Sitemap 72

• What system does the thyroid gland belong to? A. Endocrine B. Digestive C. Nervous ...
• What is Hashimoto's disease treatment ? A. Use of medication B. No treatment
• The released of the thyroid hormone is controlled by A. Aniturary B. Hypothalamus C. Occipital ...
• If the pregnancies get hyperthyroidism, will the newborn be affected? A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• What supply is needed for a correct functioning of thyroid ? A. Iodine B. Calcium ...
• How does thyroid affect the body ? A. Body temperature B. Heart rate C. Blood ...
• What causes hyperthyroidism ? A. T4 > T3 B. Inflammation of the thyroid gland ...
• Why do thyroid hormones affect every cells in the body ? A. Thyroid hormones don't ...
• Weight loss, rapid heart rate, and heat sensitivity are likely symptoms of... A. Hypothyroidism (underactive ...
• What does hyperthyroidism mean ? A. The thyroid gland is underactive B. The thyroid gland ...
• Where is thyroid gland located ? A. In the neck B. At the base of ...
• e copy all our DNA during ___. A. G2 phase B. mitosis C. G1 phase ...
• A diagnostic procedure that involves removing a tissue sample from a patient. A. biopsy ...
• Cells grow check for DNA mistakes during ___. A. G2 phase B. M phase ...
• Which is not a hallmark of Cancer? A. Resisting cell death B. Inducing angiogenesis ...
• Cells grow and do their job during ___. A. G2 phase B. M phase ...
• Cancer spreading to another tissue is called A. Malignant B. Metastesis C. Mitosis D. Replication ...
• Any substance that is known to cause cancer is called a A. carcinogen B. nicolyte ...
• ____ means cancerous. A. Malignant B. Metastesis C. Mitosis D. Replication
• Cells get ready for mitosis during ___. A. G2 phase B. M phase C. G1 ...
• Cancer tumors result from A. rapid cell division B. rapid DNA replication C. slow cell ...
• Make 2 daughter cells A. G2 phase B. M phase C. G1 phase D. S ...
• Tumor cells grow because of  A. errors in M Phase. B. incomplete DNA replication. ...
• What happens during S Phase? A. anaphase B. mitosis C. cancer D. DNA Replication
• Cancer is A. a premature stop in the cell cycle. B. uncontrolled mitosis. C. programmed ...
• Cells divide during ___. A. G2 phase B. M phase C. G1 phase D. S ...
• Uncontrolled cell growth is called___. A. Mitosis B. DNA Replication C. Cancer D. Radiation
• Bronchodilators, a type of asthma medication, work by ________________. A. Reducing the number of airborne ...
• Which term refers to techniques and tests used to identify a disease? A. Pathology ...
• Multiple Sclerosis is a potentially disabling disease of the ______________. A. Endocrine system B. Cardiovascular ...
• Which condition of asthma causes the airways to redden and swell, decreasing airflow? A. Muscle ...
• Which term refers to the nature of a disease? A. Prognosis B. Diagnosis C. Etiology ...
• Which term refers to the study of the causes of a disease? A. Etiology ...
• To which body system is diabetes linked? A. Nervous B. Digestive C. Endocrine D. Muscular ...
• Which condition of asthma causes the tightening of the bands of muscles around the airways, ...
• Which organ makes insulin? A. Pancreas B. Kidney C. Gall Bladder D. Liver
• ___________________ diabetes is when the body does not use insulin properly. A. Type 1 ...
• Parkinson's disease involves... A. the death of nerve cells around the spinal cord B. the ...
• Which of the following can cause the various types of diabetes? A. Inherited risks from ...
• Around what age does Parkinson's Disease typically present itself? A. Pre-adolescent B. 20 to 40 ...
• Parkinson's disease is: A. A chronic and progressive disease of the endocrine system B. A ...
• The hormone that regulates blood sugar levels is: A. Glucosamine B. Glucose C. Insulin ...
• Intensity during a cardiorespiratory endurance workout means:  A. how often an activity is performed ...
• Felicia is 15 years old, what is the lowest her heart rate can be when ...
• S.M.A.R.T. is an acronym used as a guideline to follow when setting a goal. SMART meaning: ...
• To improve cardiorespiratory endurance the frequency of the workout sessions should be A. 2 to ...
• Which FITT Principle variable is changed when you increase the length of a run from ...
• According to the FITT Principle, how intense should your cardiorespiratory endurance exercise be? A. 60% ...
• What is another medical term for osteoporosis? A. A Porous bones B. Porous joints ...
• Performing low repetitions, at high intensity of anaerobic exercise improves muscular: A. strength B. endurance ...
• Cardiorespiratory endurance is best described as the ability of the A. heart and lungs to ...
• CRE stands for? A. Compression, Rest, Elevate B. Cardiorespiratory Endurance C. Cardiovascular Endurance D. Cardiorespiratory ...
• The principle that is used for enhancing your overall health, performance and appearance  A. FUN ...
• You can improve or maintain how well heart and lungs work by applying the FITT ...
• An example of Cardiorespiratory Endurance is: A. Running the pacer B. Running a sprint ...
• Intensity during a cardiorespiratory endurance workout means A. how often an activity is performed ...
• In order to live a healthy and active lifestyle, one should apply the FITT Principle ...
• If you are walking at a pace that causes your heart to beat less than ...
• Increasing the speed or pace swimming laps A. frequency B. intensity C. time D. type ...
• The result or achievement toward effort is directed is known as this. A. Goal ...
• The age-adjusted formula for finding your MHR is 220 minus a person's: A. Age ...
• How long a cardiorespiratory endurance workout session lasts is called A. frequency B. intensity ...
• The muscles ability to move a joint through a full range of motion is call ...
• Resistance training is the best way to build which component of Fitness? A. Cardiorespiratory Endurance ...
• Which one of these activities represent Cardiorespiratory Endurance?  A. Swimming B. Using free weights ...
• What is the origin of the brachioradialis? A. scapula B. distal half of humerus ...
• This muscle wraps around the front of the lower leg, pulling the knee upward and ...
• When you extend your arm to push the floor button on an elevator, the primer ...
• This muscle is located on the upper chest and function in adduction and flexion of ...
• Which elbow muscle provides flexion and assists in supination? A. triceps brachii B. biceps brachii ...
• Which muscle inserts on the deltoid tuberosity of the humerus? A. latissimus dorsi B. brachialis ...
• Select the insertion of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. A. Mastoid Process B. Manubrium C. Clavicle ...
• Which muscle does dorsiflexion on the foot? A. Tibialis Anterior B. Gastrocnemius C. Soleus ...
• The biceps is attached to the scapula and the radius. The radius would be considered ...
• The ORIGIN is the muscle attachment to the _______ bone. A. Stationary B. Movable
• Choose the muscle that extends the thigh. A. Vastus Medialis B. Vastus Intermedias C. Semimembranosus ...
• The origin of this muscle is the humerus and scapula and its insertion is the ...
• Which muscle extends, adducts, and applies medial rotation of the arm A. biceps brachii ...
• Which elbow muscle provides extension of the elbow and originates on the humerus? A. biceps ...
• What does the latissimus dorsi insert on? A. radius B. ulna C. humerus D. scapula ...
• Where do the gluteus maximus, gluteus medius and sartorius muscles originate? A. spinal column ...
• Which muscle inserts on the radial tuberosity? A. biceps brachii B. triceps brachii C. brachialis ...
• Which muscle elevates, retracts, and rotates the scapula? We use it to shrug our shoulders. ...
• Which muscle inserts on the coronoid process and tuberosity of the ulna? A. brachialis ...
• Teres Minor, Infraspinatus, Supraspinatus and Subscapularis are categorized as which type of muscle? A. Rotator ...
• Where does the deltoid originate from? A. end of clavicle and scapula B. clavicle and ...
• What is an action of the gluteus maximus? A. Flex the thigh. B. Rotate the ...
• Where does the brachialis originate from? A. distal half of the humerus B. proximal half ...
• The muscle attachment to the movable bone is the: A. Muscle belly B. Muscle body ...
• What muscle inserts on the humerus and originates on the clavicle and sternum A. deltoid ...
• Which muscle tissue helps move food through the intestines? A. Cardiac muscle tissue B. Skeletal ...
• Which muscle tissue has cells that are joined by intercalated discs? A. Cardiac muscle tissue ...
• Which muscle tissue has multiple nuclei in each cell? A. Cardiac muscle tissue B. Skeletal ...
• Which muscle tissue controls the volume of organs like the stomach, bladder, etc.? A. Cardiac ...
• Which muscle tissue appears to have branched, striated cells? A. Cardiac muscle tissue B. Skeletal ...
• Which muscle tissue is the image showing? A. ...
• Which muscle tissue generates heat to maintain body temperature? A. Cardiac muscle tissue B. Skeletal ...
• Which muscle tissue controls dilation/constriction of blood vessels, pupils? A. Cardiac muscle tissue B. Skeletal ...
• Which muscle tissue is the image showing? A. ...
• Which muscle tissue is the image showing? A. ...
• Which muscle tissue helps maintain posture? A. Cardiac muscle tissue B. Skeletal muscle tissue ...
• Which muscle tissue allows communication (speaking, facial expressions body language)? A. Cardiac muscle tissue ...
• Which of the following does NOT describe a common pathophysiology of shock? A. dilated blood ...
• Your patient has been impaled through the right thigh by a long piece of metal ...
• The material placed directly over a wound to help control bleeding is called a(n): ...
• Which of the following mechanisms would MOST LIKELY cause serious internal bleeding? A. ground level ...
• A wound where the top layers of skin have been scraped off, commonly seen in ...
• A 33 year old male cut himself with a hunting knife. He has a large ...
• Which of the following interventions is MOST important to the survival of a patient showing ...
• A 37 year old female as cut her arm while using a circular saw. The ...
• Why does a patient's pulse rate increase as shock develops? A. to force oxygenated blood ...
• Which one of the following best describes the appropriate care for an amputated body part? ...
• All of the following are signs of shock EXCEPT: A. increased pulse rate B. decreasing ...
• You arrive at the scene of an unresponsive man who crashed his motorcycle into a ...
• A patient has a small wooden splinter impaled in their eye. You should: A. remove ...
• Your patient shows signs of shock, and you suspect she is bleeding internally. You should: ...
• Psychogenic shock is commonly known as: A. hyperperfusion B. stress reaction shock C. decompensation ...
• The four categories of shock include: A. psychogenic, respiratory, hypoglycemic, neurogenic B. cardiogenic, hypovolemic, distributive, ...
• You are caring for a patient with a severe soft tissue injury to the lower ...
• Which one of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of arterial bleeding? A. blood ...
• You arrive on scene to find a young girl with an active nosebleed. She is ...
• When the body sustains a significant loss of blood, which type of shock is most ...
• When injury to the spinal cord causes systemic dilation of the blood vessels in the ...
• Which one of the following patients is most at risk for multisystem trauma? A. 16 ...
• Most cases of external bleeding can be controlled by: A. applying direct pressure B. using ...
• A 23 year old woman has been kicked in the abdomen by a horse. She ...
• Which of the following describes the appropriate body substance isolation (PPE) precautions to use when ...
• Sweet clover poisoning involves what symptom? A. discoloration of the skin B. vomiting C. blindness ...
• What is the time that it takes for half of the chemical or toxin to ...
• Which domestic animal most often experiences venomous snakebites? A. dogs B. livestock C. sheep ...
• Poisons and toxins are most commonly excreted from the body through which organ? A. lung ...
• Blue-green algae are also known as what? A. Cyanobacteria B. Teppobacteria C. Winbacteria D. Fanetebacteria ...
• Chronic toxicosis typically refers to exposure longer than what time period? A. 24 hours ...
• Which organ is most often involved in the intoxication of poisons? A. liver B. heart ...
• What ingredient in raw bread dough can cause poisoning? A. flour B. soy C. sugar ...
• Which animal is most often affected by sweet clover poisoning? A. birds B. cattle ...
• Rodenticides often interfere with which vitamin in the body? A. vitamin A B. Vitamin B ...
• Toxicology is the study of what? A. Disease B. poisons C. parasites D. death
• The amount of toxin needed to poison an animal is often dependent on what factor? ...
• Which of the following has the highest concentration of theobromine? A. white chocolate B. milk ...
• Which of the following is an example of a viperine snake? A. cobra B. mamba ...
• Cyanide affects cattle through which of the following? A. apple tree leave B. hay ...
• This cardiovascular disease can be describes as the blockage of a blood vessel with fat/plaque ...
• Found in many fast and fried food, this type of fat is rigid like saturated ...
• This fatty acid specifically has the double bond on the sixth carbon in the structure ...
• True or False: Foods only have one type of fatty acid in them. For example, ...
• What organ in our GI Tract starts to breaks up fat into droplets? A. mouth ...
• This organ produces bile that will eventually be sent to the small intestine to aid ...
• _______________ have multiple double bonds in their structure. A. monounsaturated fatty acids B. Omega- 6 ...
• This medical emergency can be described as a blockage of a vessel that leads to ...
• ________________ have ONLY one double bond in their structure. A. monounsaturated fatty acids B. Omega- ...
• Hydrogenation is the process of adding _____________ to unsaturated fatty acids, making them more saturated ...
• Cholesterol is an example of this type of lipid that is made up of a ...
• What organ in our GI Tract moistens the food with fat in it? A. mouth ...
• This organic functional group is present in all phospholipids and is represented by PO₄ ...
• This organic functional group is present in all triglycerides and is represented by CH₃ ...
• This type of lipid consists of two fatty acids attached to a glycerol backbone ...
• This organic functional group is present in all triglycerides and is represented by COOH ...
• Steric acid is an 18 carbon saturated fatty acid. It is: A. short fatty acid ...
• True or false: Too little fat of any kind can be detrimental to our health, ...
• ____________ produces the pancreatic enzyme to break apart triglycerides. A. liver B. pancreas C. gallbladder ...
• This fatty acid specifically has the double bond on the third to fourth carbon in ...
• The ______________ stores and releases the bile to the small intestine. A. liver B. pancreas ...
• TRUE or False: Fatty acids found in triglycerides can be different whereas a glycerol backbone ...
• This type of fatty acid chain is made up of ONLY single bonded carbon atoms. ...
• What organ in the digestive system contributes the majority of digestion of lipids? A. mouth ...
• There are two forms of lipids with different states. These two are fats which are ...
• This type of lipid consists of three fatty acids attached to a glycerol backbone ...
• While reviewing a medical record, a notation of 4+ edema of the right leg was ...
• The second heart sound is the result of: A. opening of the mitral and tricuspid ...
• During a cardiovascular assessment, the nurse finds a bluish tinge on the client's lips, fingers, ...
• The student nurse wishes to listen in the pulmonic valve area. To do this, the ...
• The function of the venous system is: A. to hold more blood when blood volume ...
• Select The best description of the tricuspid valve. A. left semilunar valve B. right atrioventricular ...
• During inspection of the carotid arteries, the nurse assessed a bounding pulse. The nurse should ...
• When palpating the carotid arteries, it is essential that the nurse do which of the ...
• The function of the pulmonic valve is to: A. divide the left atrium and left ...
• In preparing to perform a cardiovascular assessment, the nurse should initially place the client in ...
• The nurse is performing a cardiovascular assessment. To evaluate the client of pulmonary edema, the ...
• When performing a dietary history on a client with a cardiovascular history, the nurse should ...
• When auscultating the heart, your first step is to: A. identify s1 and s2 ...
• The stethoscope bell should be pressed lightly against the skin so that: A. chest hair ...
• What is the Lymphatic System? A. A vital part of the immune system B. A ...
• What types of tissues does the spleen consist of? A. White pulp and red pulp ...
• Which system includes the Spleen and Tonsils? A. Digestive B. Lymphatic C. Endocrine
• Where do Lymphocytes destroy harmful substances? A. Lymph nodes B. Bone marrow C. Spleen
• What organs does the Lymphatic system include? A. Bone marrow, spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, thymus, ...
• What do Lymph Nodes contain? A. Blood B. Lymphocytes C. Lymph
• What does the Spleen look like? A. A cube B. A cone C. A capsule ...
• What do Lymph Nodes do? A. Filter blood B. Filter substances that travel through the ...
• What is the function of Tonsils? A. To prevent germs from getting in your mouth ...
• What is the Thymus Gland important to? A. Digestive system B. Immune system C. Circulatory ...
• A genetic blood disease due to the presence of an abnormal form of hemoglobin, namely ...
• Arrhythmia describes: A. irregularity or loss of rhythm of the heartbeat B. general ...
• The combining form meaning fatty paste is: A. aort/o B. atri/o C. angi/o ...
• Condition of thickening, hardening, and loss of elasticity in the arterial walls. A. atherosclerosis ...
• Localized, balloon-like dilation of a blood vessel, usually an artery. A. aneurysm B. arteriosclerosis ...
• Inflammation of a vein caused by the formation of a clot. A. phlebitis B. emobolus ...
• How many defects are associated with tetrology of Fallot? A. 2 B. 1 C. 4 ...
• Fast heart beat. A. tachypnea B. arrhythmia C. tachycardia D. bradycardia
• This condition occurs when the heart doesn't pump at full capacity and blood backs up ...
• A stationary blood clot along the wall of a blood vessel, frequently causing vascular obstruction. ...
• Blood pressure is measuring pressure on A. a vein. B. an artery. C. an artery ...
• The hardening of the arteries refers to this term: A. Atherosclerosis B. COPD C. Ateriorsclerosis ...
• Disease in which narrowing of the arteries results in decreased blood flow to the extremities, ...
• The term phleb refers to: A. Clots B. Vein C. Artery D. Vessel
• Condition characterized by severe, constricting pain or pressure in the chest. A. angina B. fibrillation ...
• The formation or presence of a blood clot in a blood vessel. The vessel may ...
• Inflammation of the sac surrounding the heart. A. congestive heart failure B. endocarditis C. pericarditis ...
• A condition resulting in discoloration of fingers and/or toes when a person is exposed to ...
• Inflammation of a valve especially of the heart. A. valvulitis B. phlebitis C. varicose veins ...
• Enlarged, twisted, superficial veins, most commonly seen in the lower extremities. A. thrombophlebitis B. athreosclerosis ...
• A therapy, is a treatment to dissolve dangerous clots in blood vessels, improve blood flow, ...
• Identify the term that best describes a disease caused partly by unhealthy behaviors and partly ...
• A hormone that causes cells to remove glucose from the bloodstream A. Chemotherapy B. Diabetes ...
• What is a controllable risk factor? A. age B. race C. exercise D. heredity ...
• Which is not a lifestyle disease? A. type 2 diabetes B. cancer C. cardiovascular disease ...
• Which Lifestyle Disease is related to heart attack, atherosclerosis, stroke, and high blood pressure? ...
• Which of these individuals has a sedentary lifestyle? A. Leslie enjoys playing video games but ...
• What causes athlete's foot? A. virus B. Bacteria C. Fungi D. Balloons
• A group of cells that invade and destroy surrounding tissues. A. Benign tumor B. Malignant ...
• What does RICE stand for? A. Rest, Ice, Cardiovascular, Evaluate B. Reassure, Inform, Call, ...
• Which of the following are habits that could help reduce your risk of catching an ...
• Physically removing the cancer cells from the body? A. Chemotherapy B. Radiation C. Surgery
• Cardiovascular Disease A. disease of the heart and blood vessels B. body doesn't produce enough ...
• Stroke A. an interruption of blood flow to the heart B. abnormal cell growth ...
• a disease characterized by the buildup of fatty materials on the inside walls of the ...
• Atherosclerosis A. interruption of blood flow to the heart B. a condition that describes the ...
• A stroke occurs when there is an interruption of blood flow to the ___________. ...
• Which muscle has almost a pure C5 innervation A. Deltoid only B. Deltoid and Biceps ...
• This muscle is a flexor of the elbow and shoulder as well as the spinster ...
• Testing for C5 integrity involves testing which muscles A. Deltoid only B. Deltoid and Biceps ...
• What is the role of the serratus anterior in shoulder abduction? A. Stabilizes Scapula ...
• Interruption in basic architecture reflex such as damage to muscle spindle, axon, SC synapse, muscle ...
• The anterior part of the deltoid ____ the shoulder. A. Flexes B. Abducts C. Extends ...
• Trauma to axillary Nerve/C5 root wi cause damage to dermatome that runs from A. Summit ...
• This reflex is an indicator of C5 neurologic integrity A. Biceps Reflex B. Brachioradialis Reflex ...
• This muscle has a mixture of C5 and C6 A. Deltoid only B. Deltoid and ...
• Pressure on a nerve root can result in? A. Hyporeflexia B. Hyperreflexia C. Areflexia ...
• What is the MAJOR innervator nerve root of diaphragm? A. C4 B. C6 C. C7 ...
• Upper motor neuron lesion/interruption can lead to? A. Hyporeflexia B. Hyperreflexia C. Areflexia
• The main nerve for the Deltoid C5 distribution is A. Axillary Nerve B. Musculocutaneous Nerve ...
• The Biceps Brachii is innervated by the A. Musculocutaneous Nerve B. Axillary Nerve C. Radial ...
• How will you notice the Biceps reflex? A. Bicep will jerk slightly B. Triceps will ...
• Supraspinatus Muscle = C5, C6 = A. Axillary Nerve B. Suprascapular Nerve C. Radial Nerve ...
• Which part of the deltoid abducts the shoulder most powerfully? A. Middle B. Anterior ...
• Biceps Brachii testing for C5 with A. Elbow Flexion B. Elbow Extension C. Shoulder Abduction ...
• Deltoid Muscle = C5, C6 = A. Axillary Nerve B. Suprascapular Nerve C. Radial Nerve ...
• The posterior part of the deltoid ____ the shoulder. A. Flexes B. Abducts C. Extends ...
• Classic floppy baby A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4 ...
• Pseudobulbar Palsy A. UMND B. LMND C. Both UMND and LMND
• MND is A. LMNL B. UMNL C. both LMNL and UMNL D. all of the ...
• Chronic Werdnig-Hoffman disease A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4 ...
• Primary Lateral Sclerosis A. UMND B. LMND C. Both UMND and LMND
• < 6 months A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4 ...
• KD affects women while males are carriers A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Paraplegia is _______ A. LMNL B. UMNL
• Kennedy disease A. UMND B. LMND C. Both UMND and LMND
• Parkinson's affected _______ A. LMNL B. UMNL
• Progressive bulbar palsy A. UMND B. LMND C. Both UMND and LMND
• CVA affected _______ A. LMNL B. UMNL
• Spinal cord affected _______ A. LMNL B. UMNL
• Spinal Muscular Atrophy A. UMND B. LMND C. Both UMND and LMND
• Present > 18 months A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type ...
• Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) A. UMND B. LMND C. Both UMND and LMND
• Poor prognosis usually die by 2 years A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type ...
• PLS shows _________ symtpoms A. UMNL B. LMNL
• Progressive Muscular Atrophy A. UMND B. LMND C. Both UMND and LMND
• MND affects A. adults B. children C. adults and children
• Expected to live into their 20's and beyond A. Type 1 B. Type 2 ...
• Acute Werdnig-Hoffman disease A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4 ...
• Muscular dystrophy is _______ A. LMNL B. UMNL
• Kugelberg-Welander disease A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4
• Present 6-18 months A. Type 1 B. Type 2 C. Type 3 D. Type 4 ...
• ALS progresses slower than PLS A. TRUE B. FALSE
• MND affects person's mind/personlaity A. TRUE B. FALSE
• _______ is aka Lou Gehrig's Disease A. ALS B. MND C. Multiple sclerosis D. PLS ...
• A nurse is caring for a pt. with a tracheostomy. The nurse notes the patient ...
• The clinical instructor is watching a student perform trach care on a client. Which action ...
• The correct suction setting for trach suctioning is continuous suction at 80-120 mmHg. A. TRUE ...
• The nurse knows that what step will help prevent hypoxia during suctioning? A. Continuous pulse ...
• A client has a tracheostomy inserted due to copious amounts of tracheobronchial secretions r/t pneumonia. ...
• What nursing intervention will you perform pre-and post suctioning in regard to Oxygen delivery? ...
• The rationale for providing adequate hydration for a client with a tracheostomy is... A. to ...
• Vigorous coughing, or manipulation of the tracheostomy can cause what complication? A. tachycardia B. infection ...
• A patient needs to have a tracheostomy placed for laryngeal cancer compromising the airway. What ...
• A confused patient pulls out the tracheostomy. What is the priority nursing action? A. Maintain ...
• Which is NOT a transplantable organ? A. pancreas B. stomach C. kidney D. small intestine ...
• What is transplantation? A. change of an infected organ B. Replace of an infected Organ ...
• What is a possible complication of a lung transplant? A. Infection B. Cold C. Allergies ...
• When was the first successful kidney transplant performed? A. 1934 B. 1954 C. 1989 ...
• Who can be a donator? A. Anyone, regardless of age or medical history. B. Only ...
• Which criterion is NOT used to match an organ to a recipient? A. age ...
• What does a xenotransplantation involve? A. It is a transplant of organs or tissue from ...
• Whats a disease that can cause a person to need new lungs? A. lung cancer ...
• Tissues can be transplanted.  A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Average time you need to wait to get a hold of a lung? A. around ...
• What does an isograft involve? A. It is a transplant of an organ or tissue ...
• Schilling's test is used to identify the type of cause of megaloblastic anemia. A. TRUE ...
• Ferrous fumarate is given orally A. TRUE B. FALSE
• A myeloid growth factor produced in bacterial expression system. A. G-CSF (Filgrastim) B. GM-CSF (Sargramostim) ...
• Type of anemia due to Vit. B12 deficiency A. Hemachromatosis B. Microcytic-hypochromic anemia C. Megaloblastic ...
• Toxic effect of Myeloid Growth Factor A. kidney failure B. spleenic rupture C. sickle cell ...
• Stimulus of erythropoietin A. renal deficiency B. folic acid deficiency C. both a & b ...
• It is known as a synthetic erythropoietin A. Myeloid Growth Factor B. Darbepoetin alfa ...
• Will's disease is a folic acid deficiency that will cause megaloblastic anemia. A. TRUE ...
• MOA of Trimethoprin A. binds to iron B. DNA synthesis C. erythropoietin secretion inhibitor ...
• One has pernicious anemia, if one has gastric dystrophy. A. TRUE B. FALSE C. I ...
• This is necessary for the synthesis of purines, amino acid, and DNA A. Folic acid ...
• A myeloid growth factor produced in yeast expression system. A. G- CSF (Filgrastim) B. GM-CSF ...
• Iron metabolism regulator A. Hepcidin B. Amikacin C. Deferasirox D. Ferritin
• Iron can be found on the following, except: A. intestinal mucosa B. none of the ...
• Antidote for iron toxicity A. Hepcidin B. Deferoxamine C. Miferolamine D. Misoprostone
• All the genes in both a prokaryotic cell and a eukaryotic cell are expressed at ...
• The difference between DNA code and the epigenome is that the DNA code is ...
• Made of chromatin and become visible during cell division A. chromosomes B. histones C. mitochondria ...
• The disc shaped protein core that DNA wraps around is called A. histone B. nucleosome ...
• The complete instructions for making an organism, consisting of all the genetic material in that ...
• The study of changes in organisms caused by modification of gene expression rather than alteration ...
• Protein molecules around which DNA is tightly coiled in chromatin A. Histones B. Whey ...
• True or False: Epigenetic changes can be passed on to future generations. A. TRUE ...
• True or False: Epigenetic changes are permanent. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• A traumatic event experienced by an organism can affect the health of its children and ...
• Which of these can cause a gene to be expressed more - that is, can ...
• What is methylation? A. The addition of methyl groups to DNA so that it becomes ...
• Gene expression is the ability for a gene to be: A. in the genome. ...
• The chemical compound modifications to the DNA code that can tell the DNA code what ...
• At what stage in the life of identical twins is the epigenome expected to be ...
• Epigenetics modulates genetic expression: A. differently in each cell in the body. B. by altering ...
• Kevin has a lot of family members who have high blood pressure.  He is at ...
• Having a lot of doctors living near by would most likely be an example of  ...
• Beth takes a shower daily.  She is practicing... A. healthy behavior B. good heredity ...
• Eating a well balanced diet is an example of this factor affecting health A. environment ...
• Not caring about school or homework is an example of this factor affecting health. ...
• Scoliosis is an example of a disease that is... A. Contracted through the environment ...
• Johnny's grandmother doesn't have a car and can't walk to her doctor's appointments. Which factor ...
• If a trait or disease is passed down from one generation to the next, we ...
• You do not have health insurance and it costs a lot of money to go ...
• The student who sits next to you in health class has a cold.  You are ...
• You have blue eyes because your parents have blue eyes.  This is an example of  ...
• Carson Wentz was 5 foot 8 inches in the 8th grade but grew to be ...
• Carson feels like his rehab is going well and is committed to supporting his teammates. ...
• Karen's parents smoke in her house.  She is at risk for lung disease because of ...
• Carson Wentz has been performing physical therapy for 9 months. Working out is an example ...
• People aged 5-17 should do how many minutes of moderate intensity exercise per day? ...
• Washing your hands regularly is proven in helping to stop the spread of communicable diseases? ...
• GERMS CAN SPREAD THROUGH: A. TOUCHING YOUR NOSE AND MOUTH WITH WASHED HANDS. B. TOUCH ...
• which of these is considered a modifiable risk factor A. genetics B. age C. type ...
• Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor? A. Ethnicity B. Age C. Unhealthy ...
• Which of the following is a type of non-communicable disease? A. Covid-19 B. Cancer ...
• We need to aim for _______ hours of sleep every night. A. 5-6 B. 4-5 ...
• A disease or illness is a medical condition that stops the body from working normally? ...
• SHOWERING, WASHING HAIR AND BRUSHING TEETH ARE ALL INCLUDED IN: A. HYGIENE B. WELLNESS ...
• Infectious means... A. A disease cannot be spread easily from one person to another ...
• Screening and vaccinations are two ways in which we can lower our risk of getting ...
• risk factors for developing a disease or illness are? A. modifiable B. non-modifiable C. both ...
• Communicable diseases cannot be spread from person to person A. TRUE B. FALSE
• A physical therapist assistant is working with a patient who has pulmonary disease and is ...
• What is the appropriate action with a patient who reports feeling lightheaded during use of ...
• Which intervention is the primary focus for a child with cystic fibrosis? A. Postural drainage ...
• A physical therapist assistant treating a patient with congestive heart failure should be alert fro ...
• A physical therapist assistant is working with a patient who is receiving treatment for a ...
• A physical therapist assistant is instructed to begin treating a distance runner who has been ...
• A patient who is recovering form surgery is receiving postural drainage as part fo the ...
• A patient has developed congestive heart failure after a myocardial infarction. What pulmonary signs and ...
• A women who is 12 weeks pregnant asks a physical therapist assistant if it is ...
• A patient who is 70 pounds overweight is recovering from a myocardial infarction, which occurred ...
• Four weeks after a myocardial infarction, a patient enters an outpatient physical therapy cardiac rehabilitation ...
• Which of the following contraindications to joint mobilization is common for patients with chronic pulmonary ...
• A phase 2 outpatient cardiac rehabilitation program uses circuit training with different exercise stations for ...
• A physical therapist assistant is treating a patient on the tilt table secondary to orthostatic ...
• A physical therapist assistant is following the plan of care for treatment of a patient ...
• While reviewing a patient's medical record prior to treatment, the physical therapist assistant notes that ...
• Which of the following methods will BEST to teach a patient segmental breathing? A. Place ...
• A physical therapist assistant working in an outpatient clinic has been assigned a group exercise ...
• A patient with congestive heart failure is on a regimen of diuretics and calcium channel ...
• A patient recovering from surgery for triple coronary artery bypass grafts is scheduled to begin ...
• A band of connective tissue fibers that attach one bone to another is a ______ ...
• Attaches bone to bone A. tendon B. ligament  C. cartilage D. joint
• What keeps bones from rubbing against each other? A. Ligaments B. Cartilage C. Tendon ...
• What does the word cardiac mean? A. relating to the lungs B. relating to the ...
• What is smooth muscle responsible for? A. Responsible for voluntary body movements. B. Carries out ...
• Which is a voluntary muscle tissue? A. skeletal B. cardiac C. smooth D. tendon
• Which muscle tissue is found in the heart? A. Smooth B. Cardiac C. Voluntary ...
• Involuntary muscles  A. tissue that connects muscle to other muscles B. work automatically; can not ...
• Which is NOT a type of muscle tissue? A. Tendon B. Smooth C. Cardiac ...
• What ties your skeletal muscles to your bones? A. cartilage B. ligaments C. tendons ...
• What is a cord of connective tissue that attaches muscle to a bone? A. Tendon ...
• Which is not a function of the skeletal system? A. stores minerals B. cause your ...
• Smooth muscles are  A. involuntary muscles B. voluntary muscles
• How do muscles know when to contract? A. When they receive messages from the nervous ...
• Voluntary muscles A. muscles that surrounds organs, no control B. can be controlled just by ...
• Cutting which structure causes blindness in the temporal fields of the left and right eyes? ...
• Which of the following is not an enzyme of Urea Cycle? A. Arginosuccinate synthetase ...
• Sequence of events in glycogenolysis: A. Phosphorylase, glucan transferase, debranching, phosphorylase B. Debranching, phosphorylase, transferase, ...
• An increase in contractility is demonstrated on a Frank–Starling diagram by A. increased cardiac output ...
• Which of the following substances has the highest renal clearance? A. Para-aminohippuric acid (PAH) ...
• Cholecystokinin (CCK) inhibits A. gastric emptying B. pancreatic HCO3– secretion C. pancreatic enzyme secretion ...
• Radiolabelled DNA was allowed to replicate twice in a nonradioactive environment. Which of the following ...
• Which of the following groups of proteins assist in the folding of other proteins? ...
• The correct temporal sequence for events at the neuromuscular junction is A. action potential ...
• Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near: A. AUG codon B. UAA codon ...
• Severe thiamine deficiency is associated with: A. Decreased RBC transketolase activity B. Increased clotting time ...
• Selective destruction of the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex would produce a deficiency of ...
• Carboxylation of clotting factors by VItamin K is required to be biologically active.Which of the ...
• Which is true about enzyme kinetics for competitive inhibition: A. Low km high affinity ...
• Metabolites in HMP Shunt are all except: A. Glycerol-3-phosphate B. Sedoheptulose-7-phosphate C. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate D. Xylulose-5-phosphate ...
• Which of the following causes increased aldosterone secretion? A. Decreased blood volume B. Administration of ...
• All of the following are true about Sickle disease, except A. Single nucleotide change results ...
• Glycosphingolipid is not made up of: A. Glucose B. Glycerol C. Sphingosine D. Fatty acids ...
• Which of the following characteristics is shared by simple and facilitated diffusion of glucose? ...
• Sensory receptor potentials A. are action potentials B. always bring the membrane potential of a ...
• Which of the following lung volumes or capacities can be measured by spirometry? A. Functional ...
• Correct sequence of enzymes required for DNA formation is: A. DNA polymerase → protein unwinding ...
• During exercise, total peripheral resistance (TPR) decreases because of the effect of A. the sympathetic ...
• The first step in fatty acid synthesis involves: A. Acetyl CoA Carboxylase B. Beta-Hydroxyl CoA ...
• The greatest pressure decrease in the circulation occurs across the arterioles because A. they have ...
• Which of the following is true during inspiration? A. Intrapleural pressure is positive B. The ...
• Substrate level phosphorylation is by: A. Pyruvate kinase B. Phosphofructokinase C. Hexokinase D. ATP Synthase ...
• During inspiration, the diaphragm ___ causing a(n) ___ in thoracic volume and a(n) ___ in ...
• During expiration, the diaphragm ___ causing a(n) ___ in thoracic volume and a(n) ___ in ...
• To increase CO2 levels in the blood, a person should A. Breathe faster than normal ...
• The volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximal expiration A. Inspiratory Capacity ...
• Which of the following is NOT a function of the respiratory system? A. Voice production ...
• The volume of air inspired and expired during quiet breathing. A. Inspiratory Reserve Volume ...
• The amount of air that a person can inspire maximally after a normal expiration ...
• Oxygen enters the blood at the lungs because A. The partial pressure of oxygen is ...
• The left lung has ___ lobes, and the right lung has ___ lobes. A. 3; ...
• ___ is a substance secreted by cells of the alveoli that reduces surface tension of ...
• The driving force regulating breathing is ________. A. blood O2 levels B. blood glucose levels ...
• The is composed of the alveolar wall and the walls of surrounding capillaries. A. Respiratory ...
• The sum of all lung volumes A. Vital Capacity B. Tidal Volume C. Functional Residual ...
• The basic rhythm of breathing is controlled by neurons in the ________. A. medulla oblongata ...
• The amount of air that can be expired forcefully beyond the resting tidal volume ...
• Which of the following groupings of the abdominopelvic regions is medial? A. Hypochondriac, Hypogastric, Umbilical ...
• A transverse or cross section divides the body into _____ and ____ parts. A. Right ...
• The study of the structure and shape of the body and its parts and their ...
• Which of these are ALL posterior regions of the body? A. Sural, Crural, Scapular ...
• The heart is located ____ to the diaphragm. A. Superior B. Inferior C. Medial ...
• The study of how the body and its parts work or function is PHYSIOLOGY ...
• A frontal section divides the body into ____ and ____ parts. A. Right and Left ...
• The vertebral region is _______ to the scapular region. A. Lateral B. Medial C. Superior ...
• Atoms→ ______ →cells→ tissues→ organs→ organ systems→ organism What can fit in the blank? ...
• A neurosurgeon orders a spinal tap for a patient. Into what body cavity would the ...
• The gluteal region is located on the _____ surface of the body. A. Superior ...
• Stimulus, Efferent Pathway, Response, Input, Output, Afferent Pathway, Receptor, Control Center What is the ...
• The highest level of structural organization. A. Cell B. Organ System C. Organism
• Anatomical terms that apply to the backside of the body when it is in anatomical ...
• This system is the external covering of the body. A. Endocrine B. Integumentary C. Lymphatic ...
• The muscles are ____ to the skin. A. Superficial B. Proximal C. Distal D. Deep ...
• In ANATOMICAL POSITION, the thumb is ____ to the index finger. A. Medial B. Lateral ...
• The shoulder is ____ to the elbow. A. Proximal B. Distal C. Superior D. Inferior ...
• A sagittal section cuts the body into ____ and ____ parts. A. Right and Left ...
• Whose blood can you receive if you have type B- blood? A. AB-, O-, ...
• if you have A+ blood, to whom can you donate? A. A+, A-, AB+, AB- ...
• Where are antigens found? A. on the surface of red blood cells B. in the ...
• Which test can detect blood that has been diluted 300, 000 times? A. Hema-stix ...
• Another word for clumping A. agglutination B. coagulation C. Fluorescien D. sticking
• another name for red blood cells A. leukocytes B. erythrocytes C. platelets D. leukocytes ...
• Where are blood cells made? A. bone marrow B. heart C. liver D. brain ...
• Which is true? A. blood type is individual evidence B. as the height of a ...
• another name for coagulation A. agglutination B. clumping C. clotting D. precipitin
• Leukocytes- A. white blood cells B. red blood cells C. platelets D. plasma
• Who is the universal blood donor? A. AB+ B. AB- C. O- D. O+ ...
• Which is the best way to store/package a blood sample? A. store at high temperatures ...
• Which are the most abundant cells in our body? A. WBC B. RBC C. platelets ...
• Which word does not relate to a presumptive test? A. precipitin B. hemastix C. color ...
• Calculate the angle of impact if a blood stain has a width of 1.1 cm ...
• Which word does NOT belong? A. iron B. hemaglobin C. white blood cells D. carries ...
• What is another name for an infectious agent? A. plasma B. pathogen C. platelet ...
• Name the test used to identify blood as being human. A. Kastle-Meyer B. precipitin ...
• A type of blood stain created by the force of gravity as drops or blood ...
• If you have B blood, that means you have ___ antigens and ___ antibodies. ...
• Which test is used to identify human blood? A. Kastle-Meyer B. Hemastix C. Precipitan ...
• What is the best method for finding blood when first encountering a crime scene? ...
• Where is the thickest skin found on the body? A. Soles of the feet ...
• Caused by a complete lack of melanin: A. Dermatitis B. Alopecia C. Albinism D. Melanitis  ...
• A major function of skin is protection from: A. Bacteria B. UV light  C. Entry ...
• In which of these layers are melanocytes found? A. Dermis B. Hypodermis C. Stratum basale ...
• This is produced at the Sebaceous gland and helps lubricate your skin; keeping it soft ...
• The type of cell that produces melanin, which protects us against harmful UV rays.   ...
• The most important function of skin is: A. Protection B. Storing fat C. Sweating  ...
• Melanin: A. Helps protect skin from UV radiation B. Is found in almost every human ...
• What are functions of skin? A. Protect Bones B. Protect Muscles C. Protect Organs ...
• Nails are made out of what? A. All of the Above  B. Terminal  C.  Vellus  ...
• Where is the thinnest skin located?  A. Ears B. Eyelids C. Elbow D. Nose 
• Which of these conditions  increase the amount of melanin in the skin? A. Exposure to ...
• What are the causes of skin cancer? A. UV radiation from the sun B. UV ...
• Melanocytes are located in the ___________.   A. Subcutaneous  B. Hypodermis C. Dermis D. Epidermis ...
• A tumor on the temporal lobe would most affect the career of  A. an architect ...
• What region receives information from the visual and auditory senses? A. Midbrain B. Reticular Formation ...
• Language comprehension. Located on the Left Temporal Lobe A. Primary Auditory Cortex B. Primary Olfactory ...
• The most complex part of the human brain is the: A. cerebrum B. thalamus ...
• Jack fell off of his bike and hit his head. He sat up and his ...
• The set of neural fibres that connect the two hemispheres is known as: A. the ...
• Split brain surgery is a rare but effective treatment for extreme... A. Stroke B. Memory ...
• Maria is having difficulty with speech. She wants to say she ‘needs milk from the ...
• Lobe that plays a major role in the following functions/actions -Senses and integrates sensation(s) -Touch, pressure, ...
• What is the outer layer of the cerebrum called? It's responsible for information processing. ...
• Damage to the medulla would most likely result in  A. impaired planning abilities B. death ...
• Which part of the brain is involved in the maintenance of basic life functions? ...
• The classic case of railroad worker Phineas Gage best illustrated that frontal lobe damage can ...
• The Cerebellum helps... A. Control your emotions. B. Your muscles work together and keep you ...
• The pons connects the brainstem to the: A. cerebellum B. thalamus C. hypothalamus
• Which limbic system structure regulates thirst and body temperature? A. medulla B. amygdala C. hippocampus ...
• The split-brain procedure involves the cutting of this A. Cerebral Cortex B. Cerebellum C. Corpus ...
• The Cerebrum is the largest part of your brain. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Makes decisions, plans, reasons, and carries out behaviors A. Frontal Lobe B. Parietal Lobe ...
• A  person has difficulty speaking possibly due to a stroke. A. Broca's Aphasia B. Wernicke's ...
• The occipital lobe controls __________. A. Vision B. Problem Solving C. Memory  D. Arithmetic & ...
• The frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal lobes make up the_______ A. brain stem. B. cerebrum. ...
• Which part of the brain controls all involuntary actions? A. brain stem B. cerebrum ...
• which part of the brain carries out mental processes such as learning and remembering? ...
• A bundle of nerve tissue that links the brain to the nerves in peripheral nerve ...
• What kind of stimuli would cause you to shiver? A. Being very excited about a ...
• What would your body's response be to having the flame of a candle getting too ...
• The nervous system lets your body know what is going on around you and______________ ...
• Which part of the brain coordinates the actions of muscles and helps you maintain balance? ...
• Which is the stimuli and which is the response? Sweating Heat from the sun ...
• A soccer ball comes flying toward you. You throw up your hands to be avoid ...