Sitemap 85

• A patient has peripheral neuropathy, where nerves in the body (not brain or spinal cord) ...
• What is a common symptom of Devic's disease related to vision? A. Double vision ...
• What happens to the brain tissue in Alzheimer's disease? A. It grows larger ...
• Which neurotransmitter is associated with mood and is imbalanced in fibromyalgia? A. Dopamine ...
• A doctor creates a list of possible diseases and disorders that could be causing a ...
• What is multiple sclerosis (MS) characterized by? A. Muscle spasms (small jerks and movements) ...
• What is a common symptom of ALS? A. Muscle atrophy (shrinking) B. Increased ...
• What is cognitive decline? A. Increasing sensory input; tastes, sounds, scents, and touch are ...
• What is a symptom of ALS? A. Muscle weakness B. Enhanced (better) memory ...
• What does MS primarily affect? A. The digestive system B. The central nervous ...
• What is the most common symptom of fibromyalgia? A. Increased appetite (more hunger) ...
• What is the result of damage to dopamine-producing neurons in Parkinson's disease? A. Increased ...
• What is a common symptom of Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease? A. Increased sensation B. Loss ...
• What is spasticity? A. A solid chunk of tau protein in the brain ...
• At the beginning, a patient named Alice is given a test by the doctor to ...
• Which part of the spinal cord is responsible for reflex actions? A. Brain Stem ...
• What is the outer covering of the brain called? A. Dura Mater B. ...
• What type of fluid protects the brain and spinal cord? A. Synovial Fluid ...
• Which part of the brain is responsible for balance? A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum ...
• Which lobe of the brain is responsible for vision? A. Frontal Lobe B. ...
• What is the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater called? A. Subarachnoid ...
• What is the main function of the autonomic nervous system? A. Control voluntary movements ...
• What color is the axon covered with myelin? A. Red B. Black ...
• Where does the spinal cord begin? A. Cranial cavity B. First lumbar vertebra ...
• Which part of the brain is responsible for breathing? A. Diencephalon B. Cerebellum ...
• What is the function of the thalamus? A. Controls sensations B. Controls motor ...
• How many pairs of cranial nerves are there? A. 10 pairs B. 12 ...
• What part of the nervous system includes the brain and spinal cord? A. Peripheral ...
• How many pairs of spinal nerves are there? A. 8 pairs B. 12 ...
• What is the primary function of the Nodes of Ranvier in a neuron? A. ...
• What is the role of Schwann cells in the nervous system? A. To myelinate ...
• What is the primary role of glial cells in the nervous system? A. To ...
• What is the role of the myelin sheath in nerve signal transmission? A. To ...
• What is the function of the axon hillock in a neuron? A. To store ...
• Which type of glial cell acts as the immune cells of the central nervous system? ...
• Which type of synaptic connection involves the axon of one neuron connecting to another axon? ...
• Which type of synaptic connection involves the axon of one neuron connecting to the cell ...
• What is the primary function of microglia in the central nervous system? A. To ...
• What is the primary function of oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system? A. To ...
• Which type of glial cell is responsible for myelinating neurons in the central nervous system ...
• What is myelination? A. The process of removing waste from neurons B. The ...
• Which cells are responsible for myelinating neurons in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)? A. ...
• Which type of synaptic connection involves the axon of one neuron connecting to the dendrite ...
• Where is the action potential initiated in a neuron? A. Dendrite B. Axon ...
• Which neurotransmitter is synthesized from choline and acetyl-CoA? A. Dopamine B. Serotonin ...
• What is the role of glutaminase in neurotransmitter synthesis? A. Converts glutamine to glutamate ...
• Which enzyme is responsible for converting dopamine to norepinephrine? A. Monoamine oxidase B. ...
• What is the precursor to serotonin in its synthesis pathway? A. Tyrosine B. ...
• What is the function of autoreceptors in neurotransmitter regulation? A. Synthesize neurotransmitters B. ...
• Which anatomical plane divides the brain into left and right sections? A. Coronal Plane ...
• Which enzyme converts glutamate to GABA? A. Choline acetyltransferase B. Glutamic acid decarboxylase ...
• What is the precursor molecule for glutamate synthesis? A. Glutamine B. Tyrosine ...
• What is the primary function of the coronal plane in brain anatomy? A. Divides ...
• Which neurotransmitter is synthesized from tryptophan? A. GABA B. dopamine C. norepinephrine ...
• Which anatomical plane divides the brain into front and back sections? A. Sagittal Plane ...
• Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down dopamine? A. Choline acetyltransferase B. Glutamic ...
• What is the final product in the synthesis pathway of norepinephrine? A. Dopamine ...
• Which neurotransmitter is reabsorbed by the serotonin transporter (SERT)? A. Dopamine B. Serotonin ...
• What is the role of serotonin transporter (SERT) in neurotransmitter inactivation? A. Breaks down ...
• Which neurotransmitter is synthesized from tyrosine? A. Serotonin B. GABA C. Dopamine ...
• What does 'transmission' refer to in the study of diseases? A. The way a ...
• the total number of cases of a disease in a population at a given time ...
• What does the term 'prevalence' refer to in the context of diseases? A. The ...
• What does 'diagnosis' involve in medical terms? A. Identifying a disease based on symptoms ...
• Which of the following is a common method of disease prevention? A. Ignoring symptoms ...
• The likely course or outcome of a disease A. Prevalence B. Diagnosis ...
• How is a diagnosis typically made by doctors? A. By guessing based on age ...
• How do we refer to the predicted development and outcome of a disease? A. ...
• What does 'prognosis' mean when discussing diseases? A. The expected outcome of a disease ...
• The study of how diseases affect the health and illness of groups of people ...
• The way a disease spreads from one person to another A. Prevalence B. ...
• How can diseases be transmitted from one person to another? A. By reading about ...
• What does 'prevalence' measure in epidemiology? A. The number of doctors in a hospital ...
• What is meant by 'prevention' in the context of diseases? A. The study of ...
• What is the process called when a doctor identifies a disease based on symptoms and ...
• What does 'prognosis' indicate in medical terms? A. The initial cause of a disease ...
• The way a disease spreads from one person to another A. Prevalence B. ...
• Actions taken to stop a disease from occurring A. Diagnosis B. Prognosis ...
• What is the definition of 'diagnosis' in the context of diseases? A. The process ...
• What term is used to describe the total number of cases of a disease in ...
• What do we call the actions taken to stop a disease from occurring? A. ...
• The process of identifying a disease based on symptoms and tests A. Prevention ...
• What term describes the method by which a disease is spread from one host to ...
• interstitial cystitis A. Chronic inflammation of the bladder wall. B. A type of ...
• vesicovaginal fistula A. Abnormal opening between the bladder and vagina, often resulting from tissue ...
• diabetes mellitus (DM) A. A condition characterized by inadequate secretion or improper utilization of ...
• cystocele A. Herniation of the bladder through the vaginal wall of the female reproductive ...
• nephrolithiasis A. Renal calculi; kidney stones. B. Urinary tract infection C. Chronic kidney ...
• glomerulonephritis A. Inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidney. B. A type of ...
• nephritic syndrome A. A group of clinical signs and symptoms causing glomerulonephritis, marked by ...
• pyelonephritis A. Inflammation of the lining of the renal pelvis and the functional tissue ...
• diabetes A. A condition characterized by excessive amounts of urine. B. A condition ...
• Wilms tumor A. A benign tumor of the kidney occurring in adulthood. B. ...
• renal hypertension A. High blood pressure resulting from kidney disease. B. High blood ...
• cystitis A. Inflammation of the bladder. B. Infection of the kidneys. C. Swelling ...
• renal cell carcinoma A. A benign tumor of the kidney occurring in childhood. ...
• nephrosclerosis A. A disease where the arteriole walls in the kidneys become narrowed and ...
• renal ischemia A. A condition where blood flow to the glomerulus severely decreases, resulting ...
• polycystic kidney disease (PKD) A. A disease characterized by the development of cysts in ...
• urinary tract infection (UTI) A. Infection originating in the bladder, causing symptoms like pain ...
• cystolithiasis A. Calculi of the urinary bladder; bladder stones. B. Inflammation of the ...
• diabetes insipidus (DI) A. A condition caused by excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ...
• renal failure A. Condition where kidney disease or damage results in impaired filtration of ...
• What is the main purpose of standard precautions in healthcare? A. To prevent infection ...
• What is the term for a disease outbreak that spreads across countries? A. Epidemic ...
• What are objects that carry germs called? A. Fomites B. Viruses C. Bacteria ...
• What is the primary defense mechanism of the body against infections? A. Nervous system ...
• What precautions do healthcare workers follow to prevent the spread of illnesses like influenza? ...
• Which disease is primarily spread through contact with infected blood and can cause liver damage? ...
• Which is a portal of exit for hepatitis C virus? A. Saliva B. ...
• What is the primary mode of transmission for the common cold? A. Respiratory droplets ...
• Which type of virus is known for causing severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)? A. ...
• Which type of precautions are used to prevent the spread of infections through the air ...
• What is the term for a disease that is constantly present in a population? ...
• How are droplet precautions different from airborne precautions? A. Droplet precautions are for diseases ...
• Which virus is known for causing a pandemic in 2009? A. H1N1 influenza virus ...
• What is the process of eliminating all forms of microbial life, including spores? A. ...
• What is the term for the time between exposure to an infection and the appearance ...
• What is the practice of isolating patients to prevent the spread of infection called? ...
• What is the term for a disease that spreads rapidly and affects many individuals at ...
• What are examples of how germs get into the body? A. Portal of entry ...
• What are basic infection prevention measures used for all patients? A. Standard precautions ...
• Which of the following is NOT an example of a fomite? A. Airborne droplet ...
• Primary care physician A. A specialist who focuses on surgical procedures. B. A ...
• Functional capacity A. The ability to perform ordinary and unusual demands of daily living ...
• Optometrists A. Healthcare practitioners who specialize in the prescription and adaptation. B. Professionals ...
• Ophthalmologists A. Medical specialists concerned with diseases of the eye and prescription of corrective ...
• Opportunistic infections A. Infections that occur more frequently in people with weakened immune systems. ...
• Gonorrhea A. A viral infection affecting the skin B. An STI caused by ...
• Nurses A. Healthcare practitioners who assist in the diagnosis and treatment of health of ...
• Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) A. An infection of the female reproductive system caused primarily ...
• Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) A. Communicable diseases spread through sexual contact. B. Infections ...
• Acupuncture A. A Chinese medical system using fine needles during therapy to relieve pain ...
• Hepatitis B (HBV) A. A viral infection that primarily affects the lungs and can ...
• Chiropractic A. A healthcare system focusing on misalignments of the vertebrae and manipulation of ...
• Physician assistants A. Healthcare practitioners trained to treat most standard cases of care. ...
• Monogamy A. A sexual relationship in which two people have sexual relations only with ...
• Integrative medicine A. The use of only conventional Western medicine to treat patients. ...
• Ayurveda A. A system of medicine that relies solely on surgery. B. A ...
• Orthodontists A. Dentists who specialize in the correction and prevention of tooth irregularities. ...
• Personal trainer A. A health or fitness professional who evaluates, motivates, educates, and trains ...
• Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) A. A virus that weakens the immune system, leading to ...
• Physiological age A. The chronological age of a person based on their birth date. ...
• An intranasal injection is administered: A. Within muscle tissue B. Under the skin ...
• Which term refers specifically to dogs? A. Canine B. Murine C. Feline ...
• The term superficial in anatomy refers to: A. Deep within the body B. ...
• Which term describes the location away from the midline of the body? A. Medial ...
• The prefix anti- means: A. Without B. Below C. Against D. Within
• The suffix -emia refers to: A. Disease B. Blood C. Condition D. Inflammation ...
• The term rostral refers to: A. The tail end B. The spine ...
• Which term refers specifically to cats? A. Canine B. Murine C. Feline ...
• The term ventral refers to: A. The leg area B. The head or ...
• A patient diagnosed with rhinitis has inflammation of the: A. Heart B. Stomach ...
• The term caudal refers to: A. The nose area B. The tail end ...
• In anatomical terms, dorsal refers to: A. The tail end B. The spine ...
• What does the root word enter- refer to in medical terminology? A. Stomach ...
• A subcutaneous injection is given: A. Within muscle tissue B. Just below the ...
• The prefix an- means: A. Against B. Below C. Without D. Within
• An intraperitoneal injection is administered: A. Within the nose B. Within muscle ...
• What type of animal is referred to as murine? A. Horse B. Dog ...
• Deep anatomical structures are: A. Near the surface B. Away from the surface ...
• The suffix -pathy means: A. Study of B. Suffering or disease C. Condition ...
• In veterinary medicine, which term describes the stomach? A. Itis B. Cardi ...
• The prefix hypo- indicates: A. Against B. Without C. Above D. Below
• A distal location refers to: A. Near the body's center B. Farther from ...
• When a location is described as medial, it means: A. Away from the ...
• The suffix -osis indicates: A. Inflammation B. Surgery C. A condition of ...
• Which animal category represents birds? A. Terrapin B. Avian C. Reptile D. Amphibian ...
• An intravenous injection is administered: A. Within muscle B. Within the nose ...
• Which animal category is referred to as equine? A. Dog B. Cat ...
• Which animal is considered a terrapin? A. Frog B. Lizard C. Fish ...
• Which animal category includes snakes and lizards? A. Reptile B. Terrapin C. Amphibian ...
• What term describes a location nearer to the center of the body? A. Distal ...
• An intradermal injection is administered: A. Within a vein B. Between layers of ...
• An injection administered within the muscle is called: A. Intranasal B. Intramuscular ...
• Which prefix relates to the heart? A. Gastr- B. Rhin- C. Cardi- ...
• Which term refers specifically to frogs? A. Amphibian B. Murine C. Feline ...
• Which animal category does a guinea pig belong to? A. Murine B. Cavy ...
• The term cranial refers to: A. The leg area B. The head or ...
• Which term refers to rabbits? A. Murine B. Lagomorph C. Canine D. Feline ...
• Which of the following is a type of reactive airway disease? A. Asthma ...
• Which of the following is caused by a backup of blood in the pulmonary circulation ...
• A localized collection of pus in the thoracic cavity is ________. A. emphysema ...
• Which of the following is caused by a backup of blood in the pulmonary circulation ...
• The lid-like structure that seals off the entrance to the larynx during swallowing is called ...
• Oxygen molecules travel on red blood cells from the lungs to the heart in a ...
• A very low level of oxygen in the cells is called ________. A. hypercapnia ...
• A patient suffering from anoxia has ________. A. an inability to breathe B. ...
• Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is characterized by ________. A. asthma and atelectasis ...
• Which is a severe, and sometimes fatal, bacterial infection that begins with flu-like symptoms, followed ...
• For the patient's cough, the physician prescribed an antitussive drug to ________. A. dilate ...
• Which is the medical word for voice box? A. Pharynx B. Trachea ...
• A patient who needs mechanical ventilation may also have a ________ done to provide permanent ...
• Which of these structures is directly posterior to the mouth? A. Oropharynx B. ...
• As the nasal cavity continues posteriorly, it merges with the throat or ________. A. ...
• Which is a gaseous waste product of metabolism that is exhaled by the lungs? ...
• Antibiotic drugs are used to treat pneumococcal pneumonia because it is caused by a ________. ...
• Auscultation is the process of ________ the lungs. A. measuring B. evaluating ...
• Oxygen molecules travel on red blood cells from the lungs to the heart in a ...
• Which device measures the degree of oxygen saturation in the blood? A. Nasal cannula ...
• The turbinates are located in the ________. A. hilum B. thorax C. bronchioles ...
• Because of the meaning of the combining form cocc/o-, in pneumococcal pneumonia, we can tell ...
• A patient who suffers from CF has ________. A. fluid in the lungs ...
• Which combining form means lung? A. Alveol/o- B. Pulmon/o- C. Thorac/o- D. Pleur/o- ...
• A pulmonary embolism can be caused by ________. A. a blood clot in the ...
• The passing of genes from one generation to the next A. Heredity B. ...
• During interphase DNA exists in the form of… A. Chromatin B. Chromosomes ...
• Genotypes that have two identical alleles (SS or ss) A. Heterozygous B. Homozygous ...
• The process where a single cell divides to produce 2 identical daughter cells A. ...
• A cross where neither trait is dominant (results in a third trait) A. Complete ...
• Reproduction where two parents contribute genetic material to the offspring A. Asexual reproduction ...
• Bt Corn is an example of.... A. Genetically modified organism (GMO) B. Organic ...
• Genotypes that have two different alleles (Ss) A. Heterozygous B. Homozygous C. Dominant ...
• A sexual reproductive cell (sperm or egg) A. Gamete B. Zygote C. Spermatozoon ...
• The basic unit of heredity passed from parent to child A. Chromosome B. ...
• The physical characteristics of an organism which results from its genes A. Genotype ...
• A structure within a cell nucleus that carries genetic information in the form of DNA ...
• Reproduction that requires only one parent A. Asexual reproduction B. Sexual reproduction ...
• Scientist directly manipulates the genes of an organism A. Genetic engineering B. Gene ...
• A version of a gene for a trait A. Allele B. Chromosome ...
• Giving up something in order to gain something else A. Trade-off B. Compromise ...
• A tool used to predict possible offspring when 2 organisms reproduce sexually A. Punnett ...
• Compounds that are produced from renewable biological sources A. Biomaterials B. Synthetic Polymers ...
• The act of mating organisms with desirable traits A. Natural selection B. Genetic ...
• A type of dominance where more than one trait is dominant. Traits blend. A. ...
• What is the function of the testes in males? A. They produce sperm. ...
• What are the key male reproductive organs? A. Ovaries and uterus B. Testes ...
• What is the significance of embryonic development? A. It is the process where a ...
• what is an embryo? A. It is the fertilized egg that is the early ...
• Meiosis A. Cell division that produces somatic cells in asexual organisms B. Cell ...
• What is the function of the penis in males? A. It delivers sperm into ...
• What is a fetus? A. The developing human organism from 9 weeks after conception ...
• Why is understanding embryonic development important? A. It is crucial for grasping how new ...
• haploid A. An organism or cell having only one complete set of chromosomes. (n ...
• What body system is responsible for sexual reproduction? A. Nervous system B. Digestive ...
• What develops during the early stages of embryonic development? A. Tissues and cells. ...
• What are the key female reproductive organs? A. Ovaries and uterus B. Testes ...
• how many chromosomes are in diploid cells? A. 44 B. 46 C. 48 ...
• zygote A. a haploid cell formed during meiosis B. a diploid cell resulting ...
• What is the function of the ovaries in females? A. They produce eggs. ...
• Diploid A. 1 set of chromosomes (n = 23 chromosomes) B. 2 sets ...
• sexual reproduction A. A reproductive process that involves two parents that combine their genetic ...
• Does meiosis make zygotes? A. Yes, it directly produces zygotes. B. No, instead, ...
• What is the first stage of embryonic development after fertilization? A. Zygote B. ...
• What is the function of the uterus in females? A. It is where the ...
• The follicle secretes the hormone A. oestrogen B. progesterone C. FSH D. LH ...
• The onset of puberty is triggered when the ____________ secretes _____________ targeting the pituitary gland. ...
• Which structure produces releaser hormone? A. Pituitary gland B. Ovaries C. Testes ...
• Which hormone stimulates the production of LH from the pituitary gland. A. FSH ...
• A decrease in the levels of which hormone leads to degeneration of the corpus luteum. ...
• Which hormone stimulates the interstitial cells to produce testosterone? A. ICSH B. FSH ...
• This hormone stimulates proliferation of the endometrium. A. progesterone B. oestrogen C. FSH ...
• First stage of Menstrual Cycle A. Follicular phase B. Luteal phase
• State a function of progesterone A. Stimulates the vascularisation (thickening) of the endometrium ...
• Second stage of Menstrual Cycle A. Follicular phase B. Luteal phase
• What are the 2 stages of the menstrual cycle known as? A. Follicle and ...
• High levels of which hormone will inhibit FSH and ICSH production? A. Testosterone ...
• High levels of this hormone will inhibit FSH & LH production by the pituitary gland. ...
• A surge of this hormone triggers ovulation A. FSH B. oestrogen C. LH ...
• State one effect of progesterone decrease A. Oestrogen increases B. FSH decreases ...
• Levels of this hormone drop due to degeneration of corpus luteum and trigger menstruation. ...
• Follicle Stimulating Hormone is produced by …? A. the pituitary gland B. the ...
• Which hormone stimulates development and maturation of the follicle. A. oestrogen B. FSH ...
• This process regulates the release of testosterone. A. Positive feedback control B. Negative ...
• Which of these are ovarian hormones A. FSH and progesterone B. oestrogen and ...
• What is the test used to detect color blindness? A. Snellen chart B. ...
• Which part of the ear contains the Organ of Corti? A. Utricle B. ...
• Which is not an error of refraction? A. Myopia B. Hypermetropia C. Presbyopia ...
• Photopic vision is mediated by: A. Rods B. Cones C. Retinal pigment epithelium ...
• Which structure functions as the auditory receptor? A. Tympanic membrane B. Organ of ...
• Which vitamin deficiency causes night blindness? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D ...
• Function of iris is to: A. Focus light B. Detect light C. Regulate ...
• What is the most common type of color blindness? A. Blue-yellow B. Red-green ...
• What causes presbyopia? A. Defective rods B. Short eyeball C. Aging and loss ...
• Which statement is true about rods? A. Active in bright light B. Responsible ...
• Near point is defined as: A. Closest point clearly seen B. Far point ...
• Dark adaptation improves: A. Central vision B. Color perception C. Night vision ...
• What type of vision is mediated by rods? A. Color vision B. Sharp ...
• Scotopic vision refers to: A. Daylight vision B. Dim light vision C. Color ...
• Which reflex constricts the pupil in response to light? A. Accommodative reflex B. ...
• Which of the following initiates the tympanic reflex? A. Sudden low-frequency sounds B. ...
• Astigmatism is caused due to: A. Change in lens curvature B. Irregular corneal ...
• Which cells are primarily responsible for color vision? A. Rods B. Cones ...
• Which theory explains trichromatic color vision? A. Young-Helmholtz theory B. Opponent process theory ...
• Which cells initiate electrical events in retina? A. Rods and cones B. Bipolar ...
• Negative feedback ensures: A. Amplification of change B. Maintenance of change C. Opposition ...
• Which part of the brain is involved in olfactory perception? A. Medulla B. ...
• Color blindness is due to defect in: A. Rods B. Bipolar cells ...
• Presbyopia is due to: A. Weak extraocular muscles B. Loss of lens elasticity ...
• Which of the following tests compares bone and air conduction? A. Weber test ...
• Which part of the cochlea generates the endocochlear potential? A. Tectorial membrane B. ...
• Which of the following is not part of a homeostatic system? A. Effector ...
• An example of positive feedback mechanism is: A. Thermoregulation B. Blood glucose control ...
• Which of the following is not a component of the accommodation reflex? A. Constriction ...
• Homeostasis is maintained mainly by: A. Muscular system B. Respiratory system C. Nervous ...
• Photopic vision is mediated by: A. Rods B. Cones C. Melanopsin cells ...
• Feedforward mechanism involves: A. Correction after deviation B. Delayed response C. Response in ...
• The receptor organ for hearing is: A. Crista ampullaris B. Macula C. Organ ...
• Nystagmus refers to: A. Auditory illusion B. Loss of smell C. Rhythmic eye ...
• Night blindness is due to deficiency of: A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D ...
• Which cranial nerve carries taste sensation from the anterior 2/3 of tongue? A. Glossopharyngeal ...
• The tuning fork frequency commonly used in clinical tests for hearing is: A. 128 ...
• Which of the following is responsible for scotopic vision? A. Cones B. Macula ...
• Vestibulo-ocular reflex helps to: A. Maintain posture B. Adjust pupil size C. Stabilize ...
• The taste pathway terminates in which part of the cortex? A. Parietal lobe ...
• The inability to voluntarily retain urine is ________. A. hesitancy B. retention ...
• The condition ________ may be found in a patient with diabetes who metabolizes fats instead ...
• Which is a flexible tube to drain urine that is inserted through the abdominal wall ...
• Difficult or painful urination is known as ________. A. pyuria B. dysuria ...
• E. coli is the most common cause of ________. A. urinary tract infections ...
• Which type of drugs would be prescribed to treat a urinary tract infection? A. ...
• What is the indentation where the renal artery enters and the renal vein and ureter ...
• Absence of urine production by the kidney is known as ________. A. pyuria ...
• An excessive amount of urea in the blood because of renal failure is known as ...
• The pH of the urine is related to the ________. A. amount of blood ...
• The ________ connects the kidney to the bladder. A. renal pelvis B. urethra ...
• In addition to creating and excreting urine to rid the body of wastes, the kidney ...
• Which surgical procedure removes a severely damaged kidney from a patient with end-stage kidney failure ...
• What is another name for nephroblastoma? A. cystitis B. bladder cancer C. Wilm's ...
• The first presenting sign of bladder cancer may be ________. A. polycystic kidney disease ...
• Which type of drug treats hypertension by blocking sodium from being absorbed from the tubule ...
• The medical condition of having kidney stones in the urinary system is known as ________. ...
• A finding of albuminuria means there is ________ in the urine. A. protein ...
• The functional unit of the kidney is known as the ________. A. renal pelvis ...
• Damage to the pores of the capillaries of the glomeruli is known as ________. ...
• Distention of ureter with urine due to blockage A. hydrouretha B. hydroplane ...
• Medical term for the urethral opening located on the upper surface of the penis. ...
• BPH stands for A. Beginning Prostatic Hyperplasia B. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia C. Benign ...
• A stone located in the bladder is called a/an A. ureterolith B. cystolith ...
• Medical term for hernia of bladder through the vaginal wall is known as A. ...
• Distention of ureter due to hydroureter or congenital abnormalities is known as A. ureteropexy ...
• Use of a small piece of intestines to convey urine to ureters and then to ...
• The surgical removal of a nephrolith through a small opening in the back A. ...
• Surgical fixation of floating kidney A. Nephrolith B. Nephritis C. Nephroplasty D. Nephropexy ...
• Medical term for chronic inflammation within bladder walls is known as A. Bladder infection ...
• Discharge of blood from the ureter is known as A. ureterphagia B. ureteremia ...
• BPH causes A. enlargement of urethra B. enlargement of penis C. enlargement of ...
• The surgical freeing of a kidney from adhesions A. abdominalysis B. cololysis ...
• The medical term for the presence of stones in the kidney A. nephrolith ...
• Medical term for the backward flow of urine into ureters from the bladder A. ...
• The surgical incision into the renal pelvis A. ureterotomy B. cystotomy C. renalotomy ...
• The results from compression of urethra due to benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) A. prostatectomy ...
• Medical term for narrowing of the urethra A. urethrostenosis B. urethritis C. urethropexy ...
• Surgical fixation of bladder to abdominal wall A. cystocele B. cystopexy C. cystoscopy ...
• Surgical repair of damage/defect in the walls of the urethra A. urethroplasty B. ...
• A tracheotomy is often a temporary procedure to assist with breathing. A. TRUE ...
• What is the purpose of a submucosal resection (SMR)? A. To remove a nasal ...
• What is removed during a turbinectomy? A. Nasal septum B. Nasal turbinates ...
• During a tympanoplasty, which structure is repaired? A. Cochlea B. Tympanic membrane ...
• What is removed during a stapedectomy? A. Tympanic membrane B. Stapes bone ...
• What is removed during a laryngectomy? A. Larynx B. Thyroid gland C. Trachea ...
• A septoplasty and a submucosal resection both aim to correct a deviated septum. A. ...
• Where is the electrode array placed during a cochlear implant procedure? A. Middle ear ...
• During a FESS procedure, endoscopes are used to visualize and enlarge sinus openings. A. ...
• A cochlear implant is used to improve hearing in patients with severe sensorineural hearing loss. ...
• What is the purpose of a tympanoplasty? A. To repair the eardrum and/or middle ...
• After a total laryngectomy, the patient permanently breathes through a stoma in the neck. ...
• What may be inserted during a myringotomy to maintain ear drainage? A. Stent ...
• What is the purpose of a tracheotomy? A. To remove part of the trachea ...
• Which condition is commonly treated with a stapedectomy? A. Meniere’s disease B. Otitis ...
• A myringotomy involves an incision into the tympanic membrane to relieve pressure or drain fluid. ...
• Why is a total laryngectomy typically performed? A. To treat severe sleep apnea ...
• Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery (FESS) is primarily used to treat: A. Middle ear infections ...
• What is the function of the pancreas in digestion? A. To produce saliva ...
• What is the function of gallbladder A. To produce insulin B. To store ...
• Which enzyme in saliva begins the breakdown of starch? A. Trypsin B. Pepsin ...
• What is the role of the esophagus in digestion? A. To store and mix ...
• Where is the pharynx located A. In upper abdomen B. Inside the lungs ...
• Which part of the small intestine is the main site for nutrient absorption? A. ...
• What is the function of the pyloric sphincter? A. To control chyme release into ...
• Where is soft palate located A. Under tongue B. In the esophagus ...
• What is the primary role of the large intestine? A. To mix chyme with ...
• Where is the linea alba located? A. Between lobes of brain B. Lower ...
• What is the function of the enteric nervous system? A. To regulate blood pressure ...
• Which accessory organ produces bile? A. Pancreas B. Salivary glands C. Gallbladder ...
• Which part of the GI tract is primarily responsible for nutrient absorption? A. Large ...
• What is the primary function of the gastrointestinal tract? A. To regulate body temperature ...
• What are the four main regions of the large intestine A. Cecum, colon, rectum, ...
• What is the main benefit of regional anesthesia compared to general anesthesia in lower extremity ...
• A 75-year-old male patient with a history of congestive heart failure is undergoing long bone ...
• A patient with a history of severe osteoporosis is undergoing hip prosthesis surgery. What is ...
• What is the main concern for patients with anemia undergoing major orthopedic surgery? A. ...
• During long bone surgery with the use of bone cement, what complication should be anticipated? ...
• What anesthesia technique is most commonly used for knee arthroscopy procedures? A. Light sedation ...
• What is the most common perioperative complication in patients with adrenal insufficiency during orthopedic surgery? ...
• What is the main concern during anesthesia for a patient with a history of diabetes ...
• What is the main risk of using inhalation anesthetics in orthopedic patients with a history ...
• What is the best anesthesia technique for a patient with a femur fracture who cannot ...
• What is the most common complication that occurs during the use of a tourniquet in ...
• What should be done if BCIS occurs during orthopedic prosthesis placement? A. Stop inhalation ...
• A 65-year-old male patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is undergoing total knee replacement. ...
• What is the first sign of fat embolism in orthopedic patients with multiple fractures? ...
• What is the main concern for a patient with anemia undergoing major orthopedic surgery? ...
• In heart surgery, what procedure is performed to bypass blocked coronary arteries? A. Angioplasty ...
• Which of the following is NOT a reason why anatomical knowledge is crucial in surgery? ...
• What is the primary focus of surgical anatomy? A. The study of microscopic cell ...
• Why are anatomical landmarks important in surgery? A. They help identify key structures and ...
• Which law protects patient privacy and medical records in the U.S.? A. HIPAA ...
• What is the purpose of informed consent before surgery? A. To ensure the patient ...
• Why is surgical anatomy important for surgeons? A. It allows surgeons to memorize body ...
• What is the primary goal of coronary artery bypass surgery? A. To remove a ...
• Which anatomical landmark is commonly used in abdominal surgeries? A. Clavicle B. Umbilicus ...
• What are the two main divisions of the nervous system? A. Central and peripheral ...
• What is the main function of the skeletal system? A. Producing oxygen for the ...
• Why does poor blood circulation slow wound healing? A. It prevents clotting at the ...
• What is the function of the coronary arteries? A. Transporting deoxygenated blood to the ...
• How has technology improved surgical anatomy education? A. By eliminating the need for hands-on ...
• Which ligament is repaired during an ACL reconstruction? A. Medial collateral ligament (MCL) ...
• What imaging technique is best for viewing soft tissues like muscles and the brain? ...
• How does anesthesia affect the nervous system during surgery? A. It increases nerve activity ...
• Which type of joint is found in the knee and elbow? A. Ball-and-socket ...
• Plateau phase is mainly caused by the accumulation of Na+ A. TRUE B. ...
• Phase 1 of cardiac muscle action potential is when the Na+ rapidly increases the membrane ...
• Increased abdominal pressure decreases the femoral veins pressure A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Mucopolysaccharides bind the calcium in T tubules A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Phase 1 of pressure-volume loop diagram is the period of ejection A. TRUE ...
• Constriction of the arterioles increases the venous return A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Polycythemia increases the viscosity of the blood A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Endothelin is a vasoconstrictor A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Incisura is caused by backflow of the blood before the valve closed A. TRUE ...
• External work is used to accelerate the blood to its velocity of ejection through the ...
• The a wave is caused by atrial contraction A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• The highest cross sectional area is in the capillaries A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Capillary hydrostatic pressure push the fluid outside of the capillaries A. TRUE B. ...
• Increased temperature decreased the heart rate A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The highest resistance is in the small arteries A. TRUE B. FALSE
• An increase in afterload generally leads to a decreased stroke volume, assuming other factors remain ...
• The baroreceptor reflex increases sympathetic outflow in response to a sudden drop in arterial pressure, ...
• Blood pressure means the force exerted by the blood against any unit area of the ...
• Excess potassium increases the heart rate A. TRUE B. FALSE
• One of two major factor of pulse pressure is the arterial compliance A. TRUE ...
• Which wave in ECG represents atrial depolarization? A. Q wave B. T wave ...
• Which heart sound is associated with closure of AV valves? A. S1 B. ...
• Which ECG wave represents ventricular repolarization? A. P wave B. T wave ...
• The lub sound (first heart sound) is caused by? A. Opening of semilunar valves ...
• Einthoven's Law relates to? A. Heart rate B. Conduction velocity C. ECG leads ...
• The dicrotic notch in the aortic pressure curve corresponds to? A. Atrial systole ...
• During rapid filling phase of cardiac cycle? A. AV valves are closed B. ...
• Which of the following occurs during diastole? A. Ventricular contraction B. Atrial contraction ...
• The JVP 'a' wave is due to? A. Atrial systole B. Ventricular systole ...
• Which phase of cardiac cycle has maximum ventricular pressure? A. Atrial systole B. ...
• Systolic murmur may be heard in? A. Mitral stenosis B. Aortic regurgitation ...
• What happens during isovolumetric contraction? A. Atria contract B. Ventricles eject blood ...
• Which component of ECG represents ventricular depolarization? A. P wave B. T wave ...
• The dub sound (second heart sound) corresponds to? A. Closure of AV valves ...
• Which of the following best describes the pacemaker potential? A. Fast depolarization B. ...
• Which heart sound is caused by rapid filling of ventricles? A. S1 B. ...
• Which lead configuration is used in Einthoven's Law? A. I, II, III B. ...
• The pacemaker of the heart is? A. AV node B. Bundle of His ...
• Which phase of cardiac cycle lasts longest? A. Atrial systole B. Ventricular systole ...
• What is the normal duration of the PR interval? A. 0.04 sec B. ...
• A patient presents to your pharmacy with a prescription for Eliquis. Which of the following ...
• Which antihypertensive is indicated for the treatment of diabetic nephropathy? A. Demadex B. ...
• Which of the following medications is indicated for angina and is available as a transdermal ...
• What is the indication for Lovaza? A. Atrial fibrillation B. Hypertension C. Hypertriglyceridemia ...
• A.B. suffers from severe, frequent migraines, and his doctor has determined that he needs preventative ...
• What is the available dosage form of Coreg? A. Tablet B. IM injection ...
• Which of the following is an indication for verapamil? A. Angina B. Nephropathy ...
• Niacin is indicated for which of the following? A. To decrease blood pressure ...
• Which of the following is an indication for dabigatran? A. Hypertension B. Chronic, ...
• Which of the following medications is available as a tablet as well as a transdermal ...
• A patient comes to your pharmacy and tells you that the doctor wrote her a ...
• Which of the following medications would most likely be prescribed for chronic stable angina? ...
• Which of the following medications is approved for use in adolescents with hyperlipidemia? A. ...
• Which of the following antihyperlipidemic agents can be combined with an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor to ...
• B.C. is a 45-year-old patient who presents to the hospital with edema associated with hepatic ...
• You have never heard of the medication hydralazine, so you research its use. What is ...
• Which of the following is an indication for clonidine? A. Heart failure B. ...
• Which of the following medications is a diuretic that would most likely be prescribed for ...
• Your friend calls to talk to you about the medication that her physician is initiating ...
• A patient comes to your pharmacy after being discharged from the hospital with a prescription ...
• Which of the following agents is indicated for the reduction of overall total cholesterol and ...
• Which of the following brand/indication pairings is INCORRECT? A. Brillinta/acute MI B. Plavix/thrombosis ...
• Which medication below is a beta blocker indicated for a patient with chronic angina? ...
• Which of the following medications would be most appropriate for a 60-year-old man with benign ...
• A patient comes to your pharmacy because they have been experiencing tingling in their fingers ...
• Blood pressure medications are often available as combination products, as many patients require multiple medications ...
• While rounding with a physician, he states that he would like to begin a beta ...
• What is the brand name of valsartan? A. Diovan B. Atacand C. Micardis ...
• What is the brand name of carvedilol? A. Catapres B. Cardura C. Coumadin ...
• Which of the following is NOT classified as an antihypertensive agent? A. Norvasc ...
• Which of the following is the appropriate classification of dipyridamole? A. Antihypertensive B. ...
• What is the classification of Ranexa? A. Antihypertensive B. Platelet inhibitor C. antianginal ...
• For a class project, you were asked to classify various medications. Which of the following ...
• Which of the following is NOT classified as an antihyperlipidemic? A. Niacin B. ...
• Which of the following is the brand name for ticagrelor? A. Pradaxa B. ...
• Which of the following antihypertensives is NOT classified as an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB)? ...
• What is the classification of tolvaptan? A. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor B. Platelet inhibitor ...
• Which of the following medications is classified as a peripheral vasodilator? A. Clopidogrel ...
• Which of the following brand name/classification pairings is INCORRECT? A. Lipitor/HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor ...
• The cardiologist would like to start your patient on norvasc. What generic medication would be ...
• You get a call for a recommendation for a patient experiencing frequent chest pain, and ...
• Which of the following medications is classified as an angiotensin II receptor antagonist (ARB)? ...
• Which of the following is the classification of fenofibrate? A. HMG Co-A reductase inhibitor ...
• Which of the following is the generic name of Crestor, classified as an HMG-CoA reductase ...
• What is the brand name of bisoprolol? A. Lopressor B. Bystolic C. Zebeta ...
• Which of the following generic/brand pairings is INCORRECT? A. Propranolol/Inderal B. Apixaban/Eliquis ...
• Which of the following pairs of drugs have the SAME classification? A. Accupril and ...
• Which of the following is classified as a calcium channel blocker? A. Procardia ...
• What is the generic name of monopril? A. Lisinopril B. Fosinopril C. Enalapril ...
• Some diuretics exhibit their properties by working in the loop of Henle and are referred ...
• Which of the following is FALSE regarding warfarin? A. Bleeding is the most common ...
• Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding therapy with simvastatin? A. Rhabdomyolysis is ...
• What is the maximum recommended daily dosing of diltiazem for hypertension and chronic angina? ...
• A patient receiving a new prescription for which of the following medications should be counseled ...
• A patient receiving a prescription for which of the following medications should be cautioned about ...
• What is the INITIAL recommended dose of Lotensin for the treatment of hypertension? A. ...
• What is the maximum recommended daily dose of nebivolol? A. 10 mg B. ...
• Which of the following is the recommended daily dose of Plavix for thrombosis prevention? ...
• What is the usual dosing frequency of olmesartan? A. qd B. bid ...
• How often should a new Catapres-TTS patch be applied? A. Every 12 hours ...
• You are unable to clearly read the drug name on a new prescription. You are ...
• What is the recommended dose of gemfibrozil? A. 300 mg qd B. 300 ...
• Which of the following is TRUE regarding therapy with nitroglycerin? A. Patients using the ...
• What is the recommended maintenance dose of prasugrel (to be taken after the loading dose)? ...
• Which of the following patient counseling points is FALSE for amiodarone? A. May cause ...
• Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding therapy with felodipine? A. Peripheral edema ...
• A patient comes to your pharmacy with a new prescription for Xarelto. Which of the ...
• Which of the following medications would be dosed 125 mcg qd? A. Digoxin ...
• What is the maximum recommended daily dose of telmisartan? A. 20 mg B. ...
• Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding metoprolol? A. Calcium channel blockers should ...
• Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding therapy with Entresto? A. It is ...
• Which of the following medications has been associated with a dry cough as an adverse ...
• Which of the following medications has the potential to cause the rare, but serious, adverse ...
• Which of the following is NOT a common adverse drug effect of carvedilol? A. ...
• A patient with diabetes should be counseled that which of the following medications may mask ...
• The most common location of atrial septal defects is in the area of the: ...
• The classic early manifestation(s) of left-sided congestive heart failure is/are ____, whereas the early indicator(s) ...
• The term cardiac arrest refers to which of the following? A. The cessation of ...
• Which of the following is most likely to cause left-sided congestive heart failure? A. ...
• Why does ventricular fibrillation result in cardiac arrest? A. The ventricles contract before the ...
• Blood is carried to capillaries in the myocardium by way of: A. Coronary veins ...
• Which of the following signs of hypovolemic shock is a relatively late sign? A. ...
• Which of the following is the most common form of vasculitis in the elderly? ...
• The most common cause of mitral stenosis in adults is: A. Mitral annular calcification ...
• The definition of congestive heart failure is: A. The demand for oxygen by the ...
• A source of an embolus causing an obstruction in the brain could be the: ...
• The basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction is best described as: A. Total obstruction of ...
• Effects that may be expected from a beta-adrenergic blocking drug include: A. Increased release ...
• Calcium-channel blocking drugs are effective in: A. Decreasing all types of cardiac arrhythmias ...
• Cyanosis occurs in children with tetralogy of Fallot because: A. The circulation is sluggish ...
• Significant signs of right-sided congestive heart failure include: A. Severe chest pain and tachycardia ...
• Which of the following is NOT an age-related change affecting the heart? A. Fibrosis ...
• A sign of aortic stenosis is: A. Congestion in the liver, spleen, and legs ...
• When stroke volume decreases, which of the following could maintain cardiac output? A. General ...
• A drug taken in small doses on a continuing basis to reduce platelet adhesion is: ...
• Stenosis of the mitral valve may initially cause a pressure increase in the: A. ...
• Stable angina, the most common form of angina pectoris, is caused by: A. Stenosis ...
• The term for pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the heart that may be ...
• The initial effect on the heart in cases of rheumatic fever is: A. Acute ...
• The most common cause of a myocardial infarction is: A. A disruption of the ...
• Compensation mechanisms for decreased cardiac output in cases of congestive heart failure include: A. ...
• Which marker of myocardial necrosis is elevated first in the blood of a patient with ...
• Uncontrolled hypertension is most likely to cause ischemia and loss of function in the: ...
• An echocardiogram is used to demonstrate any abnormal: A. Movement of the heart valves ...
• Pericarditis causes a reduction in cardiac output as a result of which of the following? ...
• The most common cause of sudden cardiac death, defined as occurring within 1 hour after ...
• Cardiac disease is found in 20% to 40% of patients with longstanding crippling rheumatoid arthritis. ...
• The outcome for many aortic aneurysms is: A. Pressure on adjacent organs or structures ...
• Secondary hypertension can be caused by: A. Arteriosclerosis B. Obesity C. Stress ...
• The term intermittent claudication refers to: A. Sensory deficit in the legs due to ...
• What is the primary role of the SA node? A. Delay the electrical impulse ...
• What is the function of the chordae tendineae? A. Conduct electrical impulses B. ...
• What does dromotropy affect in the heart? A. Heart rate B. Heart rhythm ...
• What is the role of papillary muscles in the heart? A. Pump blood into ...
• What does chronotropy refer to in cardiac terms? A. Heart rate B. Heart ...
• What is the normal duration of the QRS complex? A. 0.12 to 0.20 seconds ...
• Which heart valve prevents backflow of blood into the left ventricle? A. Tricuspid valve ...
• Which leads view the inferior surface of the left ventricle? A. I, aVL, V5, ...
• What is the primary function of the pericardium? A. Protect the heart B. ...
• Which chemical mediator is associated with the parasympathetic nervous system? A. Norepinephrine B. ...
• Which surface of the heart is located inferiorly? A. Anterior surface B. Septal ...
• Which valve is responsible for preventing backflow into the left atrium? A. Pulmonic ...
• What is the positive/negative electrode placement for Lead I? A. Positive left leg, negative ...
• Which part of the heart's conduction system delays the electrical impulse to allow ventricular filling? ...
• Which term refers to the heart's ability to respond to an electrical stimulus? A. ...
• Which artery supplies blood to the septal surface of the heart? A. RCA ...
• Which heart layer is directly involved in contraction? A. Endocardium B. Myocardium ...
• Which ECG leads are best for viewing the lateral surface of the left ventricle? ...
• What is inotropy related to in cardiac function? A. Heart rate B. Heart ...
• What does the QT segment in an ECG represent? A. Atrial depolarization B. ...
• Which layer of the heart muscle is the outermost? A. Endocardium B. Myocardium ...
• What is the primary function of the myocardium? A. Protect the heart B. ...
• What is the function of the RCA in the heart? A. Supplies blood to ...
• What does the P wave represent in an ECG? A. Ventricular depolarization B. ...
• What does the T wave represent in an ECG? A. Atrial repolarization B. ...
• Which node has the highest intrinsic firing rate? A. SA node B. AV ...
• Which lead is associated with viewing the inferior surface of the heart? A. Lead ...
• Which part of the heart's conduction system is responsible for rapid conduction? A. SA ...
• What does the U wave in an ECG represent? A. Atrial depolarization B. ...
• What is the normal duration of the PRI (PR Interval)? A. 0.12 to 0.20 ...
• Which heart valve prevents backflow of blood into the right atrium? A. Pulmonic valve ...
• Which structure is responsible for transmitting impulses from the atria to the ventricles? A. ...
• What is the primary function of the AV node? A. Initiate the heartbeat ...
• Which coronary artery is known as the widow maker? A. RCA B. LCA ...
• What is the normal duration of a P wave? A. 0.12 to 0.20 seconds ...
• Which part of the ECG represents ventricular depolarization? A. P wave B. QRS ...
• What is the function of the stratum corneum? A. Growth of the outer layer ...
• How does the skin protect the body from pathogens? A. The pH level of ...
• What does the sudoriferous gland do? A. lubricates the skin / eliminate lipids ...
• A fatty or oily secretion that lubricates the skin and preserves the softness of the ...
• Fatty tissue found below the dermis is A. Sebaceous tissue B. Subcutaneous tissue ...
• What is one way the skin's secretion function helps the body A. Keeps the ...
• Skin gets its strength, form and flexibility from A. Sebum and sweat B. ...
• Your client has rosy skin tone and strawberry blonde hair. What explains this hair color ...
• Gravity causes which two fibers to weaken over time? A. Keratin and protein ...
• What of the following correctly identifies the layers of the skin and fat from the ...
• Your client works in the sun daily and has noticed a change in the condition ...
• Which nerve fibers are distributed to the arrector pili muscles attached to the hair follicles? ...
• What are the primary differences in collagen and elastin? A. Collagen gives skin flexibility ...
• How is a person's skin color determined? A. By genetic makeup B. By ...
• Two types of pigment produced in an individual are A. Collagen and elastin ...
• The sudoriferous glands excrete perspiration, detoxifies the body, and A. Produces protein B. ...
• A physician who specializes in diseases and disorders of the skin, hair, and nails. ...
• Healthy collagen fibers give the skin A. Elasticity B. Color C. Form and ...
• What are collagen and elastin mostly composed of? A. Melanin B. Aminos ...
• Nerve fibers that convey impulses from the spinal cord to the muscles are called ...
• The outermost and thinnest layer of the skin is the A. Subcutaneous layer ...
• The skin's absorption function allows the skin to absorb some ingredients A. Through the ...
• A person with very fair skin has less activity in what structures A. Melanocytes ...
• __________ fibers react to heat, cold, touch, pressure and pain. A. Motor nerve ...
• The epidermal-dermal junction connects which two layers of the skin? A. Reticular and papillary ...
• The protective barrier that is made of sebum, lipids, sweat, and water is known as ...
• What is one reason it is important for cosmetologists to understand the structure and function ...
• When the clients react to temperature, they are exhibiting the skin's __________ function. A. ...
• What does a broad spectrum sunscreen do? A. Protects skin from sun exposure by ...
• Tiny grains of pigment deposited into cells of the epidermis and dermis are called ...
• The epidermis contains a greater variety of cell types in comparison to the dermis. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a pigment for skin color? A. collagen ...
• Which of the following is the medical specialty for the diagnosis and treatment of disorders ...
• Which of the following is NOT an important function of hair? A. lubrication of ...
• The dermis is composed of collagen and ____________. A. karatinocytes B. melanin ...
• Which of the following layers of skin is found in the fingertips, palms, and soles? ...
• Which of the following are the two major components of the integumentary system? A. ...
• The epidermis synthesizes vitamin C. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The main tissue in the dermis is _____. A. smooth muscle B. epithelial ...
• Which of the follow layers of skin is where cell division occurs? A. stratum ...
• The papillary region of the dermis consists of which of the following tissues? A. ...
• Which of the following sweat glands becomes active at puberty? A. apocrine sweat glands ...
• The youngest cells would be found in the stratum _____. A. corneum B. ...
• Which layer of skin will you find the greatest amount of keratin? A. stratum ...
• The human integumentary system includes: A. hair follicles, nails, sweat glands, and skin ...
• Which of the following is NOT a function of the integumentary system? A. Temperature ...
• What layer of skin produces melanin? A. Dermis B. Epidermis C. Hypodermis ...
• The cutaneous membrane is made up of which two of the following components? A. ...
• Which of the following cells function in the sensation of touch? A. schwann cells ...
• Which of the following cells is NOT found in the epidermis? A. corneocytes ...
• What is the classification of Invokana? A. SGLT2 Inhibitor B. Meglitinide C. Sulfonylurea ...
• Your pharmacist preceptor asks you to pull the generic of Amaryl off the shelf at ...
• Which of the following medications is classified as a meglitinide agent for diabetes? A. ...
• A patient presents to your pharmacy with a prescription for Evista. When she comes to ...
• What is the brand name of saxagliptin? A. Onglyza B. Invokana C. Soltamox ...
• A patient presents to your pharmacy with a prescription for Glucophage. As generic substitution is ...
• Which of the following medications is an example of a GLP-1 receptor agonist? A. ...
• Which of the following brand/generic pairings is INCORRECT? A. Byetta/exenatide B. AndroGel/testosterone ...
• Which of the following medications is the generic of Actonel? A. Prednisone B. ...
• What is the classification of levothyroxine? A. Progestin hormone B. Oral contraceptive ...
• What is the classification of Provera? A. Thyroid supplement B. Corticosteroid C. Progestin ...
• What is the generic name of Glucotrol? A. Dapagliflozin B. Glipizide C. Pioglitazone ...
• What is the generic name of Klor-Con? A. Raloxifene B. Potassium iodide ...
• Medications for diabetes work by various different mechanisms of action. Based on classification, which of ...
• A patient comes to your pharmacy after recently being diagnosed with osteoporosis. She tells you ...
• A patient comes to pick up a new prescription for Victoza, and you offer to ...
• Which of the following medications contains conjugated estrogens? A. PreCare B. Premarin ...
• Pioglitazone is a thiazolidinedione antidiabetic agent. What is the brand name of this medication? ...
• A patient comes to your pharmacy after visiting her OB/GYN for a prescription to help ...
• Which of the following medications is classified as an estrogen hormone? A. Folate ...
• A physician calls and asks for additional information about ThyroSafe. Which of the following medications ...
• A pediatrician calls the pharmacy to verify that you have a specific corticosteroid in stock ...
• Which of the following is a contraceptive? A. Nuvaring B. Medrol C. Deltasone ...
• You are completing a module on diabetes during your review session. The professor asks for ...
• You are studying your diabetes medications by classification. The drug card you’re reviewing is Actos. ...
• Which of the following medications is indicated for hypothyroidism? A. Prometrium B. Folate ...
• You have been asked to counsel a patient who is weary of needles but needs ...
• Which of the following medications might be included in the medication regimen for a noninsulin-dependent ...
• A patient presents to your pharmacy with a new prescription for Estrace. Before you begin ...
• Which of the following medications is indicated for breast cancer prophylaxis for high risk postmenopausal ...
• A patient presents to your pharmacy and says she needs her “diabetes pill refilled.” When ...
• Metformin is commonly prescribed for type 2 diabetes. What is another approved use for this ...
• Which of the following is indicated to alleviate the vasomotor symptoms (hot flashes) associated with ...
• What is the available dosage form of Vivelle-Dot? A. Tablet B. Capsule ...
• Which of the following medications is used for the prevention of thyroid dysfunction following radiation? ...
• Which of the following medications is indicated for rheumatoid arthritis? A. Methylprednisolone B. ...
• Which of the following is an ORAL sulfonylurea that is available in a sustained-release (XL) ...
• Which of the following is NOT an injectable medication for the treatment of type II ...
• Which of the following medications is NOT an oral agent for the treatment of diabetes? ...
• Which of the following medications is available as a transdermal patch? A. Boniva ...
• Nuvaring is a contraceptive agent that is available as a(n): A. Vaginal ring ...
• Which of the following medications is indicated for Paget disease? A. Dexamethasone B. ...
• K.W. has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, and she is told that ...
• Which of the following medications may be prescribed for an acute asthma exacerbation? A. ...
• Which of the following medications is indicated for certain types of anemia? A. Medroxyprogesterone ...
• Hormone therapy is initiated for amenorrhea in a female patient. Which of the following hormone ...
• Which of the following is an oral medication that is indicated for patients with type ...
• What is the available dosage form of Victoza? A. Tablet B. Cream ...
• What is the indication for ibandronate? A. Osteoporosis B. Diabetes C. Oral contraception ...
• While interning at your community pharmacy, you are asked to enter a new prescription for ...
• The sig “30 mg po qd” would be seen on an initial prescription for which ...
• For the treatment of hypothyroidism, the typical adult dosage range of levothyroxine is: A. ...
• Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding therapy with Actonel? A. Constipation and ...
• Which of the following medications for osteoporosis is dosed qmo? A. Fosamax B. ...
• Which of the following medications has a potential adverse effect of lactic acidosis? A. ...
• Which of the following oral medications for type 2 diabetes is dosed up to qid ...
• Patient consultation for Premarin should include which of the following? A. Take the medication ...
• What is the most commonly reported adverse drug reaction with DPP-4 inhibitors? A. Diarrhea ...
• How often is Trulicity dosed? A. qd B. qw C. qmo D. q3mo ...
• Which of the following diabetes medications should be administered qd before the first meal of ...
• What is the normal adult dose of sitagliptin for a patient with type 2 diabetes? ...
• Based on the mechanism of action, which of the following medications includes hypoglycemia as a ...
• How long should a Nuvaring remain in place before removal? A. 72 hours ...
• Which of the following statements about liraglutide is FALSE? A. This medication is dosed ...
• Which of the following is TRUE regarding Byetta? A. This medication should be taken ...
• Which of the following is FALSE regarding Actos patient consultation recommendations? A. May be ...
• Which of the following is FALSE regarding therapy with raloxifene? A. There is a ...
• How often should the injectable formulation of medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera) be administered for pregnancy prevention? ...
• How many times daily should dapagliflozin be taken? A. qd B. bid ...
• What is the weekly recommended dose of Fosamax for postmenopausal osteoporosis? A. 10 mg ...
• Which of the following is FALSE regarding therapy with prednisone? A. Hypoglycemia is a ...
• Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Smoking should be avoided when taking ...
• Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding testosterone therapy? A. This medication is ...
• Which of the following is TRUE regarding Glucotrol therapy? A. It should be taken ...
• How often should a new Vivelle-DOT patch be applied to the skin? A. Every ...
• The trade name Emetrol belongs to which of the following antiemetics? A. Meclizine ...
• Which of the following is considered a nonfiber laxative? A. Psyllium B. Calcium ...
• Which of the following medications is indicated for use as both a laxative and antidiarrheal? ...
• Which of the following is considered to be a hepatoprotectant? A. Milk thistle ...
• A patient’s physician recommends he takes alpha-D-galactosidase. In the OTC aisle, you correctly tell the ...
• A patient is walking up and down the OTC aisles looking for Gas-X. The generic ...
• A patient is in the OTC aisle with a note from her doctor to use ...
• You correctly tell a patient in the OTC aisle that dimenhydrinate is approved to treat ...
• As which of the following dosage forms is lansoprazole formulated? A. Delayed release capsule ...
• A patient says he is hearing a lot these days about all kinds of “CBD” ...
• Which of the following medications is indicated as an antiemetic? A. Melatonin B. ...
• A patient is wandering the OTC aisles in your pharmacy with Tucks Medicated Pads, which ...
• Stimulant laxative is the drug class for which of the following medications? A. Meclizine ...
• Pramoxine is indicated to treat which of the following? A. Heartburn and indigestion ...
• Which of the following generic/brand pairings is correct? A. Phenylephrine topical / Cortizone-10 ...
• A patient walks into your pharmacy requesting Imodium A-D, which is the brand for which ...
• Which of the following brand/generic pairs is correct? A. Tagamet/famotidine B. Colace/docusate ...
• Which of the following drug/drug classification pairs is correct? A. esomeprazole / proton pump ...
• Your preceptor is quizzing you on the brand names of various products used to treat ...
• The topical ointment formulation of phenylephrine would be found in which of the following OTC ...
• Bismuth subsalicylate is indicated for all of the following conditions EXCEPT: A. Nausea ...
• Metamucil is available on the OTC shelf in all of the following formulations EXCEPT: ...
• Goldenseal is classified as which of the following? A. Antacid B. Fiber laxative ...
• Wheat dextrin has the self-care indication of which of the following? A. Moisturizer ...
• Magnesium hydroxide is also known as which of the following brands? A. Monistat ...
• The brand name of famotidine is _____________. A. Nexium B. Pepcid C. Tagamet ...
• What is the maximum recommended dose of Prevacid for patients with confirmed Zollinger-Ellison syndrome? ...
• How often should an oxybutynin patch be applied? A. Every 12 hours B. ...
• Which of the following medications is dosed 24 mcg po bid for IBS with constipation? ...
• Triple therapy for H. pylori, which includes lansoprazole, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin, is usually given for ...
• You receive a prescription with directions that state to insert one suppository bid as needed. ...
• What is the recommended dose of Xifaxan for hepatic encephalopathy? A. 400 mg bid ...
• The directions for which of the following medications would be “take 1 g qid?” ...
• Which of the following is FALSE regarding therapy with Flomax? A. It is recommended ...
• The dose of polyethylene glycol is 17 g of powder dissolved in 240 mL of ...
• Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Nexium? A. It is recommended to ...
• Which of the following medications may include prescription descriptions that read “take 2mg po daily”? ...
• Which of the following medications for overactive bladder would have directions on the prescription reading ...
• Which of the following is the recommended starting dose for Detrol LA for an adult ...
• Which of the following antidiarrheals, classified as a controlled substance, should be used with caution ...
• Which of the following prescription dosing directions would you likely see on a prescription for ...
• What is the dose of sildenafil for pulmonary hypertension? A. 5 mg qd ...
• Patients may receive metoclopramide for a diagnosis of gastroparesis. What is the appropriate dose of ...
• Which of the following medications should NOT be touched by a pregnant patient? A. ...
• You have filled a new prescription for solifenacin for a patient. Which of the following ...
• Which medication indicated to treat gastroesophageal disease may include directions that read: “Take 40 mg ...
• What is the most common adverse effect of Linzess? A. Skin rash B. ...
• The sig “1PR Q4-6h PRN N/V” would commonly be seen on a prescription for which ...
• Which of the following is a commonly prescribed adult dose of Prilosec for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome? ...
• Which of the following is FALSE regarding therapy with vardenafil? A. Flushing is one ...
• Which of the following is NOT a common adverse effect of dicyclomine? A. Drowsiness ...
• You have a patient who developed gastropathy secondary to frequent NSAID use. Which of the ...
• Patients with chronic pain who are prescribed opioid analgesics often require medication for constipation. Which ...
• Which of the following urinary bladder modifiers is available as a topical patch? A. ...
• A patient comes to your pharmacy to pick up a prescription that they will need ...
• A patient comes to the pharmacy to pick up a new prescription for overactive bladder. ...
• Which of the following medical conditions is an indication for famotidine? A. Overactive bladder ...
• You are a pharmacist at the pulmonology clinic. The nurse practitioner asks for a recommendation ...
• Which of the following statements regarding proton pump inhibitors is FALSE? A. Pantoprazole is ...
• Which of the following is an indication for prochlorperazine? A. Irritable bowel syndrome ...
• Which of the following medications would be the best option to give a patient diagnosed ...
• Based on indication, which of the following pairs of medications are the LEAST alike? ...
• Which proton pump inhibitor is available as an orally disintegrating tablet? A. Lansoprazole ...
• A urologist calls your pharmacy to see if you have a product in stock that ...
• Which of the following is an available dosage form of solifenacin? A. Tablet ...
• Which of the following symptoms is an indication for Pyridium? A. Diarrhea B. ...
• You are working as an intern in the hospital oncology department. Which of the following ...
• You are rounding with the internal medicine team, and they ask for your recommendation for ...
• Which of the following is TRUE regarding Reglan? A. Reglan is indicated for chronic ...
• A patient comes to your pharmacy with a prescription for oxybutynin. Which of the following ...
• A 55-year-old male patient comes to your pharmacy after an appointment with his urologist. He ...
• Which of the following is an indication for Adcirca? A. Nausea and vomiting ...
• Which of the following medication/indication pairs is INCORRECT? A. Carafate/duodenal ulcer treatment. B. ...
• What is the available dosage form of vardenafil? A. Suspension B. Tablet ...
• A patient comes to your pharmacy with a prescription for her child, who has been ...
• Which of the following medications is indicated for irritable bowel syndrome? A. Dicyclomine ...
• What is the brand name of lubiprostone? A. Amitiza B. Prevacid C. Lomotil ...
• As a pharmacy intern, your preceptor often asks you questions when you are working at ...
• You are on rotation with a few medical students. They ask you to provide them ...
• Propecia is indicated for alopecia. Which medication has the same generic name and is indicated ...
• A patient comes to your pharmacy to fill a prescription for Adcirca. After filling the ...
• Which of the following is the correct answer? A. Vardenafil B. Solifenacin ...
• A patient comes to your pharmacy counter and asks for famotidine. Your OTC aisles are ...
• Which of the following brand/classification pairings is INCORRECT? A. Nexium/proton pump inhibitor B. ...
• You are an oncology clinical pharmacist and are asked to recommend an antiemetic for a ...
• Which of the following is the brand name of sildenafil? A. Proscar B. ...
• What is the brand name of rabeprazole? A. Aciphex B. Nexium C. Reglan ...
• Which of the following medications is NOT classified as a proton pump inhibitor (PPI)? ...
• A patient comes to your pharmacy after seeing her gastroenterologist and presents a new prescription ...
• Which of the following is the generic name of Pyridium? A. Promethazine B. ...
• You are studying for a therapeutics exam, and you decide to group the medications based ...
• What is the brand name of mirabegron? A. Golytely B. Linzess C. Myrbetriq ...
• Based on the generic name, which of the following medications is most closely related to ...
• What is the generic name of Flomax? A. Dutasteride B. Tamsulosin C. Finasteride ...
• What is the classification of Pentosan? A. Proton pump inhibitor B. Urinary tract ...
• What is the generic name of Carafate? A. Prochlorperazine B. Dicyclomine C. Omeprazole ...
• Patients with severe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) often require a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) to ...
• What is the classification of Golytely? A. Urinary tract analgesic B. Laxative ...
• Your preceptor asks you to locate Linzess on the shelf of your pharmacy which is ...
• You are filling a prescription for Reglan for a patient. Medications at your pharmacy are ...
• When you are working at a pharmacy, you are asked to counsel a patient receiving ...