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What system does the thyroid gland belong to? A. Endocrine B. Digestive C. Nervous ...
What is Hashimoto's disease treatment ? A. Use of medication B. No treatment
The released of the thyroid hormone is controlled by A. Aniturary B. Hypothalamus C. Occipital ...
If the pregnancies get hyperthyroidism, will the newborn be affected? A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
What supply is needed for a correct functioning of thyroid ? A. Iodine B. Calcium ...
How does thyroid affect the body ? A. Body temperature B. Heart rate C. Blood ...
What causes hyperthyroidism ? A. T4 > T3 B. Inflammation of the thyroid gland ...
Why do thyroid hormones affect every cells in the body ? A. Thyroid hormones don't ...
Weight loss, rapid heart rate, and heat sensitivity are likely symptoms of... A. Hypothyroidism (underactive ...
What does hyperthyroidism mean ? A. The thyroid gland is underactive B. The thyroid gland ...
Where is thyroid gland located ? A. In the neck B. At the base of ...
e copy all our DNA during ___. A. G2 phase B. mitosis C. G1 phase ...
A diagnostic procedure that involves removing a tissue sample from a patient. A. biopsy ...
Cells grow check for DNA mistakes during ___. A. G2 phase B. M phase ...
Which is not a hallmark of Cancer? A. Resisting cell death B. Inducing angiogenesis ...
Cells grow and do their job during ___. A. G2 phase B. M phase ...
Cancer spreading to another tissue is called A. Malignant B. Metastesis C. Mitosis D. Replication ...
Any substance that is known to cause cancer is called a A. carcinogen B. nicolyte ...
____ means cancerous. A. Malignant B. Metastesis C. Mitosis D. Replication
Cells get ready for mitosis during ___. A. G2 phase B. M phase C. G1 ...
Cancer tumors result from A. rapid cell division B. rapid DNA replication C. slow cell ...
Make 2 daughter cells A. G2 phase B. M phase C. G1 phase D. S ...
Tumor cells grow because of A. errors in M Phase. B. incomplete DNA replication. ...
What happens during S Phase? A. anaphase B. mitosis C. cancer D. DNA Replication
Cancer is A. a premature stop in the cell cycle. B. uncontrolled mitosis. C. programmed ...
Cells divide during ___. A. G2 phase B. M phase C. G1 phase D. S ...
Uncontrolled cell growth is called___. A. Mitosis B. DNA Replication C. Cancer D. Radiation
Bronchodilators, a type of asthma medication, work by ________________. A. Reducing the number of airborne ...
Which term refers to techniques and tests used to identify a disease? A. Pathology ...
Multiple Sclerosis is a potentially disabling disease of the ______________. A. Endocrine system B. Cardiovascular ...
Which condition of asthma causes the airways to redden and swell, decreasing airflow? A. Muscle ...
Which term refers to the nature of a disease? A. Prognosis B. Diagnosis C. Etiology ...
Which term refers to the study of the causes of a disease? A. Etiology ...
To which body system is diabetes linked? A. Nervous B. Digestive C. Endocrine D. Muscular ...
Which condition of asthma causes the tightening of the bands of muscles around the airways, ...
Which organ makes insulin? A. Pancreas B. Kidney C. Gall Bladder D. Liver
___________________ diabetes is when the body does not use insulin properly. A. Type 1 ...
Parkinson's disease involves... A. the death of nerve cells around the spinal cord B. the ...
Which of the following can cause the various types of diabetes? A. Inherited risks from ...
Around what age does Parkinson's Disease typically present itself? A. Pre-adolescent B. 20 to 40 ...
Parkinson's disease is: A. A chronic and progressive disease of the endocrine system B. A ...
The hormone that regulates blood sugar levels is: A. Glucosamine B. Glucose C. Insulin ...
Intensity during a cardiorespiratory endurance workout means: A. how often an activity is performed ...
Felicia is 15 years old, what is the lowest her heart rate can be when ...
S.M.A.R.T. is an acronym used as a guideline to follow when setting a goal. SMART meaning: ...
To improve cardiorespiratory endurance the frequency of the workout sessions should be A. 2 to ...
Which FITT Principle variable is changed when you increase the length of a run from ...
According to the FITT Principle, how intense should your cardiorespiratory endurance exercise be? A. 60% ...
What is another medical term for osteoporosis? A. A Porous bones B. Porous joints ...
Performing low repetitions, at high intensity of anaerobic exercise improves muscular: A. strength B. endurance ...
Cardiorespiratory endurance is best described as the ability of the A. heart and lungs to ...
CRE stands for? A. Compression, Rest, Elevate B. Cardiorespiratory Endurance C. Cardiovascular Endurance D. Cardiorespiratory ...
The principle that is used for enhancing your overall health, performance and appearance A. FUN ...
You can improve or maintain how well heart and lungs work by applying the FITT ...
An example of Cardiorespiratory Endurance is: A. Running the pacer B. Running a sprint ...
Intensity during a cardiorespiratory endurance workout means A. how often an activity is performed ...
In order to live a healthy and active lifestyle, one should apply the FITT Principle ...
If you are walking at a pace that causes your heart to beat less than ...
Increasing the speed or pace swimming laps A. frequency B. intensity C. time D. type ...
The result or achievement toward effort is directed is known as this. A. Goal ...
The age-adjusted formula for finding your MHR is 220 minus a person's: A. Age ...
How long a cardiorespiratory endurance workout session lasts is called A. frequency B. intensity ...
The muscles ability to move a joint through a full range of motion is call ...
Resistance training is the best way to build which component of Fitness? A. Cardiorespiratory Endurance ...
Which one of these activities represent Cardiorespiratory Endurance? A. Swimming B. Using free weights ...
What is the origin of the brachioradialis? A. scapula B. distal half of humerus ...
This muscle wraps around the front of the lower leg, pulling the knee upward and ...
When you extend your arm to push the floor button on an elevator, the primer ...
This muscle is located on the upper chest and function in adduction and flexion of ...
Which elbow muscle provides flexion and assists in supination? A. triceps brachii B. biceps brachii ...
Which muscle inserts on the deltoid tuberosity of the humerus? A. latissimus dorsi B. brachialis ...
Select the insertion of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. A. Mastoid Process B. Manubrium C. Clavicle ...
Which muscle does dorsiflexion on the foot? A. Tibialis Anterior B. Gastrocnemius C. Soleus ...
The biceps is attached to the scapula and the radius. The radius would be considered ...
The ORIGIN is the muscle attachment to the _______ bone. A. Stationary B. Movable
Choose the muscle that extends the thigh. A. Vastus Medialis B. Vastus Intermedias C. Semimembranosus ...
The origin of this muscle is the humerus and scapula and its insertion is the ...
Which muscle extends, adducts, and applies medial rotation of the arm A. biceps brachii ...
Which elbow muscle provides extension of the elbow and originates on the humerus? A. biceps ...
What does the latissimus dorsi insert on? A. radius B. ulna C. humerus D. scapula ...
Where do the gluteus maximus, gluteus medius and sartorius muscles originate? A. spinal column ...
Which muscle inserts on the radial tuberosity? A. biceps brachii B. triceps brachii C. brachialis ...
Which muscle elevates, retracts, and rotates the scapula? We use it to shrug our shoulders. ...
Which muscle inserts on the coronoid process and tuberosity of the ulna? A. brachialis ...
Teres Minor, Infraspinatus, Supraspinatus and Subscapularis are categorized as which type of muscle? A. Rotator ...
Where does the deltoid originate from? A. end of clavicle and scapula B. clavicle and ...
What is an action of the gluteus maximus? A. Flex the thigh. B. Rotate the ...
Where does the brachialis originate from? A. distal half of the humerus B. proximal half ...
The muscle attachment to the movable bone is the: A. Muscle belly B. Muscle body ...
What muscle inserts on the humerus and originates on the clavicle and sternum A. deltoid ...
Which muscle tissue helps move food through the intestines? A. Cardiac muscle tissue B. Skeletal ...
Which muscle tissue has cells that are joined by intercalated discs? A. Cardiac muscle tissue ...
Which muscle tissue has multiple nuclei in each cell? A. Cardiac muscle tissue B. Skeletal ...
Which muscle tissue controls the volume of organs like the stomach, bladder, etc.? A. Cardiac ...
Which muscle tissue appears to have branched, striated cells? A. Cardiac muscle tissue B. Skeletal ...
Which muscle tissue is the image showing? A. ...
Which muscle tissue generates heat to maintain body temperature? A. Cardiac muscle tissue B. Skeletal ...
Which muscle tissue controls dilation/constriction of blood vessels, pupils? A. Cardiac muscle tissue B. Skeletal ...
Which muscle tissue is the image showing? A. ...
Which muscle tissue is the image showing? A. ...
Which muscle tissue helps maintain posture? A. Cardiac muscle tissue B. Skeletal muscle tissue ...
Which muscle tissue allows communication (speaking, facial expressions body language)? A. Cardiac muscle tissue ...
Which of the following does NOT describe a common pathophysiology of shock? A. dilated blood ...
Your patient has been impaled through the right thigh by a long piece of metal ...
The material placed directly over a wound to help control bleeding is called a(n): ...
Which of the following mechanisms would MOST LIKELY cause serious internal bleeding? A. ground level ...
A wound where the top layers of skin have been scraped off, commonly seen in ...
A 33 year old male cut himself with a hunting knife. He has a large ...
Which of the following interventions is MOST important to the survival of a patient showing ...
A 37 year old female as cut her arm while using a circular saw. The ...
Why does a patient's pulse rate increase as shock develops? A. to force oxygenated blood ...
Which one of the following best describes the appropriate care for an amputated body part? ...
All of the following are signs of shock EXCEPT: A. increased pulse rate B. decreasing ...
You arrive at the scene of an unresponsive man who crashed his motorcycle into a ...
A patient has a small wooden splinter impaled in their eye. You should: A. remove ...
Your patient shows signs of shock, and you suspect she is bleeding internally. You should: ...
Psychogenic shock is commonly known as: A. hyperperfusion B. stress reaction shock C. decompensation ...
The four categories of shock include: A. psychogenic, respiratory, hypoglycemic, neurogenic B. cardiogenic, hypovolemic, distributive, ...
You are caring for a patient with a severe soft tissue injury to the lower ...
Which one of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of arterial bleeding? A. blood ...
You arrive on scene to find a young girl with an active nosebleed. She is ...
When the body sustains a significant loss of blood, which type of shock is most ...
When injury to the spinal cord causes systemic dilation of the blood vessels in the ...
Which one of the following patients is most at risk for multisystem trauma? A. 16 ...
Most cases of external bleeding can be controlled by: A. applying direct pressure B. using ...
A 23 year old woman has been kicked in the abdomen by a horse. She ...
Which of the following describes the appropriate body substance isolation (PPE) precautions to use when ...
Sweet clover poisoning involves what symptom? A. discoloration of the skin B. vomiting C. blindness ...
What is the time that it takes for half of the chemical or toxin to ...
Which domestic animal most often experiences venomous snakebites? A. dogs B. livestock C. sheep ...
Poisons and toxins are most commonly excreted from the body through which organ? A. lung ...
Blue-green algae are also known as what? A. Cyanobacteria B. Teppobacteria C. Winbacteria D. Fanetebacteria ...
Chronic toxicosis typically refers to exposure longer than what time period? A. 24 hours ...
Which organ is most often involved in the intoxication of poisons? A. liver B. heart ...
What ingredient in raw bread dough can cause poisoning? A. flour B. soy C. sugar ...
Which animal is most often affected by sweet clover poisoning? A. birds B. cattle ...
Rodenticides often interfere with which vitamin in the body? A. vitamin A B. Vitamin B ...
Toxicology is the study of what? A. Disease B. poisons C. parasites D. death
The amount of toxin needed to poison an animal is often dependent on what factor? ...
Which of the following has the highest concentration of theobromine? A. white chocolate B. milk ...
Which of the following is an example of a viperine snake? A. cobra B. mamba ...
Cyanide affects cattle through which of the following? A. apple tree leave B. hay ...
This cardiovascular disease can be describes as the blockage of a blood vessel with fat/plaque ...
Found in many fast and fried food, this type of fat is rigid like saturated ...
This fatty acid specifically has the double bond on the sixth carbon in the structure ...
True or False: Foods only have one type of fatty acid in them. For example, ...
What organ in our GI Tract starts to breaks up fat into droplets? A. mouth ...
This organ produces bile that will eventually be sent to the small intestine to aid ...
_______________ have multiple double bonds in their structure. A. monounsaturated fatty acids B. Omega- 6 ...
This medical emergency can be described as a blockage of a vessel that leads to ...
________________ have ONLY one double bond in their structure. A. monounsaturated fatty acids B. Omega- ...
Hydrogenation is the process of adding _____________ to unsaturated fatty acids, making them more saturated ...
Cholesterol is an example of this type of lipid that is made up of a ...
What organ in our GI Tract moistens the food with fat in it? A. mouth ...
This organic functional group is present in all phospholipids and is represented by PO₄ ...
This organic functional group is present in all triglycerides and is represented by CH₃ ...
This type of lipid consists of two fatty acids attached to a glycerol backbone ...
This organic functional group is present in all triglycerides and is represented by COOH ...
Steric acid is an 18 carbon saturated fatty acid. It is: A. short fatty acid ...
True or false: Too little fat of any kind can be detrimental to our health, ...
____________ produces the pancreatic enzyme to break apart triglycerides. A. liver B. pancreas C. gallbladder ...
This fatty acid specifically has the double bond on the third to fourth carbon in ...
The ______________ stores and releases the bile to the small intestine. A. liver B. pancreas ...
TRUE or False: Fatty acids found in triglycerides can be different whereas a glycerol backbone ...
This type of fatty acid chain is made up of ONLY single bonded carbon atoms. ...
What organ in the digestive system contributes the majority of digestion of lipids? A. mouth ...
There are two forms of lipids with different states. These two are fats which are ...
This type of lipid consists of three fatty acids attached to a glycerol backbone ...
While reviewing a medical record, a notation of 4+ edema of the right leg was ...
The second heart sound is the result of: A. opening of the mitral and tricuspid ...
During a cardiovascular assessment, the nurse finds a bluish tinge on the client's lips, fingers, ...
The student nurse wishes to listen in the pulmonic valve area. To do this, the ...
The function of the venous system is: A. to hold more blood when blood volume ...
Select The best description of the tricuspid valve. A. left semilunar valve B. right atrioventricular ...
During inspection of the carotid arteries, the nurse assessed a bounding pulse. The nurse should ...
When palpating the carotid arteries, it is essential that the nurse do which of the ...
The function of the pulmonic valve is to: A. divide the left atrium and left ...
In preparing to perform a cardiovascular assessment, the nurse should initially place the client in ...
The nurse is performing a cardiovascular assessment. To evaluate the client of pulmonary edema, the ...
When performing a dietary history on a client with a cardiovascular history, the nurse should ...
When auscultating the heart, your first step is to: A. identify s1 and s2 ...
The stethoscope bell should be pressed lightly against the skin so that: A. chest hair ...
What is the Lymphatic System? A. A vital part of the immune system B. A ...
What types of tissues does the spleen consist of? A. White pulp and red pulp ...
Which system includes the Spleen and Tonsils? A. Digestive B. Lymphatic C. Endocrine
Where do Lymphocytes destroy harmful substances? A. Lymph nodes B. Bone marrow C. Spleen
What organs does the Lymphatic system include? A. Bone marrow, spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, thymus, ...
What do Lymph Nodes contain? A. Blood B. Lymphocytes C. Lymph
What does the Spleen look like? A. A cube B. A cone C. A capsule ...
What do Lymph Nodes do? A. Filter blood B. Filter substances that travel through the ...
What is the function of Tonsils? A. To prevent germs from getting in your mouth ...
What is the Thymus Gland important to? A. Digestive system B. Immune system C. Circulatory ...
A genetic blood disease due to the presence of an abnormal form of hemoglobin, namely ...
Arrhythmia describes: A. irregularity or loss of rhythm of the heartbeat B. general ...
The combining form meaning fatty paste is: A. aort/o B. atri/o C. angi/o ...
Condition of thickening, hardening, and loss of elasticity in the arterial walls. A. atherosclerosis ...
Localized, balloon-like dilation of a blood vessel, usually an artery. A. aneurysm B. arteriosclerosis ...
Inflammation of a vein caused by the formation of a clot. A. phlebitis B. emobolus ...
How many defects are associated with tetrology of Fallot? A. 2 B. 1 C. 4 ...
Fast heart beat. A. tachypnea B. arrhythmia C. tachycardia D. bradycardia
This condition occurs when the heart doesn't pump at full capacity and blood backs up ...
A stationary blood clot along the wall of a blood vessel, frequently causing vascular obstruction. ...
Blood pressure is measuring pressure on A. a vein. B. an artery. C. an artery ...
The hardening of the arteries refers to this term: A. Atherosclerosis B. COPD C. Ateriorsclerosis ...
Disease in which narrowing of the arteries results in decreased blood flow to the extremities, ...
The term phleb refers to: A. Clots B. Vein C. Artery D. Vessel
Condition characterized by severe, constricting pain or pressure in the chest. A. angina B. fibrillation ...
The formation or presence of a blood clot in a blood vessel. The vessel may ...
Inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart. A. congestive heart failure B. endocarditis C. pericarditis ...
A condition resulting in discoloration of fingers and/or toes when a person is exposed to ...
Inflammation of a valve especially of the heart. A. valvulitis B. phlebitis C. varicose veins ...
Enlarged, twisted, superficial veins, most commonly seen in the lower extremities. A. thrombophlebitis B. athreosclerosis ...
A therapy, is a treatment to dissolve dangerous clots in blood vessels, improve blood flow, ...
Identify the term that best describes a disease caused partly by unhealthy behaviors and partly ...
A hormone that causes cells to remove glucose from the bloodstream A. Chemotherapy B. Diabetes ...
What is a controllable risk factor? A. age B. race C. exercise D. heredity ...
Which is not a lifestyle disease? A. type 2 diabetes B. cancer C. cardiovascular disease ...
Which Lifestyle Disease is related to heart attack, atherosclerosis, stroke, and high blood pressure? ...
Which of these individuals has a sedentary lifestyle? A. Leslie enjoys playing video games but ...
What causes athlete's foot? A. virus B. Bacteria C. Fungi D. Balloons
A group of cells that invade and destroy surrounding tissues. A. Benign tumor B. Malignant ...
What does RICE stand for? A. Rest, Ice, Cardiovascular, Evaluate B. Reassure, Inform, Call, ...
Which of the following are habits that could help reduce your risk of catching an ...
Physically removing the cancer cells from the body? A. Chemotherapy B. Radiation C. Surgery
Cardiovascular Disease A. disease of the heart and blood vessels B. body doesn't produce enough ...
Stroke A. an interruption of blood flow to the heart B. abnormal cell growth ...
a disease characterized by the buildup of fatty materials on the inside walls of the ...
Atherosclerosis A. interruption of blood flow to the heart B. a condition that describes the ...
A stroke occurs when there is an interruption of blood flow to the ___________. ...
Which muscle has almost a pure C5 innervation A. Deltoid only B. Deltoid and Biceps ...
This muscle is a flexor of the elbow and shoulder as well as the spinster ...
Testing for C5 integrity involves testing which muscles A. Deltoid only B. Deltoid and Biceps ...
What is the role of the serratus anterior in shoulder abduction? A. Stabilizes Scapula ...
Interruption in basic architecture reflex such as damage to muscle spindle, axon, SC synapse, muscle ...
The anterior part of the deltoid ____ the shoulder. A. Flexes B. Abducts C. Extends ...
Trauma to axillary Nerve/C5 root wi cause damage to dermatome that runs from A. Summit ...
This reflex is an indicator of C5 neurologic integrity A. Biceps Reflex B. Brachioradialis Reflex ...
This muscle has a mixture of C5 and C6 A. Deltoid only B. Deltoid and ...
Pressure on a nerve root can result in? A. Hyporeflexia B. Hyperreflexia C. Areflexia ...
What is the MAJOR innervator nerve root of diaphragm? A. C4 B. C6 C. C7 ...
Upper motor neuron lesion/interruption can lead to? A. Hyporeflexia B. Hyperreflexia C. Areflexia
The main nerve for the Deltoid C5 distribution is A. Axillary Nerve B. Musculocutaneous Nerve ...
The Biceps Brachii is innervated by the A. Musculocutaneous Nerve B. Axillary Nerve C. Radial ...
How will you notice the Biceps reflex? A. Bicep will jerk slightly B. Triceps will ...
Supraspinatus Muscle = C5, C6 = A. Axillary Nerve B. Suprascapular Nerve C. Radial Nerve ...
Which part of the deltoid abducts the shoulder most powerfully? A. Middle B. Anterior ...
Biceps Brachii testing for C5 with A. Elbow Flexion B. Elbow Extension C. Shoulder Abduction ...
Deltoid Muscle = C5, C6 = A. Axillary Nerve B. Suprascapular Nerve C. Radial Nerve ...
The posterior part of the deltoid ____ the shoulder. A. Flexes B. Abducts C. Extends ...
Classic floppy baby A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4 ...
Pseudobulbar Palsy A. UMND B. LMND C. Both UMND and LMND
MND is A. LMNL B. UMNL C. both LMNL and UMNL D. all of the ...
Chronic Werdnig-Hoffman disease A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4 ...
Primary Lateral Sclerosis A. UMND B. LMND C. Both UMND and LMND
< 6 months A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4 ...
KD affects women while males are carriers A. TRUE B. FALSE
Paraplegia is _______ A. LMNL B. UMNL
Kennedy disease A. UMND B. LMND C. Both UMND and LMND
Parkinson's affected _______ A. LMNL B. UMNL
Progressive bulbar palsy A. UMND B. LMND C. Both UMND and LMND
CVA affected _______ A. LMNL B. UMNL
Spinal cord affected _______ A. LMNL B. UMNL
Spinal Muscular Atrophy A. UMND B. LMND C. Both UMND and LMND
Present > 18 months A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type ...
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) A. UMND B. LMND C. Both UMND and LMND
Poor prognosis usually die by 2 years A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type ...
PLS shows _________ symtpoms A. UMNL B. LMNL
Progressive Muscular Atrophy A. UMND B. LMND C. Both UMND and LMND
MND affects A. adults B. children C. adults and children
Expected to live into their 20's and beyond A. Type 1 B. Type 2 ...
Acute Werdnig-Hoffman disease A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4 ...
Muscular dystrophy is _______ A. LMNL B. UMNL
Kugelberg-Welander disease A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4
Present 6-18 months A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4 ...
ALS progresses slower than PLS A. TRUE B. FALSE
MND affects person's mind/personlaity A. TRUE B. FALSE
_______ is aka Lou Gehrig's Disease A. ALS B. MND C. Multiple sclerosis D. PLS ...
A nurse is caring for a pt. with a tracheostomy. The nurse notes the patient ...
The clinical instructor is watching a student perform trach care on a client. Which action ...
The correct suction setting for trach suctioning is continuous suction at 80-120 mmHg. A. TRUE ...
The nurse knows that what step will help prevent hypoxia during suctioning? A. Continuous pulse ...
A client has a tracheostomy inserted due to copious amounts of tracheobronchial secretions r/t pneumonia. ...
What nursing intervention will you perform pre-and post suctioning in regard to Oxygen delivery? ...
The rationale for providing adequate hydration for a client with a tracheostomy is... A. to ...
Vigorous coughing, or manipulation of the tracheostomy can cause what complication? A. tachycardia B. infection ...
A patient needs to have a tracheostomy placed for laryngeal cancer compromising the airway. What ...
A confused patient pulls out the tracheostomy. What is the priority nursing action? A. Maintain ...
Which is NOT a transplantable organ? A. pancreas B. stomach C. kidney D. small intestine ...
What is transplantation? A. change of an infected organ B. Replace of an infected Organ ...
What is a possible complication of a lung transplant? A. Infection B. Cold C. Allergies ...
When was the first successful kidney transplant performed? A. 1934 B. 1954 C. 1989 ...
Who can be a donator? A. Anyone, regardless of age or medical history. B. Only ...
Which criterion is NOT used to match an organ to a recipient? A. age ...
What does a xenotransplantation involve? A. It is a transplant of organs or tissue from ...
Whats a disease that can cause a person to need new lungs? A. lung cancer ...
Tissues can be transplanted. A. TRUE B. FALSE
Average time you need to wait to get a hold of a lung? A. around ...
What does an isograft involve? A. It is a transplant of an organ or tissue ...
Schilling's test is used to identify the type of cause of megaloblastic anemia. A. TRUE ...
Ferrous fumarate is given orally A. TRUE B. FALSE
A myeloid growth factor produced in bacterial expression system. A. G-CSF (Filgrastim) B. GM-CSF (Sargramostim) ...
Type of anemia due to Vit. B12 deficiency A. Hemachromatosis B. Microcytic-hypochromic anemia C. Megaloblastic ...
Toxic effect of Myeloid Growth Factor A. kidney failure B. spleenic rupture C. sickle cell ...
Stimulus of erythropoietin A. renal deficiency B. folic acid deficiency C. both a & b ...
It is known as a synthetic erythropoietin A. Myeloid Growth Factor B. Darbepoetin alfa ...
Will's disease is a folic acid deficiency that will cause megaloblastic anemia. A. TRUE ...
MOA of Trimethoprin A. binds to iron B. DNA synthesis C. erythropoietin secretion inhibitor ...
One has pernicious anemia, if one has gastric dystrophy. A. TRUE B. FALSE C. I ...
This is necessary for the synthesis of purines, amino acid, and DNA A. Folic acid ...
A myeloid growth factor produced in yeast expression system. A. G- CSF (Filgrastim) B. GM-CSF ...
Iron metabolism regulator A. Hepcidin B. Amikacin C. Deferasirox D. Ferritin
Iron can be found on the following, except: A. intestinal mucosa B. none of the ...
Antidote for iron toxicity A. Hepcidin B. Deferoxamine C. Miferolamine D. Misoprostone
All the genes in both a prokaryotic cell and a eukaryotic cell are expressed at ...
The difference between DNA code and the epigenome is that the DNA code is ...
Made of chromatin and become visible during cell division A. chromosomes B. histones C. mitochondria ...
The disc shaped protein core that DNA wraps around is called A. histone B. nucleosome ...
The complete instructions for making an organism, consisting of all the genetic material in that ...
The study of changes in organisms caused by modification of gene expression rather than alteration ...
Protein molecules around which DNA is tightly coiled in chromatin A. Histones B. Whey ...
True or False: Epigenetic changes can be passed on to future generations. A. TRUE ...
True or False: Epigenetic changes are permanent. A. TRUE B. FALSE
A traumatic event experienced by an organism can affect the health of its children and ...
Which of these can cause a gene to be expressed more - that is, can ...
What is methylation? A. The addition of methyl groups to DNA so that it becomes ...
Gene expression is the ability for a gene to be: A. in the genome. ...
The chemical compound modifications to the DNA code that can tell the DNA code what ...
At what stage in the life of identical twins is the epigenome expected to be ...
Epigenetics modulates genetic expression: A. differently in each cell in the body. B. by altering ...
Kevin has a lot of family members who have high blood pressure. He is at ...
Having a lot of doctors living near by would most likely be an example of ...
Beth takes a shower daily. She is practicing... A. healthy behavior B. good heredity ...
Eating a well balanced diet is an example of this factor affecting health A. environment ...
Not caring about school or homework is an example of this factor affecting health. ...
Scoliosis is an example of a disease that is... A. Contracted through the environment ...
Johnny's grandmother doesn't have a car and can't walk to her doctor's appointments. Which factor ...
If a trait or disease is passed down from one generation to the next, we ...
You do not have health insurance and it costs a lot of money to go ...
The student who sits next to you in health class has a cold. You are ...
You have blue eyes because your parents have blue eyes. This is an example of ...
Carson Wentz was 5 foot 8 inches in the 8th grade but grew to be ...
Carson feels like his rehab is going well and is committed to supporting his teammates. ...
Karen's parents smoke in her house. She is at risk for lung disease because of ...
Carson Wentz has been performing physical therapy for 9 months. Working out is an example ...
People aged 5-17 should do how many minutes of moderate intensity exercise per day? ...
Washing your hands regularly is proven in helping to stop the spread of communicable diseases? ...
GERMS CAN SPREAD THROUGH: A. TOUCHING YOUR NOSE AND MOUTH WITH WASHED HANDS. B. TOUCH ...
which of these is considered a modifiable risk factor A. genetics B. age C. type ...
Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor? A. Ethnicity B. Age C. Unhealthy ...
Which of the following is a type of non-communicable disease? A. Covid-19 B. Cancer ...
We need to aim for _______ hours of sleep every night. A. 5-6 B. 4-5 ...
A disease or illness is a medical condition that stops the body from working normally? ...
SHOWERING, WASHING HAIR AND BRUSHING TEETH ARE ALL INCLUDED IN: A. HYGIENE B. WELLNESS ...
Infectious means... A. A disease cannot be spread easily from one person to another ...
Screening and vaccinations are two ways in which we can lower our risk of getting ...
risk factors for developing a disease or illness are? A. modifiable B. non-modifiable C. both ...
Communicable diseases cannot be spread from person to person A. TRUE B. FALSE
A physical therapist assistant is working with a patient who has pulmonary disease and is ...
What is the appropriate action with a patient who reports feeling lightheaded during use of ...
Which intervention is the primary focus for a child with cystic fibrosis? A. Postural drainage ...
A physical therapist assistant treating a patient with congestive heart failure should be alert fro ...
A physical therapist assistant is working with a patient who is receiving treatment for a ...
A physical therapist assistant is instructed to begin treating a distance runner who has been ...
A patient who is recovering form surgery is receiving postural drainage as part fo the ...
A patient has developed congestive heart failure after a myocardial infarction. What pulmonary signs and ...
A women who is 12 weeks pregnant asks a physical therapist assistant if it is ...
A patient who is 70 pounds overweight is recovering from a myocardial infarction, which occurred ...
Four weeks after a myocardial infarction, a patient enters an outpatient physical therapy cardiac rehabilitation ...
Which of the following contraindications to joint mobilization is common for patients with chronic pulmonary ...
A phase 2 outpatient cardiac rehabilitation program uses circuit training with different exercise stations for ...
A physical therapist assistant is treating a patient on the tilt table secondary to orthostatic ...
A physical therapist assistant is following the plan of care for treatment of a patient ...
While reviewing a patient's medical record prior to treatment, the physical therapist assistant notes that ...
Which of the following methods will BEST to teach a patient segmental breathing? A. Place ...
A physical therapist assistant working in an outpatient clinic has been assigned a group exercise ...
A patient with congestive heart failure is on a regimen of diuretics and calcium channel ...
A patient recovering from surgery for triple coronary artery bypass grafts is scheduled to begin ...
A band of connective tissue fibers that attach one bone to another is a ______ ...
Attaches bone to bone A. tendon B. ligament C. cartilage D. joint
What keeps bones from rubbing against each other? A. Ligaments B. Cartilage C. Tendon ...
What does the word cardiac mean? A. relating to the lungs B. relating to the ...
What is smooth muscle responsible for? A. Responsible for voluntary body movements. B. Carries out ...
Which is a voluntary muscle tissue? A. skeletal B. cardiac C. smooth D. tendon
Which muscle tissue is found in the heart? A. Smooth B. Cardiac C. Voluntary ...
Involuntary muscles A. tissue that connects muscle to other muscles B. work automatically; can not ...
Which is NOT a type of muscle tissue? A. Tendon B. Smooth C. Cardiac ...
What ties your skeletal muscles to your bones? A. cartilage B. ligaments C. tendons ...
What is a cord of connective tissue that attaches muscle to a bone? A. Tendon ...
Which is not a function of the skeletal system? A. stores minerals B. cause your ...
Smooth muscles are A. involuntary muscles B. voluntary muscles
How do muscles know when to contract? A. When they receive messages from the nervous ...
Voluntary muscles A. muscles that surrounds organs, no control B. can be controlled just by ...
Cutting which structure causes blindness in the temporal fields of the left and right eyes? ...
Which of the following is not an enzyme of Urea Cycle? A. Arginosuccinate synthetase ...
Sequence of events in glycogenolysis: A. Phosphorylase, glucan transferase, debranching, phosphorylase B. Debranching, phosphorylase, transferase, ...
An increase in contractility is demonstrated on a Frank–Starling diagram by A. increased cardiac output ...
Which of the following substances has the highest renal clearance? A. Para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) ...
Cholecystokinin (CCK) inhibits A. gastric emptying B. pancreatic HCO3– secretion C. pancreatic enzyme secretion ...
Radiolabelled DNA was allowed to replicate twice in a nonradioactive environment. Which of the following ...
Which of the following groups of proteins assist in the folding of other proteins? ...
The correct temporal sequence for events at the neuromuscular junction is A. action potential ...
Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near: A. AUG codon B. UAA codon ...
Severe thiamine deficiency is associated with: A. Decreased RBC transketolase activity B. Increased clotting time ...
Selective destruction of the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex would produce a deficiency of ...
Carboxylation of clotting factors by VItamin K is required to be biologically active.Which of the ...
Which is true about enzyme kinetics for competitive inhibition: A. Low km high affinity ...
Metabolites in HMP Shunt are all except: A. Glycerol-3-phosphate B. Sedoheptulose-7-phosphate C. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate D. Xylulose-5-phosphate ...
Which of the following causes increased aldosterone secretion? A. Decreased blood volume B. Administration of ...
All of the following are true about Sickle disease, except A. Single nucleotide change results ...
Glycosphingolipid is not made up of: A. Glucose B. Glycerol C. Sphingosine D. Fatty acids ...
Which of the following characteristics is shared by simple and facilitated diffusion of glucose? ...
Sensory receptor potentials A. are action potentials B. always bring the membrane potential of a ...
Which of the following lung volumes or capacities can be measured by spirometry? A. Functional ...
Correct sequence of enzymes required for DNA formation is: A. DNA polymerase → protein unwinding ...
During exercise, total peripheral resistance (TPR) decreases because of the effect of A. the sympathetic ...
The first step in fatty acid synthesis involves: A. Acetyl CoA Carboxylase B. Beta-Hydroxyl CoA ...
The greatest pressure decrease in the circulation occurs across the arterioles because A. they have ...
Which of the following is true during inspiration? A. Intrapleural pressure is positive B. The ...
Substrate level phosphorylation is by: A. Pyruvate kinase B. Phosphofructokinase C. Hexokinase D. ATP Synthase ...
During inspiration, the diaphragm ___ causing a(n) ___ in thoracic volume and a(n) ___ in ...
During expiration, the diaphragm ___ causing a(n) ___ in thoracic volume and a(n) ___ in ...
To increase CO2 levels in the blood, a person should A. Breathe faster than normal ...
The volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximal expiration A. Inspiratory Capacity ...
Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system? A. Voice production ...
The volume of air inspired and expired during quiet breathing. A. Inspiratory Reserve Volume ...
The amount of air that a person can inspire maximally after a normal expiration ...
Oxygen enters the blood at the lungs because A. The partial pressure of oxygen is ...
The left lung has ___ lobes, and the right lung has ___ lobes. A. 3; ...
___ is a substance secreted by cells of the alveoli that reduces surface tension of ...
The driving force regulating breathing is ________. A. blood O2 levels B. blood glucose levels ...
The is composed of the alveolar wall and the walls of surrounding capillaries. A. Respiratory ...
The sum of all lung volumes A. Vital Capacity B. Tidal Volume C. Functional Residual ...
The basic rhythm of breathing is controlled by neurons in the ________. A. medulla oblongata ...
The amount of air that can be expired forcefully beyond the resting tidal volume ...
Which of the following groupings of the abdominopelvic regions is medial? A. Hypochondriac, Hypogastric, Umbilical ...
A transverse or cross section divides the body into _____ and ____ parts. A. Right ...
The study of the structure and shape of the body and its parts and their ...
Which of these are ALL posterior regions of the body? A. Sural, Crural, Scapular ...
The heart is located ____ to the diaphragm. A. Superior B. Inferior C. Medial ...
The study of how the body and its parts work or function is PHYSIOLOGY ...
A frontal section divides the body into ____ and ____ parts. A. Right and Left ...
The vertebral region is _______ to the scapular region. A. Lateral B. Medial C. Superior ...
Atoms→ ______ →cells→ tissues→ organs→ organ systems→ organism What can fit in the blank? ...
A neurosurgeon orders a spinal tap for a patient. Into what body cavity would the ...
The gluteal region is located on the _____ surface of the body. A. Superior ...
Stimulus, Efferent Pathway, Response, Input, Output, Afferent Pathway, Receptor, Control Center What is the ...
The highest level of structural organization. A. Cell B. Organ System C. Organism
Anatomical terms that apply to the backside of the body when it is in anatomical ...
This system is the external covering of the body. A. Endocrine B. Integumentary C. Lymphatic ...
The muscles are ____ to the skin. A. Superficial B. Proximal C. Distal D. Deep ...
In ANATOMICAL POSITION, the thumb is ____ to the index finger. A. Medial B. Lateral ...
The shoulder is ____ to the elbow. A. Proximal B. Distal C. Superior D. Inferior ...
A sagittal section cuts the body into ____ and ____ parts. A. Right and Left ...
Whose blood can you receive if you have type B- blood? A. AB-, O-, ...
if you have A+ blood, to whom can you donate? A. A+, A-, AB+, AB- ...
Where are antigens found? A. on the surface of red blood cells B. in the ...
Which test can detect blood that has been diluted 300, 000 times? A. Hema-stix ...
Another word for clumping A. agglutination B. coagulation C. Fluorescien D. sticking
another name for red blood cells A. leukocytes B. erythrocytes C. platelets D. leukocytes ...
Where are blood cells made? A. bone marrow B. heart C. liver D. brain ...
Which is true? A. blood type is individual evidence B. as the height of a ...
another name for coagulation A. agglutination B. clumping C. clotting D. precipitin
Leukocytes- A. white blood cells B. red blood cells C. platelets D. plasma
Who is the universal blood donor? A. AB+ B. AB- C. O- D. O+ ...
Which is the best way to store/package a blood sample? A. store at high temperatures ...
Which are the most abundant cells in our body? A. WBC B. RBC C. platelets ...
Which word does not relate to a presumptive test? A. precipitin B. hemastix C. color ...
Calculate the angle of impact if a blood stain has a width of 1.1 cm ...
Which word does NOT belong? A. iron B. hemaglobin C. white blood cells D. carries ...
What is another name for an infectious agent? A. plasma B. pathogen C. platelet ...
Name the test used to identify blood as being human. A. Kastle-Meyer B. precipitin ...
A type of blood stain created by the force of gravity as drops or blood ...
If you have B blood, that means you have ___ antigens and ___ antibodies. ...
Which test is used to identify human blood? A. Kastle-Meyer B. Hemastix C. Precipitan ...
What is the best method for finding blood when first encountering a crime scene? ...
Where is the thickest skin found on the body? A. Soles of the feet ...
Caused by a complete lack of melanin: A. Dermatitis B. Alopecia C. Albinism D. Melanitis ...
A major function of skin is protection from: A. Bacteria B. UV light C. Entry ...
In which of these layers are melanocytes found? A. Dermis B. Hypodermis C. Stratum basale ...
This is produced at the Sebaceous gland and helps lubricate your skin; keeping it soft ...
The type of cell that produces melanin, which protects us against harmful UV rays. ...
The most important function of skin is: A. Protection B. Storing fat C. Sweating ...
Melanin: A. Helps protect skin from UV radiation B. Is found in almost every human ...
What are functions of skin? A. Protect Bones B. Protect Muscles C. Protect Organs ...
Nails are made out of what? A. All of the Above B. Terminal C. Vellus ...
Where is the thinnest skin located? A. Ears B. Eyelids C. Elbow D. Nose
Which of these conditions increase the amount of melanin in the skin? A. Exposure to ...
What are the causes of skin cancer? A. UV radiation from the sun B. UV ...
Melanocytes are located in the ___________. A. Subcutaneous B. Hypodermis C. Dermis D. Epidermis ...
A tumor on the temporal lobe would most affect the career of A. an architect ...
What region receives information from the visual and auditory senses? A. Midbrain B. Reticular Formation ...
Language comprehension. Located on the Left Temporal Lobe A. Primary Auditory Cortex B. Primary Olfactory ...
The most complex part of the human brain is the: A. cerebrum B. thalamus ...
Jack fell off of his bike and hit his head. He sat up and his ...
The set of neural fibres that connect the two hemispheres is known as: A. the ...
Split brain surgery is a rare but effective treatment for extreme... A. Stroke B. Memory ...
Maria is having difficulty with speech. She wants to say she ‘needs milk from the ...
Lobe that plays a major role in the following functions/actions -Senses and integrates sensation(s) -Touch, pressure, ...
What is the outer layer of the cerebrum called? It's responsible for information processing. ...
Damage to the medulla would most likely result in A. impaired planning abilities B. death ...
Which part of the brain is involved in the maintenance of basic life functions? ...
The classic case of railroad worker Phineas Gage best illustrated that frontal lobe damage can ...
The Cerebellum helps... A. Control your emotions. B. Your muscles work together and keep you ...
The pons connects the brainstem to the: A. cerebellum B. thalamus C. hypothalamus
Which limbic system structure regulates thirst and body temperature? A. medulla B. amygdala C. hippocampus ...
The split-brain procedure involves the cutting of this A. Cerebral Cortex B. Cerebellum C. Corpus ...
The Cerebrum is the largest part of your brain. A. TRUE B. FALSE
Makes decisions, plans, reasons, and carries out behaviors A. Frontal Lobe B. Parietal Lobe ...
A person has difficulty speaking possibly due to a stroke. A. Broca's Aphasia B. Wernicke's ...
The occipital lobe controls __________. A. Vision B. Problem Solving C. Memory D. Arithmetic & ...
The frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal lobes make up the_______ A. brain stem. B. cerebrum. ...
Which part of the brain controls all involuntary actions? A. brain stem B. cerebrum ...
which part of the brain carries out mental processes such as learning and remembering? ...
A bundle of nerve tissue that links the brain to the nerves in peripheral nerve ...
What kind of stimuli would cause you to shiver? A. Being very excited about a ...
What would your body's response be to having the flame of a candle getting too ...
The nervous system lets your body know what is going on around you and______________ ...
Which part of the brain coordinates the actions of muscles and helps you maintain balance? ...
Which is the stimuli and which is the response? Sweating Heat from the sun ...
A soccer ball comes flying toward you. You throw up your hands to be avoid ...

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