria ...
• As of June 2015. both federal and state laws require that manufactures supply a(n) ______for ...
• Spiral of corkscrew shaped bacteria are called_________. A. bacilli B. cocci C. spirilla D. retrobacteria ...
• Invasion of body tissues by disease causing pathogenic bacteria can result in a(n)__________. A. infection ...
• A pimple or an abscess is an example of a________. A. blood disease B. general ...
• Short, rod- shaped bacteria are called_________. A. bacilli B. cocci C. spirilla D. retrobacteria
• Nonpathogenic bacteria are _______. A. harmful B. harmless C. disease-producing D. toxic
• Round-shaped bacteria are called__________. A. bacilli B. cocci C. spirilla D. retrobacteria
• Which organisms are pus-forming bacteria that grow in clusters like bunches of grapes? A. Streptococci ...
• carp/o A. joint B. bursa C. cartilage D. carpus
• Chondr/o A. joint B. bursa C. cartilage D. clavicle
• clavicul/o A. cartilage B. skull C. clavicle D. rib
• femor/o A. skull B. rib C. femur D. coccyx
• ili/o A. joint B. coccyx C. rib D. ilium
• burs/o A. joint B. bursa C. cartilage D. skull
• cost/o A. cartilage B. bursa C. skull D. rib
• crani/o A. skull B. rib C. cartilage D. coccyx
• fibul/o A. coccyx B. rib C. fibula D. bursa
• coccyg/o A. rib B. bursa C. cartilage D. coccyx
• arthr/o A. bursa B. joint C. cartilage D. rib
• humer/o A. cartilage B. bursa C. humerus D. joint
• Proteins are made up of smaller chemical units called? A. Amino Acids B. Sugars ...
• A complex carbohydrate that the body is unable to digest A. Protein B. Fiber ...
• A chemical substance that gives your body what it needs to grow and function properly ...
• This is stored in your liver and muscles and later used for energy? A. Glucose ...
• Source of protein that contains all nine of the essential amino acids? A. Complete Protein ...
• True or False: Having too much cholesterol in the body increases a persons risk of ...
• The amino acid made in the body? A. Essential B. Non-esssential C. Complete protein ...
• This is a example of a incomplete protein A. Eggs B. Fish C. Meat ...
• Lacks one or more of the essential amino acids A. Complete protein B. Incomplete Protein ...
• Starches which are ,Chains of glucose linked together are called ? A. Simple Carbohydrates ...
• Diseases such as tuberculosis and typhoid are caused by __________ A. bacteria B. fungi ...
• The teeth meant for cutting and biting the food is called A. Incisors B. Canines ...
• The process of digestion starts in A. Stomach B. Small intestine C. Mouth
• The sticky yellow layer formed on the tooth is called A. Cavities B. Plaque ...
• The undigested food is passed into A. Small Intestine B. Stomach C. Large Intestine ...
• How many sets of teeth have human beings A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 ...
• The number of molars present in adult human teeth is A. 12 B. 8 ...
• The part of the digestive system , where all the useful nutrients are absorbed by ...
• These are the diseases which are caused by virus A. Typhoid, Tuberculosis B. Influenza ,Flu ...
• a tooth has a.... A. crown and root B. head and foot C. eyes and ...
• Special digestive juices produced by the ____________ and ___________ are sent to the small intestine ...
• There are _______ types of microbes. A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
• The hardest substance in human body A. Brain B. Bones C. Enamel D. Dentine
• This is the soft part of the tooth which consists of blood vessels and nerves ...
• Food passes from the mouth through this long tube called the A. Small intestine ...
• The first set of teeth that appears when a child is 2 and half year ...
• The third pair of molars is known as A. Premolars B. Wisdom teeth C. Canines ...
• Teeth that are used in tearing food are called A. Premolars B. Molars C. Canines ...
• The disease causing microbes are called __________ A. Germs B. Protozoa C. Both D. None ...
• Finger like projections on the wall of small intestine are called as A. Villi ...
• It includes training to improve – Speed, Agility, Balance, Coordination, Power, and Reaction time. ...
• It can lead to plaque in arteries which may also cause the risk of a ...
• It is the ratio of the circumference of the waist to that of the hips. ...
• It refers to a particular kind of exercise undertaken. A. Frequency B. Intensity C. Time ...
• It is the ability of the body part to move at the joint in a ...

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