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• What type of bonds hold the chains in an immunoglobulin molecule together? A. Hydrogen ...
• Which class of immunoglobulin is the first type of antibody to be secreted during an ...
• What is the role of IgE in the immune system? A. Neutralizes toxins ...
• Which class of antibody is secreted near the end of the primary response? A. ...
• Diagram showing binding of antibodies to antigens causing agglutination, precipitation, or neutralization. A. Agglutination ...
• How do Ig receptors differ from TLR innate receptors? A. Ig receptors have variable ...
• What is the function of the Fc region in immunoglobulins? A. To bind to ...
• What is the role of pre-mRNA transcripts in the formation of immunoglobulins? A. They ...
• Which regions of the immunoglobulin molecule are responsible for antigen binding? A. Fc regions ...
• What triggers the development of lymphocyte clones in Jenner's patients? A. Inoculation with cowpox ...
• What is the structural form of IgA? A. Monomer B. Dimer C. Pentamer ...
• What process generates immunoglobulin diversity in vertebrates? A. Antigen binding B. DNA rearrangement ...
• Which immunoglobulin is present only on the surfaces of B cells? A. IgA ...
• What is the process called that involves the joining of three separate DNA segments to ...
• What enzyme is used to join DNA fragments during recombinant DNA technology? A. Helicase ...
• Why is DNA ligase important in genetic engineering? A. It cuts the DNA into ...
• How does DNA sequencing enable the mapping of species’ genomes? A. By identifying the ...
• What is the role of gene probes in DNA analysis? A. To bind to ...
• What is the purpose of using restriction enzymes in gene cloning? A. To remove ...
• What happens during the cooling phase of PCR? A. DNA strands separate B. ...
• DNA fragments move through the gel during electrophoresis because: A. DNA is positively charged ...
• What are sticky ends in the context of restriction enzyme action? A. Overhanging ends ...
• Variable number tandem repeats (VNTRs) differ from STRs because they: A. Have no repeating ...
• What is the role of free nucleotides in PCR? A. They break apart the ...
• Which of the following is the role of free nucleotides in PCR? A. To ...
• How do restriction enzymes work? A. They amplify the DNA B. They bind ...
• Which of the following describes how a gene probe is detected? A. By its ...
• During PCR, the temperature is lowered to allow the primers to bind to the single-stranded ...
• Which of the following best describes recombinant DNA? A. DNA that has been artificially ...
• How are DNA fragments separated during gel electrophoresis? A. By heating the gel ...
• What role does heating play in PCR? A. It separates the two DNA strands ...
• In DNA profiling, homozygous individuals for a particular STR locus have: A. Two identical ...
• Which technique is used to amplify small segments of DNA? A. Gel electrophoresis ...
• What is the purpose of extracting DNA from cells? A. To observe chromosomes ...
• Restriction enzymes cut DNA by: A. Destroying the nucleotide bases B. Breaking the ...
• What is the significance of non-coding introns in DNA profiling? A. They contain repeating ...
• Which of the following best explains the difference between capillary electrophoresis and gel electrophoresis? ...
• Why is Taq polymerase used in PCR? A. It can bind to DNA primers ...
• What are short tandem repeats (STRs) used for in DNA profiling? A. To cut ...
• How are restriction enzymes used in genetic engineering? A. To amplify genes for study ...
• What role does DNA profiling play in paternity testing? A. It determines the base ...
• Which technique is used to display the results of electrophoresis? A. Electropherogram B. ...
• DNA profiling relies on the analysis of: A. DNA coding regions B. The ...
• In the context of DNA analysis, what is an electropherogram used for? A. Amplifying ...
• Which step in PCR involves separating the DNA strands? A. Annealing B. Denaturation ...
• Which of the following is the first step in DNA extraction? A. Heating the ...
• Which ethical issue is associated with DNA profiling? A. DNA degradation B. Use ...
• How can differences in DNA fragments help in forensic investigations? A. By determining the ...
• What is the significance of capillary electrophoresis? A. It amplifies DNA B. It ...
• What are primers in PCR? A. Short strands of RNA that break DNA ...
• What are some common sources of carbohydrates used in fermentation media? A. Malt ...
• What is the role of carbon sources in fermentation media? A. Biosynthesis B. ...
• What are nitrogen sources in fermentation media? A. Inorganic B. Organic C. Both ...
• What is the function of antifoaming agents in fermentation? A. Reduce foam formation ...
• What is the purpose of buffers in fermentation media? A. Adjust pH B. ...
• What are the advantages of batch fermentation? A. Operating with minimum system requirements. ...
• What is a fed-batch culture? A. A culture established initially in batch mode and ...
• What are the components of fermentation media? A. Carbon source B. Nitrogen source ...
• What are growth factors in fermentation media? A. Essential organic compounds B. Non-essential ...
• What is the primary purpose of using inoculum in fermentation? A. To initiate the ...
• What are the objectives when developing fermentation media? A. To satisfy nutritional requirements ...
• What is submerged fermentation? A. Involves submersion of microorganisms B. Involves solid substrates ...
• What are the two main stages of industrial fermentation? A. Upstream processing B. ...
• What type of bond involves the sharing of electrons? A. Ionic bond B. ...
• What percentage of the human body is carbon? A. 8% B. 18% ...
• What are the three main subatomic particles? A. Protons, electrons, atoms B. Protons, ...
• What determines the strength of an ionic bond? A. Number of electrons transferred only ...
• What charge does a proton have? A. Positive B. Negative C. Neutral ...
• In a neutral atom with 18 electrons, which statement must be true? A. It ...
• What is the charge of a neutral atom? A. Positive B. Negative ...
• Which of these is an element? A. Water B. Carbon dioxide C. Oxygen ...
• What characteristic of carbon makes it essential for life? A. Its abundance in the ...
• A molecule with the empirical formula CH2O and a molecular mass of 180 g/mol would ...
• What percentage of the human body is composed of oxygen? A. 45% B. ...
• Which combination of atomic particles would create a negative ion? A. 11 protons, 12 ...
• What distinguishes a molecule from a compound? A. Molecules always contain carbon B. ...
• In a triple covalent bond, how many electrons are shared between the atoms? A. ...
• What is the relationship between molecular mass and empirical formula mass? A. They are ...
• Which physical state of matter has no fixed shape or volume? A. Solid ...
• Which electron configuration represents a noble gas? A. 2.8.7 B. 2.8.8 C. 2.8.6 ...
• What happens to the electron configuration when a neutral sodium atom (Na) becomes a sodium ...
• Which of these is an organic substance? A. Water B. Glucose C. Sodium ...
• What determines the type of bond that will form between atoms? A. Atomic mass ...
• Which statement about covalent bonds is FALSE? A. They involve sharing of electrons ...
• If an atom has 15 protons, 16 neutrons, and 15 electrons, what is its: ...
• Which property is NOT shared by isotopes of the same element? A. Number of ...
• What is the atomic number? A. Number of protons B. Number of neutrons ...
• Where is most of an atom's mass located? A. In the electrons B. ...
• What determines the identity of an element? A. Number of neutrons B. Number ...
• Which combination would result in the strongest ionic bond? A. Na+ and F- ...
• Where are the electrons located in an atom? A. In the nucleus B. ...
• What is a molecule? A. A single atom B. Two or more atoms ...
• Animal sterol is called: A. Mycosterol B. Non-sterol C. Phytosterol D. Zoosterol
• It have specific shape and volume. A. BEC B. Gas C. Liquid ...
• A substance, which provides OH- ions in aqueous solution: A. Acid B. Base ...
• A substance that resist change in pH: A. Acid B. Base C. Buffer ...
• The force of attraction that holds atoms together is called : A. Chemical bond ...
• Part of atom located outside the nucleus: A. Electron B. Proton C. Neutron ...
• Normal PH range of blood is: A. 0-14 B. 1-7 C. 7.35-7.45 ...
• The combination of two glucose units forms: A. Fructose B. Lactose C. Maltose ...
• Bad Cholesterol is: A. Chylomicrons B. Very low density lipoproteins C. Low density ...
• CnH2n+2 is the general formula of: A. Alkanes B. Alkenes C. Alkynes ...
• The compounds that contain polyhydroxyl aldehyde or polyhydroxyl ketone are called: A. Carbohydrates ...
• A substance, which provides H+ ions in aqueous solution: A. Acid B. Base ...
• Oxidation is: A. Gain of electrons B. Gain of hydrogen C. Loss of ...
• Chemical reaction in which two or more substances combine to form product is: A. ...
• Basic unit of matter is: A. Atom B. Compound C. Element D. Mixture ...
• CnH2n-2 is the general formula of : A. Alkanes B. Alkenes C. Alkynes ...
• CnH2n is the general formula of : A. Alkanes B. Alkenes C. Alkynes ...
• It provides protective cushion to our vital organs: A. Carbohydrates B. Hormones ...
• Any thing that occupies space & has mass is called: A. Atom B. ...
• Organic compounds that have aroma are called: A. Alkane B. Alkene C. Alkyne ...
• It transport cholesterol from extra-hepatic tissues back to liver: A. Chylomicron B. HDL ...
• A chemical bond formed between two atoms by complete transfer of electron from one atom ...
• The building block of proteins is: A. Amino acids B. Eicosanoids ...
• Structure of proteins that is made by aggregates of two or more protein chain is ...
• Round shaped proteins are: A. Elastic proteins B. Fibrous proteins C. Globular ...
• Reduction is: A. Gain of electrons B. Gain of oxygen C. Loss of ...
• Contractile proteins include: A. Actin, myosin B. Albumin, transferin C. Immunoglobulin, interferon ...
• The building block of lipid is: A. Amino acid B. Fatty acid ...
• A type of chemical formula that shows actual number of atoms present in a molecule ...
• Acid and base react to form: A. Metals B. Salt C. Salt and ...
• What is the term for microbes that cause diseases? A. Nonpathogens B. Pathogens ...
• Which of the following is a method of active immunization? A. Blood transfusion ...
• Which of the following is a characteristic of prokaryotic cells? A. Binary fission for ...
• Which of the following is NOT a type of microorganism? A. Mammals B. ...
• What is the role of algae in nature? A. Act as parasites B. ...
• What is the primary function of ribosomes in all cell types? A. DNA replication ...
• What is the cell wall of fungi made of? A. Protein B. Cellulose ...
• What is the primary component of bacterial cell walls? A. Peptidoglycan B. Chitin ...
• What is the main difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells? A. Prokaryotic cells have ...
• Which of the following is a unicellular eukaryotic microbe? A. Algae B. Bacteria ...
• Which of the following is a characteristic of viruses? A. They are cellular ...
• What is the primary focus of microbiology? A. Study of large organisms B. ...
• What type of microscope uses a beam of electrons? A. Digital Microscope B. ...
• Which of the following microbes thrive in extreme environments? A. Fungi B. Archaea ...
• What are prions? A. Bacteria B. Infectious proteins C. Viruses D. Fungi ...
• The stretchy bag of muscle that digests swallowed food is the _______. A. liver ...
• Which organ produces insulin and enzymes? A. Liver B. Stomach C. Pancreas ...
• What are the five basic food groups? A. Fruits, proteins, dairy, vegetables, and grains ...
• What is the small organ that stores extra bile from the liver? A. Kidney ...
• The part of the digestive system that takes in water and salts is the _____. ...
• The nutrients that provided stored energy for the body are called ______. A. vitamins ...
• Two organs that help digest food and are not part of the digestive tract are ...
• The small organ that stores extra bile from the liver is the ________. A. ...
• What do different foods have that give the body energy? A. Vitamins B. ...
• What is the process of breaking down foods into forms that the body can use ...
• What is the process of breaking down food into smaller pieces by grinding it called? ...
• What is the clear liquid in the mouth that begins the digestive process? A. ...
• The first part of the digestive system is the _____. A. stomach B. ...
• What is the hard covering that protects the teeth from the pressures of biting and ...
• What is the flap of tissue that covers the opening of the trachea called? ...
• Which taste is associated with cheese and tomatoes? A. Sweet B. Sour ...
• Vaccines can help your body remember germs. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What might happen if your body couldn't produce antibodies? A. It wouldn't be able ...
• A pathogen that depends on living things to reproduce is a A. Bacteria ...
• Name two types immune system A. Passive and Active B. Passive and Aggressive ...
• The diagram shows a pathogen, what is the arrow pointing to on the surface of ...
• What is the Immune system? A.  The body's defense system B. A system ...
• Active immunity is when A. Lymphocyte produce their own antibodies B. Antibodies is ...
• Organisms like ticks and mosquitos that spread diseases are called? A. Fungi B. ...
• Viruses are the smallest disease-causing organisms. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What traps germs in your respiratory system? A. White Blood Cells B. Stomach ...
• Any condition that interferes with the proper functioning of the body or mind is a(n)_______________. ...
• Cells that ingest pathogens are A. plasma cells B. phagocytic cells C. helper ...
• What is the scientific name of the causes of infectious diseases? A. Germ ...
• Which of the following remember antigens that have already attacked the body? A. Antibodies ...
• Breastfeeding is how a baby will acquire a _____________ A. Natural active immunity ...
• A protein that attacks antigens is called: A. Antibody B. Immune response ...
• An immune response that occurs in the human body is shown above. This activity helps ...
• What do B cells produce? A. antigens B. macrophages C. T cells ...
• Organisms that cause diseases are called? A. Pathogens B. Hosts C. Phagocytes ...
• A molecule that the immune system recognizes either as part of the body or as ...
• A disease that can spread from person to person is A. Inherited B. ...
• Which of the following statements is TRUE about someone's immune system that has allergies? ...
• What is the main function of white blood cells? A. Transport oxygen B. ...
• Any foreign molecule that can trigger an immune response is called a(n): A. antibody ...
• An organism that lives on and feeds on another organism is a A. Bacteria ...
• Which system protects you from disease? A. Endocrine B. Immune C. Nervous ...
• A disease that is harmful to the body and is contagious is called.... A. ...
• The purpose of the immune system is to: A. Help germs invade your body ...
• What is the other name for red blood cells? A. Erythrocytes B. Leukocytes ...
• A substance made from a weakened pathogen or part of a pathogen that triggers an ...
• Which cells identify and destroy germs? A. Bacteria B. Neurons C. Red Blood ...
• Diseases can be transmitted by all of the following except A. Contaminated food ...
• What is a vaccine? A. A weakened pathogen injected in the body to produce ...
• First Line of defenses include... A. Skin and Mucus B. White Blood Cells ...
• All diseases are caused by pathogens. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What is the primary diagnostic tool for tuberculosis case finding? A. Blood culture ...
• What is the recommended preventive measure for tuberculosis? A. Isolation of patients B. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a symptom of tuberculosis? A. Night sweating ...
• What is the incubation period for severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)? A. 1-3 days ...
• Which bacterium is responsible for tuberculosis? A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Bacillus anthracis ...
• Which of the following is a common symptom of pneumonia? A. Cough with rusty ...
• What is considered the deadliest respiratory disease? A. Influenza B. Whooping Cough ...
• Which age group is most susceptible to whooping cough? A. Teenagers B. Children ...
• What is the primary treatment for cutaneous anthrax? A. Vaccination B. Intravenous fluids ...
• What is the primary mode of transmission for tuberculosis? A. Direct contact B. ...
• What is a common complication of whooping cough? A. Tuberculosis B. Pneumonia ...
• What is the causative agent of diphtheria? A. Mycobacterium bovis B. Bordetella pertussis ...
• What is the main source of infection for bird flu? A. Airborne particles ...
• What is a key nursing responsibility for patients with respiratory diseases? A. Administering vaccines ...
• What is the incubation period for influenza? A. 7-10 days B. 24-72 hours ...
• What is the term for a sudden, severe onset condition that requires short-term care? ...
• What is an extra sound in the heartbeat that occurs when blood flows through the ...
• What occurs when an organ or part of the body doesn't receive enough blood flow, ...
• What term describes a disease or condition that arises spontaneously or for which the cause ...
• What is the process of increasing the size, density, and shape of an organ or ...
• In an electrocardiogram (ECG), what is the line between two points on the ECG that ...
• What is the electrical signal captured by an electrode during an ECG called? A. ...
• What is the continuous transmission and monitoring of electrical activity of the heart called? ...
• Which procedure uses sound waves to create images of the heart and nearby blood vessels? ...
• What is the death of body tissue, which can occur when cells in the tissue ...
• What is the study of the electrical activity of biological cells and tissues, including the ...
• What is an abnormal heartbeat or an irregular rhythm in the heart called? A. ...
• Which procedure restores a normal heart rhythm when it's beating abnormally or too fast? ...
• What is the term for the return of stimulated muscle to the resting state? ...
• What is the electrical shift in muscle cells that causes them to contract called? ...
• How can the presence of aphasia, apraxia, and agnosia in a patient support the diagnosis ...
• How does Alzheimer's disease differ from other forms of dementia in terms of its classification ...
• How does the classification of Alzheimer's disease into mild, moderate, and severe stages assist in ...
• What strategic approaches can be used to differentiate between Alzheimer's disease and other forms of ...
• Discuss the significance of cognitive deficits in diagnosing Alzheimer's disease and how they relate to ...
• Strategize a plan for managing the progression of Alzheimer's disease in a patient diagnosed with ...
• Analyze the implications of diagnosing Alzheimer's disease at an early stage in terms of treatment ...
• What reasoning can be used to explain why Alzheimer's disease is considered a degenerative disorder? ...
• Evaluate the role of vascular dementia in the context of dementia-related diseases and its relationship ...
• How does the progression of Alzheimer's disease impact the planning of long-term care for patients? ...
• Evaluate the impact of early onset Alzheimer's disease compared to late onset in terms of ...
• Analyze the stages of Alzheimer's disease and determine how the symptoms evolve as the disease ...
• What evidence supports the classification of Alzheimer's disease as a neuropsychiatric disorder? A. It ...
• Evaluate the importance of recognizing emotional and behavioral changes in Alzheimer's patients for effective management ...
• Discuss the potential challenges in diagnosing Alzheimer's disease in its early stages and how they ...
• What is a common characteristic of a Grade 1 muscle strain? A. Complete rupture ...
• Which type of muscle is responsible for voluntary movement? A. Smooth muscle B. ...
• What is the main function of the patella? A. To protect the knee joint ...
• What is the primary function of ligaments? A. To produce synovial fluid B. ...
• What is a common sign of a ligament tear? A. Localized swelling and bruising ...
• What is a common symptom of a stress fracture? A. Complete loss of function ...
• The degree of sprain/strain where there is a partial ...
• Which type of fracture involves the bone breaking through the skin? A. Closed fracture ...
• A dislocation occurs when a ________ is pulled or ...
• Sprains occur when ________ at the joints get stretched ...
• What is the main function of synovial membranes? A. To produce cartilage B. ...
• Which type of cartilage is found on the articulating surfaces of bones? A. Fibrocartilage ...
• What is the main characteristic of tendinosis? A. Complete rupture of the tendon ...
• a sudden or violent twist of a joint with ...
• Which type of injury is characterized by damage to a ligament? A. Muscle strain ...
• What is the primary cause of tendinitis? A. Chronic overuse B. Inflammatory response ...
• What is the typical healing time for a ligament sprain? A. 1-2 weeks ...
• What is a common treatment for a muscle strain? A. Immediate surgery B. ...
• What is a common symptom of a muscle tear? A. Sudden sharp pain ...
• What is the main role of synovial fluid in joints? A. To provide structural ...
• Strains occur to what structure? A. Bones B. Ligaments C. Skin D. Muscle ...
• Chronic injuries can be caused by A. ...
• An ACL sprain is a tear of the Anterior ...
• What is the primary cause of cartilage damage? A. Poor nutrition B. Inadequate ...
• What is the primary role of the Achilles tendon? A. To connect the calf ...
• What is the primary function of cartilage? A. To store energy B. To ...
• Which type of joint allows for the greatest range of motion? A. Hinge joint ...
• What is the role of fibroblasts in ligament healing? A. To absorb shock ...
• What is the primary purpose of the meniscus in the knee joint? A. To ...
• Inflammation of the tendon. A. Bursitis ...
• which of the following conditions will lead to absent a wave in JVP measurement ? ...
• straight left heart border on chest X ray is associated with which Murmur A. ...
• which murmur is associated with a prominent ‘v’ wave in the JVP and a pulsatile ...
• fixed splitting of the second heart sound occurs in which of the following conditions ? ...
• diastole represents an interval between A. P2A2 and S1 B. S2 and S1 ...
• what's the importance of JVP measurement A. Assessing fluid status and cardiac function ...
• If right atrial pressure is high how do we measure JVP? A. let the ...
• which grade signifies how loud diastolic murmurs could get ? A. Grade 2 ...
• which of the following conditions will cause jvp abnormality A. Pulmonary stenosis B. ...
• which of the following is a systolic murmur A. Mitral stenosis B. Tricuspid ...
• what does the c wave represent in JVP waveform A. Aortic valve bulging into ...
• which of the following vessels is best used to check for JVP ? A. ...
• which of the following is a diastolic murmur A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Tricuspid ...
• which of the following murmurs lead to increase in stroke volume ? A. Aortic ...
• Which of the following will cause prominent A wave in JVP ? A. Left ...
• An auscultatory sound best heard using the diaphragm with the patient holding their breath in ...
• which of the following conditions best fit the image ...
• a wave when measuring JVP signifies ? A. atrial contraction or atrial systole ...
• rapidly changing murmurs signify which of the following diseases ? A. Mitral Stenosis ...
• in which of the following condition is finding of a third heart sound physiologic ...
• Which side of the heart handles deoxygenated blood? A. Both sides B. Right ...
• What is the main function of the left ventricle? A. Pump oxygenated blood to ...
• Which heart valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle? A. Pulmonary ...
• What is the main function of the pulmonary circulation? A. Transport blood between the ...
• Which layer lines the interior of the heart and provides a smooth lining? A. ...
• Which term describes the ability of heart muscle cells to generate electrical impulses independently? ...
• What is the primary function of the cardiovascular system? A. Connective tissue B. ...
• Which blood vessels are involved in the actual exchange of water and chemicals between blood ...
• What is the primary function of the cardiovascular system? A. Connective tissue B. ...
• Which circulation involves the transport of blood to all parts of the body except the ...
• What is the main function of arteries? A. Carry blood away from the heart ...
• Which chambers of the heart receive blood from the body and lungs? A. Aortic ...
• Which valve prevents backflow of blood into the right atrium? A. Aortic valve ...
• What is the role of the pericardium? A. Protects and surrounds the heart ...
• What is a key characteristic of veins? A. Myocardium B. Epicardium C. Endocardium ...
• Which type of blood vessel has valves to prevent backflow? A. Arterioles B. ...
• What is the role of the sinoatrial (SA) node? A. Pumps blood into the ...
• Which layer of the heart is responsible for its pumping action? A. Valves ...
• What is the longest and strongest bone in the body? A. Stirrup B. ...
• What does the musculoskeletal system include? A. Bones and muscles only B. Joints ...
• What joins the bones together? A. Muscles B. Tendons C. Joints D. Knobs ...
• These joints are fixed. They do not allow movement. A. immovable joint B. ...
• What organs make up the skeletal system? A. Bones B. Skin C. Muscles ...
• These joints allow movement in all directions. The joints in shoulder and hip have these. ...
• Which is a function of the muscular system? A. Exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide. ...
• These muscles are considered involuntary, they cannot be controlled consciously. They are present in the ...
• How do muscles move? A. Stretch and contract B. Expand and collapse ...
• How can stretching exercises benefit the musculoskeletal system? A. Improve flexibility and reduce the ...
• What organs make up the muscular system? A. Bones B. Intestines C. Muscles ...
• Which injury is more severe, involving torn ligaments? A. Arthritis B. Osteoporosis ...
• Which among the organs DOES NOT belong to the group? A. Skull B. ...
• This bone protects the brain. A. rib cage B. skull
• How many muscles are there in the body? A. about 63 B. about ...
• It is composed mainly of the skeleton and the different types of the muscles such ...
• Which type of muscles move under our control? A. Voluntary Muscles B. Involuntary ...
• What are the organ systems that make up the musculoskeletal system? A. Muscular and ...
• These joints allow side to side and back and forth movement. These joints are present ...
• What does the musculoskeletal system include? A. Bones and muscles only B. Joints ...
• What role does the musculoskeletal system play in protecting vital organs? A. Regulating body ...
• What food should we eat to help build our muscles? A. Calcium rich food ...
• What is the primary function of the musculoskeletal system? A. Regulate body temperature ...
• These muscles allow the heart to contract allowing blood to circulate. A. smooth muscles ...
• What is the primary function of the musculoskeletal system? A. Regulate body temperature ...
• These joints allow movement in one direction. These joints are present in the elbow and ...
• Which type of muscles move on its own? A. Voluntary Muscles B. Involuntary ...
• The muscles that compose the blood vessels and the digestive tract are made up of ...
• Which injury is more severe, involving torn ligaments? A. Arthritis B. Osteoporosis ...
• When is adequate calcium intake important for healthy bone development? A. During adulthood ...
• What is osteonecrosis also known as? A. Bone inflammation B. Bone death ...
• Which cells are responsible for bone resorption? A. Osteoblasts B. Osteoclasts C. Chondrocytes ...
• What part of the body is most commonly affected by osteonecrosis? A. Femur ...
• What is a Jones fracture? A. Fracture of the clavicle B. Fracture of ...
• What is a comminuted fracture? A. A fracture with a single line through the ...
• What is the benefit of early mobilization after a fracture? A. Decreases bone density ...
• What condition can result from poor cartilage regeneration after adolescence? A. Increased bone density ...
• How does immobilization affect bone tissue after one week? A. Increases bone strength ...
• What is the primary function of osteocytes? A. Resorb bone B. Form new ...
• What does heterotopic ossification result in? A. Muscle hypertrophy B. Bone formation in ...
• What marks the beginning of the reparative phase in fracture healing? A. Formation of ...
• How long does the reparative phase typically last? A. 1-2 weeks B. 3-4 ...
• What is the primary difference between open and closed fractures? A. Open fractures do ...
• What is the primary function of cartilage in the body? A. Support muscle growth ...
• What is the main clinical symptom of a tibial stress fracture? A. Knee pain ...
• What is a common type of fracture in adults? A. Greenstick fracture B. ...
• What percentage of body weight is typically considered partial weight-bearing? A. 10% B. ...
• What is the role of electrical muscle stimulation in rehabilitation? A. Increase bone density ...
• What is the primary symptom of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease? A. Shoulder pain B. Hip ...
• Who is typically affected by Osgood-Schlatter Syndrome? A. Elderly adults B. Young athletes ...
• What is the goal of rehabilitation during immobilization? A. Increase muscle atrophy B. ...
• What is the purpose of external fixation in fracture repair? A. To increase bone ...
• What is the main characteristic of a complete fracture? A. Partial break in the ...
• What is the definition of osteopenia? A. Increase in bone density B. Decrease ...
• What sport is most commonly associated with stress fractures? A. Basketball B. Swimming ...
• What is a nonunion fracture? A. A fracture that heals improperly B. A ...
• What is an avulsion fracture? A. A fracture where the bone is shattered ...
• What is BMD an abbreviation for? A. Bone Mineral Density B. Bone Mass ...
• What are factors that can impact bone healing? A. Nutritional deficiencies B. Adequate ...
• What impact does aging have on bone? A. Increases bone density B. Decreases ...
• Hannah, a young athlete, is diagnosed with Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease. Explain the reasoning behind using physical ...
• During a biology class, Aria learned about a condition that occurs due to a neural ...
• Michael, a young athlete, is recovering from a femoral fracture. Which rehabilitation strategy is most ...
• During a biology class, Lily learned about a genetic disorder characterized by brittle bones and ...
• During a school sports day, Scarlett noticed that one of her classmates had difficulty with ...
• Michael, a young boy, is diagnosed with a condition. Which of the following is a ...
• William is a young boy diagnosed with scoliosis. What is the primary goal of his ...
• Hannah, a 10-year-old, has been diagnosed with developmental dysplasia of the hip. Discuss the strategic ...
• Scarlett, a young girl, visits the doctor due to persistent hip pain. What is the ...
• Aria is a pediatrician who is treating an infant with hip dysplasia. Explain the reasoning ...
• Elijah is a young boy who has been diagnosed with a condition that affects his ...
• Arjun, a 10-year-old boy, arrives at the emergency room with a suspected fracture after falling ...
• Abigail noticed that her friend Mia, who has been diagnosed with muscular dystrophy, often struggles ...
• Mason, a young boy, has been diagnosed with Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease. What is the primary treatment ...
• Grace, a young girl, has been experiencing a common symptom of osteogenesis imperfecta. Which of ...
• During a school health class, Evelyn learned about various conditions affecting children. What is the ...
• David is studying about various diseases in his biology class. He learns about a group ...
• William, a young boy with osteogenesis imperfecta, visits the doctor. What is the primary treatment ...
• Aria recently fractured her leg while playing soccer. Explain the reasoning behind using gradual weight-bearing ...
• Michael is a school-aged child diagnosed with cerebral palsy. Discuss the strategic approach to managing ...
• During a soccer game, Harper fell and injured her arm. What is the most common ...
• Daniel, a child with cerebral palsy, is being managed by a team of specialists. Explain ...
• Abigail is a pediatrician who needs to describe the strategic plan for managing developmental dysplasia ...
• Maya is studying for her biology exam and comes across a question: Which of the ...
• Liam, a young boy diagnosed with muscular dystrophy, is being evaluated for a strategic management ...
• Abigail is a child with muscular dystrophy. What should be the primary focus of her ...
• Emma, a 12-year-old girl, has been diagnosed with scoliosis. Which of the following is a ...
• Which of the following is an example of a hinge joint? A. Shoulder ...
• What is the function of cartilage in the joints? A. Produce blood cells ...
• The skeleton can be divided into which two main parts? A. Upper and lower ...
• The process of creating new blood cells in the bones is called? A. Locomotion ...
• Which type of joint allows rotational movement, such as turning the head? A. Ball ...
• Which mineral is essential for bone strength and growth? A. Iron B. Calcium ...
• What is the primary function of the skeletal system? A. Circulating blood B. ...
• Smooth muscles are found in which organs? A. Bones B. Heart C. Digestive ...
• Which type of muscle is found only in the heart? A. Smooth muscle ...
• The human body has approximately how many bones? A. 100 B. 150 ...
• Which part of the musculoskeletal system provides flexibility and movement? A. Bones B. ...
• What is the role of tendons in the musculoskeletal system? A. Connect bones to ...
• The axial skeleton includes which of the following? A. Skull, vertebral column, and rib ...
• Which of these is a characteristic of cardiac muscles? A. They are voluntary ...
• The appendicular skeleton consists of which parts? A. Skull and rib cage B. ...
• Ligaments connect which parts of the body? A. Muscles to bones B. Bones ...
• To maintain a healthy musculoskeletal system, one should consume foods rich in? A. Fats ...
• What type of muscle is under voluntary control? A. Cardiac muscle B. Skeletal ...
• Which type of joint allows for movement in all directions? A. Hinge joint ...
• Which exercise is beneficial for maintaining bone health? A. Swimming B. Running ...
• Multiple myeloma is a tumour of plasma cells that accumulate in the bone marrow, ...
• The Staging of Hodgkin lymphoma are done by clinical representation along with: A. CBC, ...
• The major subdivision of lymphomas is into Hodgkin lymphoma and non‐Hodgkin lymphoma and this is ...
• Genetic defect of red cells destruction in hemolytic anemia are: A. Myeloproliferative disorder, CLL, ...
• A patient’s complete blood count shows MCV is lower than 80fl & MCH is lower ...
• Burkitt’s cells are found in: A. ALL-L2 B. ALL-L3 C. AML-M1 D. AML- ...
• Philadelphia (Ph) chromosome is the definitive diagnosis of: A. CML B. AML ...
• JACK2 mutation is most commonly characteristic feature of which type of disease? A. Polycythemia ...
• Myelodysplasia includes a group of clonal disorders of _______ that lead to bone marrow failure ...
• A patient is found to have elevated kappa and lambda serum‐free light chains, but the ...
• If the hematocrit is 45%, how much of the blood volume is made up of ...
• An elevated MCHC can be seen in which of the following conditions? A. Spherocytosis ...
• What does the RDW value help to differentiate in blood smears? A. The presence ...
• Which RBC index is primarily used to assess the variation in red blood cell size? ...
• What is the normal range for hematocrit in adult males? A. 35-45% B. ...
• The normal range for MCHC (Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration) is: A. 24-30 g/dL ...
• If a patient has a high RDW, what does it suggest? A. Uniformity in ...
• Which RBC index measures the average volume of red blood cells? A. MCHC ...
• Which of the following is true about the Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH)? A. number ...
• What does a low RDW (Reduced Red Cell Distribution Width) suggest? A. Severe anemia ...
• Hemoglobin is primarily responsible for which of the following functions? A. Blood clotting ...
• Which of the following could lead to an elevated MCV? A. Iron deficiency anemia ...
• A patient with a high MCV might have which of the following conditions? A. ...
• A low hematocrit may be seen in which of the following conditions? A. Dehydration ...
• Which of the following is typically a cause of low MCV (microcytosis)? A. Iron ...
• What does the hemoglobin (Hb) concentration measure? A. The amount of oxygen carried by ...
• The MCHC (Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration) provides information about which of the following? A. ...
• A decreased MCHC (mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration) suggests A. hypochromic cells B. hyperchromic ...
• Which of the following conditions is associated with a high RDW? A. Iron deficiency ...
• The MCV is decreased in which type of anemia? A. Macrocystic anemia B. ...
• The hematocrit (Hct) value represents: A. Total volume of RBCs in blood B. ...
• A high MCH value indicates A. Larger-than-normal red blood cells with more hemoglobin ...
• What is the role of the large intestine? A. Absorb nutrients B. Form ...
• What should a patient do if their pain worsens? A. Ignore it B. ...
• What is a common treatment for acid reflux? A. Antacid B. Gallstones ...
• Which part of the digestive system is primarily responsible for nutrient absorption? A. Stomach ...
• Which procedure is used to examine the inner lining of the colon? A. Endoscopy ...
• What should a patient avoid if they have digestive issues? A. Whole grains ...
• What is the medical term for stomach inflammation? A. IBS B. GERD ...
• What is the main function of the stomach? A. Form feces B. Produce ...
• What is a common symptom of gastritis? A. Fatigue B. Burning pain in ...
• Which of the following is a symptom of IBS? A. Gallstones B. Nausea ...
• What is the starting point of the digestive system? A. Stomach B. Mouth ...
• What is a common side effect of laxatives? A. Nausea B. Weight gain ...
• What is the purpose of a biopsy? A. To take a tissue sample for ...
• What is the function of proton pump inhibitors? A. Increase stomach acid B. ...
• Empathy in patient-centered endocrinology is: A. Understanding and sharing the patient's feelings B. ...
• Which of the following is a best practice in ensuring culturally competent care in endocrinology? ...
• Which of the following is a key attitude for a patient-centered endocrinologist? A. Superiority ...
• What is the significance of using patient-reported outcomes in patient-centered endocrinology? A. To replace ...
• Shared decision-making in patient-centered endocrinology involves: A. The doctor making all decisions about the ...
• A patient-centered endocrinologist should: A. Treat all patients the same B. Be culturally ...
• How should a patient-centered endocrinologist address a patient's concern about weight stigma? A. Ignore ...
• Accessibility in endocrinology means: A. Making healthcare difficult to access B. Providing care ...
• Which strategy is most effective for ensuring continuity of care in patient-centric endocrinology? A. ...
• To assess a patient's cultural needs, a patient-centered endocrinologist should: A. Make assumptions ...
• Patient-centered communication involves: A. Using medical jargon to explain things B. Asking closed-ended ...
• How should a physician approach a patient who is hesitant to start insulin therapy? ...
• Continuity of care in endocrinology is: A. Providing fragmented care B. Ensuring consistent ...
• When managing a patient with Type 2 Diabetes, what is an important aspect of patient-centered ...
• To assess a patient's needs and preferences, a patient-centered endocrinologist should: A. Ask closed-ended ...
• Which of the following is a key component of patient-centered communication? A. Speaking in ...
• Cultural competence in endocrinology is: A. Being aware of and respectful of different cultures ...
• What role does patient education play in patient-centric endocrinology? A. It is unnecessary as ...
• To assess a patient's understanding of their condition, a patient-centered endocrinologist should: A. Use ...
• To assess a patient's satisfaction with care, a patient-centered endocrinologist should: A. Avoid asking ...
• Which statement best reflects an attitude consistent with patient-centric endocrinology? A. Patients should simply ...
• Holistic care in endocrinology considers: A. Only the patient's physical health B. The ...
• A patient-centered endocrinologist should: A. Treat patients as numbers B. Focus solely on ...
• To assess a patient's self-management skills, a patient-centered endocrinologist should: A. Assume the patient ...
• Patient empowerment in endocrinology is: A. Keeping patients uninformed B. Helping patients take ...
• In the context of patient-centric endocrinology, how should a physician respond to a patient who ...
• How can healthcare providers assess a patient's readiness to change their lifestyle for better endocrine ...
• In a patient-centric approach, how is treatment adherence best supported? A. By emphasizing the ...
• A patient-centered endocrinologist should: A. Make decisions for patients B. Empower patients ...
• What is a common barrier to patient-centric care in endocrinology? A. Lack of physician ...
• Accountability in endocrinology is: A. Avoiding taking responsibility for mistakes B. Blaming patients ...
• Self-management in endocrinology is: A. Relying solely on healthcare providers B. Patients taking ...
• When communicating with patients, a patient-centered endocrinologist should: A. Use medical jargon B. ...
• Which muscle is the agonist for plantar flexion? A. Tibialis Anterior B. Deltoid ...
• When in plank position, muscles are contracting... A. Concentrically B. Eccentrically C. Isotonically ...
• Which muscle is the agonist for flexing the hip to move the leg upwards? ...
• Which type of muscle is found in the wall of the heart? A. Voluntary ...
• Which muscle is the agonist for adducting the arm at the shoulder? A. Deltoid ...
• Which muscle is the agonist for elbow extension? A. Deltoid B. Pectoralis Major ...
• Which muscle is the antagonist of the biceps? A. Pectoralis Major B. Triceps ...
• From wrist to fingertip, what is the order of bones? A. Carpals, metacarpals, phalanges ...
• Which muscle is responsible for lifting knees when sprinting? A. Tibialis Anterior B. ...
• There are lots of mitochondria (site of respiration) in which muscle fibre type? A. ...
• Which muscle is responsible for knee flexion? A. Gluteus Maximus B. Hamstrings ...
• Which of the following bones is INCORRECTLY matched with its type? A. ribs--irregular ...
• Define type 1 muscle fibres A. fast twitch suited to anaerobic work B. ...
• During the downward phase of a press up, the triceps contract... A. Concentrically ...
• plantar-flexion is defined as A. moving a part of the body in a circular ...
• A long term effect of exercise on the muscular system is A. reduced blood ...
• Which muscle is the agonist for dorsi flexion? A. Tibialis Anterior B. Deltoid ...
• Which muscle is the agonist for elbow flexion? A. Deltoid B. Pectoralis Major ...
• Define antagonistic pair A. muscles that work together to create movement B. muscles ...
• When a muscle in contracting but lengthening, the contraction is said to be A. ...
• Tendons are... A. strong, flexible connective tissue that connects bones to other bones. ...
• Which type of muscle is found in the stomach, intestines, and blood vessels? A. ...
• There are 2 types of isotonic muscle contraction A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Which of the following is not a function of bones? A. Protection B. ...
• During the upward phase of a squat, what muscle works concentrically? A. Hamstrings ...
• Which muscle is the ANTAgonist for knee extension? A. Gluteus Maximus B. Hamstrings ...
• Which part of the body connects muscles to bones? A. Ligaments B. Tendons ...
• What is the function of nails? A. To provide energy B. To help ...
• What is the largest bone in the human body? A. Femur B. Humerus ...
• Which type of muscle is found in the heart? A. Skeletal muscle B. ...
• Which of these is NOT a part of the central nervous system (CNS)? A. ...
• What is the gap between two nerve cells called? A. Synapse B. Axon ...
• What is melanin responsible for? A. Producing sweat B. Giving the skin its ...
• Which bone protects the brain? A. Femur B. Skull C. Rib cage ...
• What does the sebaceous gland produce? A. Blood cells B. Sweat C. Oil ...
• Which part of the nervous system controls involuntary actions like breathing? A. Brain ...
• Which of these is a part of the integumentary system? A. Skin B. ...
• Which of the following is the main function of the musculoskeletal system? A. Protecting ...
• Which layer of the skin contains blood vessels and nerve endings? A. Epidermis ...
• What is the main function of the skin? A. To produce blood cells ...
• What is the role of hair on the skin? A. To regulate body temperature ...
• What is the function of cartilage in joints? A. Store calcium B. Connect ...
• Which type of muscle is responsible for voluntary movements, like running or jumping? A. ...
• What is the main function of the nervous system? A. Pumping blood B. ...
• What is the role of the myelin sheath in a nerve cell? A. It ...
• What is the protective covering around the brain and spinal cord called? A. Skin ...
• What part of the skin helps in wound healing and immune response? A. Epidermis ...
• Which part of the nervous system is responsible for sending messages from the brain to ...
• What part of the nervous system is responsible for reflex actions? A. Brainstem ...
• Which part of the brain is responsible for thinking and decision-making? A. Cerebrum ...
• What type of nerve carries signals from your body to your brain? A. Motor ...
• What is the main function of sweat glands in the skin? A. To produce ...
• What part of the skeleton supports the weight of the body and protects the spinal ...
• What is the outermost layer of the skin called? A. Hypodermis B. Dermis ...
• How many bones are in the adult human body? A. 206 B. 305 ...
• Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system? A. Protection ...
• Rheumatoid factor (RF) is an autoantibody directed against: A. Insulin B. Fc portion ...
• Which complement proteins are commonly reduced during active SLE due to immune complex consumption? ...
• Which of the following is a common symptom of Myasthenia Gravis? A. Muscle rigidity ...
• Which type of antibodies are commonly found in Hashimoto's Thyroiditis? A. Anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) ...
• Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis? A. Type I (IgE-mediated) ...
• The primary treatment for Myasthenia Gravis includes: A. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors B. Insulin injections ...
• Which of the following is a hallmark feature of Hashimoto's Thyroiditis? A. Hyperthyroidism ...
• Which of the following cells are primarily attacked in Multiple Sclerosis? A. T-lymphocytes ...
• Which of the following organs is most commonly affected in SLE? A. Lungs ...
• The most specific laboratory marker for Rheumatoid Arthritis is: A. Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) ...
• Which cells in the pancreas are destroyed in Insulin-Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM)? A. Alpha ...
• Which of the following is the most characteristic skin manifestation of SLE? A. Butterfly ...
• Which of the following autoantibodies is considered most specific for the diagnosis of SLE? ...
• Which of the following best describes molecular mimicry in autoimmune diseases? A. The immune ...
• Which hormone is deficient in Type 1 Diabetes? A. Cortisol B. Insulin ...
• What is a common treatment for tumor lysis syndrome to lower uric acid levels? ...
• Which condition is characterized by metabolic abnormalities due to the release of intracellular contents after ...
• Which of the following is a symptoms of Leukemia? A. Itching B. High ...
• Which of the following is a common side effect of radiation therapy? A. Increased ...
• What is a key preventive measure for children with neutropenia to avoid sepsis? A. ...
• In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) what type of harmful cells does the bone marrow produce ...
• Which of the following symptoms is associated with superior vena cava syndrome? A. Nausea ...
• What is the purpose of the induction phase in chemotherapy treatment for ALL? A. ...
• What is the cause of superior vena cava syndrome? A. Viral infection B. ...
• What should the nurse avoid when assessing the abdomen of a patient with a Wilm's ...
• Which condition is commonly accompanied by swelling of lymph nodes, fever, and night sweats? ...
• Why is radiotherapy harmful to the body sometimes? A. Radiotherapy can harm the body ...
• What is a major risk associated with hematopoietic stem cell transplantation? A. Graft-versus-host disease ...
• Which type of cell is commonly seen in Hodgkin lymphoma? A. Red blood cells ...
• What is the main goal of hematopoietic stem cell transplantation? A. Reduce tumor size ...
• What is the most common form of cancer in children in the United States? ...
• Which of the following is a potential late effect after a hematopoietic stem cell transplant? ...
• What can increased intracranial pressure result from? A. Viral infection B. Primary tumor, ...
• In children, what is a common cause of tumor lysis syndrome? A. Surgery ...
• Which of the following is NOT a chemotherapy side effect? A. Diarrhea B. ...
• What type of transplantation uses the child's own stem cells? A. Allogenic transplantation ...
• Which of the following is a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure? A. Cough ...
• When is hospice care considered for children? A. When life expectancy is more than ...
• A child with neuroblastoma will have a tumor in which area? A. Liver ...
• Which oncological disorder often involves leukocoria or a “cat’s eye reflex”? A. Osteosarcoma ...
• What is the purpose using intense chemotherapy and radiation (TBI) prior to a hematopoietic stem ...
• Prioritizing treatment to those who need it first A. cerebrovascular accident B. first ...
• Which of the following is a sign and symptom of shock? A. constricted pupils ...
• Which of the following is NOT associated with shock? A. loss of blood ...
• Body part is cut off and separated from body A. incision B. amputation ...
• Lack of blood flow to the brain aka stroke A. Cerebrovascular accident B. ...
• Which of the following doesn't cause a CVA (stroke)? A. cerebral artery clot ...
• A sudden, uncontrolled electrical disturbance in the brain, which leads to changes in behavior, movements, ...
• Excessive bleeding is known as what? A. arteriosclerosis B. cerebrovascular accident C. hemorrhage ...
• Which of the following core temperature constitutes a heat stroke? A. 100 degrees ...
• T/F: Hypertension can cause atherosclerosis, which can lead to a heart attack. A. TRUE ...
•  T/F: The acronym to detect a stroke is FACT. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• T/F: Fluids are allowed to be given to the victim who is having a stroke. ...
• Loss of function to one or more parts of the body is known as what? ...
• An acute medical condition associated with a fall in blood pressure is known as what? ...
• Which of the following is a sign of a CVA? A. bradycardia B. ...
• Blood flow to the heart is blocked; aka heart attack A. cerebrovascular accident ...
• A scrape A. incision B. avulsion C. puncture D. abrasion
• Hardening of the arteries A. cerebrovascular accident B. arteriosclerosis C. atherosclerosis D. myocardial ...
• Hole made from a sharp object such as a pin or nail A. amputation ...
• A person has been working outside all day in the summer and suddenly stops sweating, ...
• Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of a heart attack? ...
• A smooth cut made with a sharp object such as a knife or scissors ...
• High blood pressure A. hypertension B. bradycardia C. tachypnea D. hypotension
• Which of the following is the correct treatment for a heart attack? A. get ...
• Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of a seizure? A. ...
• Tissue torn & separated from victim's body A. avulsion B. incision C. puncture ...
• A traumatic brain injury caused by a blow to the head is known as what? ...
• Plaque buildup in the arteries A. arteriosclerosis B. atherosclerosis C. concussion D. cerebrovascular ...
• A cut with jagged, irregular edges A. incision B. laceration C. abrasion ...
• What is sports medicine primarily concerned with? A. Nutrition and diet planning B. ...
• What exam must candidates pass to become an athletic trainer? A. GRE B. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a part of immediate care provided by an AT? ...
• What is one of the primary roles of an exercise physiologist? A. Prescribe medication ...
• Which of the following is a key component of prevention in athletic training? A. ...
• What must an individual do to practice as an athletic trainer in most states? ...
• What is an important aspect of teaching patients by exercise physiologists? A. How to ...
• According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, what is the annual salary for the top ...
• Which organization is responsible for the accreditation of collegiate programs? A. National Education Association ...
• How do exercise physiologists help patients with their health conditions? A. By prescribing antibiotics ...
• Which of the following is a task performed by exercise physiologists to determine a patient's ...
• What is the minimum educational requirement mentioned for the profession? A. High school diploma ...
• Is certification required to practice as an exercise physiologist in most states? A. Yes, ...
• What are some of the services provided by Athletic Trainers (ATs)? A. Financial planning ...
• In clinical evaluation and diagnosis, what does observation and assessment include? A. Designing nutrition ...
• What is the role of an Athletic Trainer (AT) during athletic performance? A. To ...
• What type of approach does sports medicine use? A. Single-discipline B. Interdisciplinary ...
• What is one of the main roles of an exercise physiologist? A. Diagnose cardiovascular ...
• What vital signs do exercise physiologists measure and monitor? A. Blood sugar levels and ...
• Who may refer patients to exercise physiologists? A. Lawyers B. Primary care physicians ...
• What significant development in athletic training occurred post-WWI? A. Athletic trainers began playing a ...
• What is an example of knowing previous medical history in athletic training? A. Monitoring ...
• How do exercise physiologists help improve patients' health? A. By providing nutritional supplements ...
• Which of the following is typically part of a sports medicine team? A. Dermatologist ...
• When was the National Athletic Trainer’s Association (NATA) formed? A. 1950s B. 1881 ...
• What are some treatment modalities used by ATs for managing injuries? A. Manual, Electrical, ...
• In what year did athletic training begin in the United States at Harvard University? ...
• What significant event in athletic training history occurred in 1989? A. The Board of ...
• In which year did the American Medical Association officially recognize athletic training as an Allied ...
• What is the current educational requirement for new athletic trainers? A. High school diploma ...
• Which of the following is a common work setting for exercise physiologists? A. Restaurants ...
• What percentage of athletic trainers already have at least a master's degree? A. 50% ...
• What percentage of Athletic Trainers work in secondary schools? A. 19% B. 18% ...
• What is the purpose of trap-neuter-release programs? A. To increase the feral population ...
• Which of the following vaccines is NOT listed as a core vaccine for dogs? ...
• Which virus is included in the modified-live vaccines for cats? A. Canine parvovirus ...
• What is the purpose of the SAFER (Safety Assessment for Evaluating Rehoming) test? A. ...
• What is one possible outcome for an animal after an intake evaluation at a shelter? ...
• Which of the following is an example of a shelter medicine program? A. Animal ...
• What does Shelter Medicine traditionally refer to? A. Veterinary practices for managing animal health ...
• What type of disease is rabies? A. Genetic disease B. Zoonotic disease ...
• Why is it important to vaccinate immunologically naive animals in shelters? A. To improve ...
• How long does the temperament test take to complete? A. 30 minutes B. ...
• How can rabies be transmitted to humans? A. Through the air B. By ...
• What is the focus of the outreach mobile programs provided by animal shelters? A. ...
• When should a formal behavior evaluation be performed on an animal in a shelter? ...
• What is required by state law regarding rabies? A. Vaccination must be administered ...
• What kind of rehabilitative care do animal shelters offer? A. Care for orphaned, ill, ...
• How do shelter medicine programs assist domestic violence programs? A. By providing animal fashion ...
• Who created the temperament test mentioned in the document? A. Sue Sternberg B. ...
• Intranasal or Parenteral herpesvirus-1 is a type of vaccine for which animal? A. Dogs ...
• Which of the following is a core vaccine for dogs? A. Canine Distemper ...
• What type of technical rescue services do animal shelters provide? A. Rescuing animals from ...
• What are the two main types of needs assessed during an animal shelter intake evaluation? ...
• Canine influenza vaccines protect against which strains? A. H1N1 and H2N2 B. H3N8 ...
• What is another possible outcome for an animal after an intake evaluation at a shelter? ...
• What is a cornerstone of animal shelter health according to the text? A. Regular ...
• Which service is included in disaster emergency response planning for animals? A. Animal fashion ...
• What type of clinics do animal shelters have to assist animals in financial need? ...
• What role does fixation play in histological preparation? A. It embeds tissues in wax ...
• You compare two tissue samples: one fixed in formalin and another frozen immediately after collection. ...
• A histological sample shows poorly preserved cellular structures. Upon reviewing the preparation steps, you find ...
• Why are histological stains, like hematoxylin and eosin (H&E), important in microscopy? A. They ...
• You are preparing a tissue sample and notice improper embedding. What could happen during sectioning? ...
• Design an experiment to compare the efficacy of two different fixatives (formalin and glutaraldehyde) in ...
• What is histology? A. The study of cells B. The study of tissues ...
• A pathologist is studying a tissue biopsy with poorly preserved structures. Which step in the ...
• What is the purpose of tissue fixation in histological preparation? A. To dehydrate the ...
• Why are paraffin and resin commonly used in histology? A. They enhance tissue staining ...
• Which of the following is a commonly used staining technique in histology? A. Western ...
• What cellular component is primarily stained by hematoxylin? A. Cytoplasm B. Nucleus ...
• Given a histological slide showing large vacuoles and a lack of staining in the cytoplasm, ...
• A researcher claims that H&E staining is sufficient for identifying all tissue components. What is ...
• Considering the limitations of light microscopy, when would it be appropriate to use electron microscopy ...
• A new staining technique is proposed that uses a combination of fluorescent dyes for visualizing ...
• What is histology primarily the study of? A. Tissues and their structures B. ...
• If a cell has abundant rough endoplasmic reticulum and a prominent nucleolus, what is it ...
• You observe a tissue section stained with H&E under the microscope. The nuclei are purple, ...
• Design a staining protocol for visualizing connective tissue fibers. Which combination of stains would be ...
• Which cytoskeletal filament provides mechanical strength to cells? A. Actin filaments B. Intermediate ...
• A structure of typical microtubule consist of how many subunits? A. Four B. ...
• Which of the following conditions lead to rapid growth of actin filaments, adding monomers at ...
• Which type of the protein filaments functions in enabling cells to withstand the mechanical stress? ...
• Which of these structures you are most likely to compare with given example: 'Imagine a ...
• What is the process by which microtubules grow and shrink dynamically? A. Depolymerization ...
• What happens when microtubules are stabilized during mitosis? A. Chromosomes segregate faster. B. ...
• How do motor proteins differ in their movement along microtubules? A. Dynein moves toward ...
• How do keratin mutations weaken epithelial cells? A. Vesicle transport is disrupted. B. ...
• What happens when actin filaments fail in a crawling cell? A. Vesicle movement is ...
• Primarily, which cytoskeletal filament is responsible for resisting tension? A. Actin B. Intermediate ...
• What is the primary structural protein of microtubules? A. Actin B. Myosin ...
• Defect occurs if keratin is mutated in epithelial cells? A. Filament network is disrupted ...
• What happens to cell movement happens if actin filaments are depolymerized? A. Crawling halts ...
• Centrosomes organize filaments for? A. Cell division B. Protein synthesis C. DNA replication ...
• What energy molecule is essential for actin filament polymerization? A. GTP B. ATP ...
• Disruption of the microtubule organisation most likely affects which part of the mitosis? A. ...
• A patient is diagnosed with a rare disease that affects the dynamics of the actin ...
• Polymerization of actin is blocked, what happens? A. Microtubules form instead B. Cells ...
• When actin filaments cannot bind myosin, what process is disrupted? A. Vesicle fusion ...
• After a mutation in a protein, a cell is unable to maintain its cytoskeletal integrity ...
• What proteins bind to actin filaments to assist in cell crawling? A. Myosin ...
• What cytoskeletal structure is organized by the centrosome? A. Actin filaments B. Microtubules ...
• Mutant form of keratin makes the skin more prone to blistering, a disease called Epidermolysis ...
• What structural feature in animal cells compensates for the lack of cell walls? A. ...
• What is the primary role of intermediate filaments in cells? A. Myosin movement ...
• In a disease where microtubules are depolymerised, intracellular transport would be ___ A. Stopped ...
• Microtubules can form rhythmically beating hairlike structures. Which of the sentences is true about the ...
• Does enhancing actin nucleation improve immune response? A. Accelerates migration of immune cells ...
• What is the main function of cilia and flagella? A. Chromosome alignment B. ...
• Vitamin ____ helps absorb calcium A. C B. D C. E D. A ...
• _______ helps maintain strong bones A. Vitamin D B. Magnesium C. supplements ...
• Our bones have ____ percent phosphorus A. 15 B. 25 C. 20 ...
• Collagen gives bone some _______ and ____________ A. strength and flexibility B. rigidity ...
• Calcium is brought to our bones by our ___________. A. bloodstream B. water ...
• Our bones are composed of 2 principal agents in the bone matrix: A. Collagen ...
• Calcium is needed for A. skin elasticity and hair growth B. blood circulation ...
• Our bones have _____ percent calcium A. 60 B. 40 C. 20 ...
• Calcium provides _______ ______ so bones can bear weight A. energy storage B. ...
• Cells do not produce calcium for our bones. We get calcium from food and __________. ...
• ______ is needed to form collagen A. Protein and Vitamin C B. Vitamin ...
• Vitamin ____ helps maintain strong bones A. D B. K C. C ...
• Vitamin ____ helps form collagen A. A B. B C. D D. C ...
• The structure and functional unit of bone that holds the bone cells and vessels together ...
• Phosphorus gives bones its ________ A. hardness B. color C. density D. flexibility ...
• a large cell that breaks down bone when needed to rebuild or release needed minerals ...
• a mature bone cell surrounded by bone matrix A. osteocyte B. osteoclast ...
• Bones are also composed of _________ A. keratin B. chitin C. elastin ...
• a bone-forming cell; cells that produce the bone matrix A. Osteo blasts B. ...
• Bone is a ______ tissue. A. nervous B. connective C. epithelial D. muscle ...
• ______ means immature cell A. blast B. organ C. tissue D. cell ...
• osteocytes live in the _______ of bone A. lacunae B. periosteum C. haversian ...
• Our bones have ______ percent collagen A. 30 B. 10 C. 20 ...
• Which cells form the tunnel of Corti? A. inner and outer phalangeal cells ...
• cochlea turns 2 and 1/2 around a central bony pillar called... A. modiolus ...
• Which cells in the macula have cilia? A. Supporting cells B. Neuroepithelial cells ...
• What is the main histological feature of the stria vascularis? A. Dense irregular connective ...
• Which histological feature is unique to the scala media (cochlear duct)? A. Perilymph-filled cavity ...
• Which layer of the tympanic membrane contains collagen fibers? A. External B. Middle ...
• The macula in the utricle and saccule is covered by which histological structure? A. ...
• Semisircular ducts has thickened epithelium which has a structure similar to macula, called... A. ...
• The tympanic membrane's external layer is composed of which epithelium? A. Simple squamous ...
• What type of nerve fibers are found in the spiral ganglion? A. Efferent only ...
• What fluid fills the membranous labyrinth of the inner ear? A. Perilymph B. ...
• What type of epithelium lines the outer third of the EAM? A. Stratified squamous ...
• What gelatinous structure is found in the crista ampullaris? A. Otolithic membrane B. ...
• What type of tissue makes up the auricle? A. Hyaline cartilage B. Elastic ...
• Which cells CAN NOT be found in the organ of corti? A. Neuroepithelial cells ...
• The ossicles in the middle ear are connected by which type of tissue? A. ...
• What type of epithelium lines the mucosal side of the tympanic membrane? A. Simple ...
• What type of epithelium lines the cartilaginous portion of the Eustachian tube? A. Stratified ...
• Which glands are found in the external acoustic meatus (EAM) and contribute to cerumen production? ...
• People working in this field study human behaviour and how the human mind works ...
• Which of the below fields can legally give a medically accepted diagnosis of Autistic Spectrum ...
• True or False: There are many human activities that have benefited from psychological understanding. ...
• People working in this field help individuals find solutions to their everyday problems and can ...
• True or False: A social worker can find ways that a families and community group ...
• Which of the below fields commonly perform intelligence tests? A. Psychology B. Psychiatry ...
• People working in this field have completed a medical degree, a 2 year internship and ...
• Out of psychology or social work, which career requires a higher level of study to ...
• People working in this field work within the social service system A. Psychology ...
• People working in this field have a university degree A. Psychology B. Psychiatry ...
• Which of these fields is also concerned with the reasons why people do certain things? ...
• True or False: To work as a social worker, additional post graduate study and practical ...
• Which area is predominatly concerned with helping people lead healthier, happier and more contented lives? ...
• People working in this field can perform medical procedures such as an ECT or EEG. ...
• Which of the below fields can prescribe medications? A. Psychology B. Psychiatry ...
• People working in this field help people cope with problems related to poverty, legal issues, ...
• People working in this field are fully qualified medical practitioners A. Psychology B. ...
• People working in this field specialise in mental health disorders A. Psychology B. ...
• True or False: A social worker can perform restricted psychological assessments, including intelligence tests, achievements ...
• The activation of low-pressure baroreceptors leads to A. Increased release of aldosterone B. ...
• When high-pressure baroreceptors detect an increase in blood pressure, they trigger which of the following ...
• The oncotic pressure inside the capillaries is primarily influenced by A. The concentration of ...
• A 30-year-old male athlete experiences dizziness after standing up quickly from a seated position. Which ...
• The reabsorption of fluid back into the capillary occurs at the venous end due to ...
• Which of the following factors most significantly influences capillary fluid shift during the intermediate time ...
• A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe hypertension. His blood pressure is ...
• The carotid sinus baroreceptors primarily monitor blood pressure in which part of the circulatory system? ...
• In the capillary, net filtration typically occurs at the arterial end due to A. ...
• Intermediate time course regulation of arterial blood pressure (ABP) includes mechanisms such as A. ...
• A 60-year-old woman with a history of atherosclerosis presents with muscle pain during exercise. Which ...
• The high-pressure baroreceptor reflex primarily functions to A. Increase blood flow to the kidneys ...
• In response to hypotension, baroreceptor-mediated reflexes cause A. Vasodilation and bradycardia B. Vasoconstriction ...
• patient is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome (kidney disease), which results in significant protein loss in ...
• The Starling equation for capillary filtration predicts that the net filtration pressure is determined by ...
• Which of the following conditions could lead to edema (fluid accumulation in tissues)? A. ...
• The Cushing reflex is a physiological response to A. Decreased blood volume B. ...
• In response to a drop in blood pressure, the baroreceptor reflex primarily increases sympathetic activity, ...
• The low-pressure baroreceptor reflex helps to regulate which of the following? A. Arterial blood ...
• Stress relaxation occurs in arteries over the course of several minutes to hours. This process ...
• Which of the following is a characteristic feature of the Bezold-Jarisch reflex? A. Increased ...
• Peripheral chemoreceptors, located primarily in the carotid and aortic bodies, are most sensitive to which ...
• Which of the following best describes the role of high-pressure baroreceptors in the aortic arch? ...
• What happens to the intercostal muscles and diaphragm during inspiration? A. They contract ...
• What is the primary function of the ventricles in the heart? A. Collecting blood ...
• Through which vessel is blood pumped from the left ventricle into the arteries? A. ...
• What is the definition of heart rate? A. The amount of blood pumped out ...
• Which energy producing system is utilized during cardiorespiratory endurance training? A. Aerobic B. ...
• How is cardiac output (Q) calculated? A. Q = Heart rate x Blood pressure ...
• Energy producing system within the muscles that requires oxygen is called A. Aerobic ...
• The amount of oxygen that is consumed by the body during a specific level of ...
• Identify the part of the respiratory system labelled in ...
• What is the definition of minute ventilation? ...
• What does stroke volume measure? A. The number of times your heart beats per ...
• What do the pulmonary arteries do? A. Carry oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to ...
• According to the World Health Organisation (WHO) which of the following blood pressure readings is ...
• What is the function of the pulmonary veins? A. Carry oxygen-poor blood from the ...
• What is the function of the inferior vena cava? A. Transporting oxygen-rich blood from ...
• What occurs during expiration? A. The intercostal muscles and diaphragm contract B. The ...
• Which part of the respiratory system is responsible for gas exchange? A. Alveoli ...
• Which of the following activities would NOT help improve cardiorespiratory endurance? A. Static stretching ...
• What is the primary function of the nasal cavity ...
• What is the function of the diaphragm in the respiratory system? A. To filter ...
• Which energy producing system in the muscles is more powerful for quick, short bursts of ...
• What is the function of the valves in the heart? A. Pumping blood throughout ...
• Where is oxygenated blood returned to after leaving the lungs? A. Right atrium ...
• Stroke Volume is... A. The volume of ...
• What is the role of the superior vena cava? A. Transporting oxygen-rich blood from ...
• What does the respiratory system comprise of? A. Heart, veins, arteries B. Mouth, ...
• What role do the atria play in the heart? A. Pumping blood throughout the ...
• Which of the following is an example of enriched media? A. Nutrient Agar ...
• What is the purpose of selective media? A. Supports a wide range of organisms ...
• Which of the following is a control organism for Blood Agar? A. Staphylococcus aureus ...
• What is the main component of Nutrient Agar? A. Peptone B. Lactose ...
• Which media is selective for gram-negative bacteria? A. Chocolate Agar B. MacConkey Agar ...
• What is the purpose of differential media? A. To differentiate organisms based on biochemical ...
• Which media is used to test the effectiveness of antibiotics? A. Mueller-Hinton Agar ...
• Which of the following is an example of liquid (broth) media? A. Nutrient Broth ...
• Which media type is composed of precisely known amounts of pure chemicals? A. Differential ...
• What is the optimal pH adjustment for bacterial growth? A. Basic pH of 9 ...
• What type of media is used for motility testing? A. Chocolate Agar B. ...
• What is the main purpose of transport media? A. To isolate enteric pathogens ...
• What is the primary purpose of solid media in bacteriology? A. Isolating bacteria as ...
• What is the purpose of enrichment media? A. To support a wide range of ...
• Which of the following is a characteristic of semi-solid media? A. Contains 1.5% to ...
• Traveler's diarrhea A. EIEC B. ETEC C. EHEC D. EPEC
• Which of the following bacteria is/are known as coliform bacilli? A. Escherichia B. ...
• Antibiotics-associated diarrhea is caused by: A. Clostridium perfringens B. Clostridium tetani C. Clostridium ...
• Friedlander's bacillus A. K. oxytoca B. E. tarda C. S. marcescens D. K. ...
• Prodigiosin (red pigment) is produced by members of genus: A. Serratia B. Enterobacter ...
• Which of the following bacteria is responsible for pseudomembranous enterocolitis? A. Clostridium perfringens ...
• The most infectious form of leprosy is: A. Tuberculoid leprosy B. Borderline tuberculoid ...
• Typical drumstick appearance of bacilli is observed in: A. Clostridium perfringens B. Clostridium ...
• LJ medium consists of the following ingredients except: A. Egg yolk B. Agar ...
• The most potent naturally occurring toxin known to humankind is: A. Botulinum toxin ...
• Multidrug resistance tuberculosis (MDR-TB) is due to M. tuberculosis strain as one that is: ...
• Gram reaction of M. tuberculosis A. Gram positive B. Gram negative
• Traveler's diarrhea is caused by A. EPEC B. ETEC C. EIEC D. VTEC ...
• Mucoid colonies of Klebsiella is because of A. LPS B. Capsule C. Toxin ...
• Clostridium botulinum food poisoning is due to: A. Preformed toxin B. Invasion of ...
• Rhodamine auramine stain in Mycobacteria A. Yellow fluorescence B. Green fluorescence C. Light ...
• Vero toxin of E.coli is similar to A. Shiga toxin B. Cholera toxin ...
• Food poisoning is caused by Clostridium perfringens: A. Type A B. Type B ...
• Floppy child syndrome is associated with: A. Clostridium botulinum infection B. Clostridium tetani ...
• Shigella-like infection of E.coli A. ETEC B. EIEC C. EPEC D. EHEC
• What is the role of Interleukin-6? A. To activate innate immune response B. ...
• What is the significance of the paratope in antibodies? A. It is a type ...
• What is the molecular mass range of antigens? A. 100, 000 to 1, 000, ...
• What is the purpose of the stop solution in an ELISA test? A. To ...
• What is the role of streptavidin-HRP in the ELISA test? A. To amplify the ...
• Which of the following is a method for protein detection? A. Mass Spectrometry ...
• What is the standard curve equation used for in ELISA? A. To identify the ...
• What is the most abundant circulating antibody in the human body? A. IgA ...
• What is the absorbance measurement for severe inflammation in IL-6 testing? A. 10 pg/ml ...
• What is the first step in the ELISA procedure? A. Incubation of detection antibody ...
• What does the 'Fc' in antibody structure refer to? A. Fragment crystallizable B. ...
• What does the 'Fab' in antibody structure stand for? A. Fragment antibody-blocking B. ...
• What is the purpose of the ELISA test? A. To measure blood pressure ...
• Which of the following is NOT a type of antigen? A. Exogenous antigen ...
• What type of antigen is generated inside the body due to infections? A. Tumor ...
• What determines whether a neurotransmitter signal is excitatory or inhibitory? A. The type of ...
• Which side of the brain deals with information from the right visual field? A. ...
• What is myelination and how does it affect responses to stimuli? A. It is ...
• What is meant by the antagonistic action of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems on ...
• How do neurotransmitters at the synapse affect nerve impulses? A. They block the transmission ...
• How can summation of weak stimuli trigger an impulse? A. By decreasing the threshold ...
• What are the three key features involved in memory? A. Encoding, storage, and retrieval ...
• What are the main parts of the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous ...
• What is the role of the corpus callosum? A. It processes sensory information ...
• What is the function of endorphins? A. They increase heart rate B. They ...
• What is the primary function of messenger RNA (mRNA) in the cell? A. To ...
• What type of bond connects the sugar and phosphate in nucleic acids? A. Hydrogen ...
• What is the process of copying DNA called? A. Mutation B. Replication ...
• What is the function of DNA helicase during DNA replication? A. To synthesize RNA ...
• What is the role of RNA polymerase during DNA replication? A. To synthesize RNA ...
• Which molecule carries the genetic code from DNA to the ribosome? A. mRNA ...
• Which enzyme is responsible for synthesizing new DNA strands during replication? A. Ligase ...
• What is the function of the ribosome in protein synthesis? A. To transcribe DNA ...
• Which of the following is a component of RNA but not DNA? A. Cytosine ...
• Which of the following is a purine base? A. Adenine B. Uracil ...
• What is the basic unit of genetic information? A. Nucleotide B. Genome ...
• What is the role of DNA ligase in DNA replication? A. To add nucleotides ...
• What is the role of transfer RNA (tRNA) in protein synthesis? A. To transcribe ...
• What is the primary function of tRNA in protein synthesis? A. To carry amino ...
• What enzyme is responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix during replication? A. Primase ...
• What type of hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE? A. Type I B. Type ...
• What initiates the classic pathway of complement activation? A. C3(H2O) and factor B ...
• Which pathway of complement activation bypasses the antibody requirement? A. C3b pathway B. ...
• Which type of hypersensitivity involves immune complexes? A. Type II B. Type IV ...
• What is the primary function of C3b in the complement system? A. To induce ...
• Which of the following is NOT a function of antibodies? A. Activating complement ...
• Which class of antibody is most abundant in blood plasma? A. IgA B. ...
• What is the main function of the membrane attack complex? A. To cause cytolysis ...
• What is the main source of complement proteins? A. Liver B. Bone marrow ...
• What is the primary role of anaphylatoxins? A. To enhance phagocytosis B. To ...
• What are antibodies primarily composed of? A. Nucleic acids B. Globulin proteins ...
• Which type of hypersensitivity is characterized by delayed response? A. Type I B. ...
• Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of Type II hypersensitivity? A. Asthma ...
• What is the role of C5a in the complement system? A. Opsonization B. ...
• Which of the following is a characteristic of Type IV hypersensitivity? A. Mediated by ...
• Which of the following cardiovascular diseases can be caused by atherosclerosis? A. Diabetes ...
• What dietary change can help reduce blood cholesterol levels? A. Increasing saturated fat intake ...
• What can a thrombosis in a coronary artery lead to? A. A stroke ...
• What is the role of high-density lipoproteins (HDL) in the body? A. To transport ...
• What is a potential consequence of a thrombus breaking loose? A. It can cause ...
• Which of the following can help lower blood cholesterol levels? A. Increasing sugar intake ...
• What is an atheroma and how does it affect arteries and blood pressure? A. ...
• How can high cholesterol lead to atheroma formation? A. By increasing the amount of ...
• What is meant by an 'embolus'? A. A type of white blood cell that ...
• Which of the following is a medication that can help lower blood cholesterol levels? ...
• How does the rupturing of an atheroma lead to the formation of a thrombus? ...
• Which arteries are most commonly affected by peripheral vascular disease? A. Arteries supplying the ...
• What is the function of low-density lipoproteins (LDL)? A. To transport oxygen in the ...
• What is a DVT and what might occur as a result of its formation? ...
• What is the purpose of cholesterol in the body? A. It is a type ...
• What is the mechanism of action of beta-lactams? A. Inhibit protein synthesis B. ...
• What is the role of astringents in dentistry? A. To promote hemostasis B. ...
• What are common examples of polyene antifungals? A. Amphotericin B and Nystatin B. ...
• What is the primary action of hydrogen peroxide in bleaching agents? A. To oxidize ...
• What is the purpose of using fluoride in dental care? A. To prevent gum ...
• What is the function of antimicrobial mouth rinses? A. To strengthen enamel B. ...
• What is the primary mechanism by which macrolides exert their antibacterial effect? A. Inhibit ...
• Which of the following is a common side effect of chlorhexidine mouthwash? A. Increased ...
• What are the two main categories of germicides? A. Antiseptics and Disinfectants B. ...
• What is the primary use of antiseptics? A. To disinfect inanimate objects B. ...
• Chronic rejection involves both immune and non-immune mechanisms. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What is the primary purpose of cross-matching in transplantation? A. To measure the size ...
• Acute rejection is primarily mediated by B-cells. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What is transplantation in immunology? A. The transfer of cells or tissues from one ...
• Antigen-presenting cells (APCs) play no role in transplant rejection. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• HLA mismatches are the primary cause of acute rejection. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting transplantation success? A. MHC compatibility ...
• Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) occurs only in solid organ transplants. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• What type of transplant involves tissues or organs from a genetically identical donor? A. ...
• GVHD is more common in bone marrow and stem cell transplants. A. TRUE ...
• Preventing hyperacute rejection requires careful matching of ABO blood groups. A. TRUE B. ...
• Which of the following organs is most affected by MHC mismatch? A. Heart ...
• Hyperacute rejection occurs within hours of transplantation. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Direct allorecognition involves recipient T-cells recognizing donor MHC directly. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• What is panel reactive antibody (PRA) testing used for? A. Evaluating donor organ function ...
• What type of transplant involves unrelated individuals of the same species? A. Allograft ...
• Which test directly measures recipient serum reactivity with donor lymphocytes? A. HLA typing ...
• Which of the following is an example of an autograft? A. Kidney transplant between ...
• Indirect allorecognition involves the processing and presentation of donor antigens by recipient APCs. A. ...
• Which type of transplantation involves crossing species barriers? A. Allograft B. Isograft ...
• Can a disease be both formal and structural and why? A. No, they are ...
• Which of the following is a symptom? A. A high fever of 102° F ...
• Which of these is false about prehistoric people? A. They were fine dissecting human ...
• Which of the following is not a medical contribution that ancient civilizations discovered? A. ...
• If on the body or on an organ there is a lesion that abnormality would ...
• Which would NOT be considered exogenous? A. Being bitten by a dog that has ...
• Which one of the virus types are less prominent/ not as common as the other ...
• Which of the following is not a part of pathogensis? A. Abnormalities B. ...
• What is the definition of homeostasis A. It is the opposite as being healthy ...
• Which of the following does not describe a clinical pathologist? A. A medical professional ...
• Which one of these is not a risk factor in disease? A. Age ...
• What is an anatomical pathologist? A. A person who treats patients who are sick ...
• How are bacteria and fungi similar? A. They are both typically eukaryotic. B. ...
• What are some requirements to be an effective pathogen? A. A way to enter ...
• What is the pathophysiology? A. The study of how disease affect the body ...
• Which of the following is not considered a modern breakthrough in medicine/patho? A. Nano-pathophysiology ...
• If your body accidentally secreted too much serotonin and caused you to have muscle spasms, ...
• What is the difference between a virus and a bacteria? A. A bacteria is ...
• What does po mean on a prescription? A. By mouth B. By injection ...
• If a prescription label says bid, how often should the medication be taken? ...
• What does sublingual mean in terms of medication administration? A. Under the tongue ...
• What does ac mean on a prescription label? A. After meals B. Before ...
• What does qod mean on a prescription label? A. Every day B. Every ...
• What does the medical abbreviation q.i.d. stand for? A. Four times an hour ...
• What does tid mean in medical terms? A. Once a day B. Twice ...
• What does IV stand for in pharmacology? A. Intravenous B. Intramuscular C. Inhalation ...
• What is the medical abbreviation for freely or as desired? A. ad libitum ...
• What does the abbreviation q4h mean on a prescription label? A. Every 4 hours ...
• What does BP mean? A. Blood Pressure B. Body Pressure C. Blood Pulse ...
• What does OTC stand for in pharmacology? A. Over the Counter B. On ...