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• What type of bonds hold the chains in an immunoglobulin molecule together? A. Hydrogen ...
• Which class of immunoglobulin is the first type of antibody to be secreted during an ...
• What is the role of IgE in the immune system? A. Neutralizes toxins ...
• Which class of antibody is secreted near the end of the primary response? A. ...
• Diagram showing binding of antibodies to antigens causing agglutination, precipitation, or neutralization. A. Agglutination ...
• How do Ig receptors differ from TLR innate receptors? A. Ig receptors have variable ...
• What is the function of the Fc region in immunoglobulins? A. To bind to ...
• What is the role of pre-mRNA transcripts in the formation of immunoglobulins? A. They ...
• Which regions of the immunoglobulin molecule are responsible for antigen binding? A. Fc regions ...
• What triggers the development of lymphocyte clones in Jenner's patients? A. Inoculation with cowpox ...
• What is the structural form of IgA? A. Monomer B. Dimer C. Pentamer ...
• What process generates immunoglobulin diversity in vertebrates? A. Antigen binding B. DNA rearrangement ...
• Which immunoglobulin is present only on the surfaces of B cells? A. IgA ...
• What is the process called that involves the joining of three separate DNA segments to ...
• What enzyme is used to join DNA fragments during recombinant DNA technology? A. Helicase ...
• Why is DNA ligase important in genetic engineering? A. It cuts the DNA into ...
• How does DNA sequencing enable the mapping of species’ genomes? A. By identifying the ...
• What is the role of gene probes in DNA analysis? A. To bind to ...
• What is the purpose of using restriction enzymes in gene cloning? A. To remove ...
• What happens during the cooling phase of PCR? A. DNA strands separate B. ...
• DNA fragments move through the gel during electrophoresis because: A. DNA is positively charged ...
• What are sticky ends in the context of restriction enzyme action? A. Overhanging ends ...
• Variable number tandem repeats (VNTRs) differ from STRs because they: A. Have no repeating ...
• What is the role of free nucleotides in PCR? A. They break apart the ...
• Which of the following is the role of free nucleotides in PCR? A. To ...
• How do restriction enzymes work? A. They amplify the DNA B. They bind ...
• Which of the following describes how a gene probe is detected? A. By its ...
• During PCR, the temperature is lowered to allow the primers to bind to the single-stranded ...
• Which of the following best describes recombinant DNA? A. DNA that has been artificially ...
• How are DNA fragments separated during gel electrophoresis? A. By heating the gel ...
• What role does heating play in PCR? A. It separates the two DNA strands ...
• In DNA profiling, homozygous individuals for a particular STR locus have: A. Two identical ...
• Which technique is used to amplify small segments of DNA? A. Gel electrophoresis ...
• What is the purpose of extracting DNA from cells? A. To observe chromosomes ...
• Restriction enzymes cut DNA by: A. Destroying the nucleotide bases B. Breaking the ...
• What is the significance of non-coding introns in DNA profiling? A. They contain repeating ...
• Which of the following best explains the difference between capillary electrophoresis and gel electrophoresis? ...
• Why is Taq polymerase used in PCR? A. It can bind to DNA primers ...
• What are short tandem repeats (STRs) used for in DNA profiling? A. To cut ...
• How are restriction enzymes used in genetic engineering? A. To amplify genes for study ...
• What role does DNA profiling play in paternity testing? A. It determines the base ...
• Which technique is used to display the results of electrophoresis? A. Electropherogram B. ...
• DNA profiling relies on the analysis of: A. DNA coding regions B. The ...
• In the context of DNA analysis, what is an electropherogram used for? A. Amplifying ...
• Which step in PCR involves separating the DNA strands? A. Annealing B. Denaturation ...
• Which of the following is the first step in DNA extraction? A. Heating the ...
• Which ethical issue is associated with DNA profiling? A. DNA degradation B. Use ...
• How can differences in DNA fragments help in forensic investigations? A. By determining the ...
• What is the significance of capillary electrophoresis? A. It amplifies DNA B. It ...
• What are primers in PCR? A. Short strands of RNA that break DNA ...
• What are some common sources of carbohydrates used in fermentation media? A. Malt ...
• What is the role of carbon sources in fermentation media? A. Biosynthesis B. ...
• What are nitrogen sources in fermentation media? A. Inorganic B. Organic C. Both ...
• What is the function of antifoaming agents in fermentation? A. Reduce foam formation ...
• What is the purpose of buffers in fermentation media? A. Adjust pH B. ...
• What are the advantages of batch fermentation? A. Operating with minimum system requirements. ...
• What is a fed-batch culture? A. A culture established initially in batch mode and ...
• What are the components of fermentation media? A. Carbon source B. Nitrogen source ...
• What are growth factors in fermentation media? A. Essential organic compounds B. Non-essential ...
• What is the primary purpose of using inoculum in fermentation? A. To initiate the ...
• What are the objectives when developing fermentation media? A. To satisfy nutritional requirements ...
• What is submerged fermentation? A. Involves submersion of microorganisms B. Involves solid substrates ...
• What are the two main stages of industrial fermentation? A. Upstream processing B. ...
• What type of bond involves the sharing of electrons? A. Ionic bond B. ...
• What percentage of the human body is carbon? A. 8% B. 18% ...
• What are the three main subatomic particles? A. Protons, electrons, atoms B. Protons, ...
• What determines the strength of an ionic bond? A. Number of electrons transferred only ...
• What charge does a proton have? A. Positive B. Negative C. Neutral ...
• In a neutral atom with 18 electrons, which statement must be true? A. It ...
• What is the charge of a neutral atom? A. Positive B. Negative ...
• Which of these is an element? A. Water B. Carbon dioxide C. Oxygen ...
• What characteristic of carbon makes it essential for life? A. Its abundance in the ...
• A molecule with the empirical formula CH2O and a molecular mass of 180 g/mol would ...
• What percentage of the human body is composed of oxygen? A. 45% B. ...
• Which combination of atomic particles would create a negative ion? A. 11 protons, 12 ...
• What distinguishes a molecule from a compound? A. Molecules always contain carbon B. ...
• In a triple covalent bond, how many electrons are shared between the atoms? A. ...
• What is the relationship between molecular mass and empirical formula mass? A. They are ...
• Which physical state of matter has no fixed shape or volume? A. Solid ...
• Which electron configuration represents a noble gas? A. 2.8.7 B. 2.8.8 C. 2.8.6 ...
• What happens to the electron configuration when a neutral sodium atom (Na) becomes a sodium ...
• Which of these is an organic substance? A. Water B. Glucose C. Sodium ...
• What determines the type of bond that will form between atoms? A. Atomic mass ...
• Which statement about covalent bonds is FALSE? A. They involve sharing of electrons ...
• If an atom has 15 protons, 16 neutrons, and 15 electrons, what is its: ...
• Which property is NOT shared by isotopes of the same element? A. Number of ...
• What is the atomic number? A. Number of protons B. Number of neutrons ...
• Where is most of an atom's mass located? A. In the electrons B. ...
• What determines the identity of an element? A. Number of neutrons B. Number ...
• Which combination would result in the strongest ionic bond? A. Na+ and F- ...
• Where are the electrons located in an atom? A. In the nucleus B. ...
• What is a molecule? A. A single atom B. Two or more atoms ...
• Animal sterol is called: A. Mycosterol B. Non-sterol C. Phytosterol D. Zoosterol
• It have specific shape and volume. A. BEC B. Gas C. Liquid ...
• A substance, which provides OH- ions in aqueous solution: A. Acid B. Base ...
• A substance that resist change in pH: A. Acid B. Base C. Buffer ...
• The force of attraction that holds atoms together is called : A. Chemical bond ...
• Part of atom located outside the nucleus: A. Electron B. Proton C. Neutron ...
• Normal PH range of blood is: A. 0-14 B. 1-7 C. 7.35-7.45 ...
• The combination of two glucose units forms: A. Fructose B. Lactose C. Maltose ...
• Bad Cholesterol is: A. Chylomicrons B. Very low density lipoproteins C. Low density ...
• CnH2n+2 is the general formula of: A. Alkanes B. Alkenes C. Alkynes ...
• The compounds that contain polyhydroxyl aldehyde or polyhydroxyl ketone are called: A. Carbohydrates ...
• A substance, which provides H+ ions in aqueous solution: A. Acid B. Base ...
• Oxidation is: A. Gain of electrons B. Gain of hydrogen C. Loss of ...
• Chemical reaction in which two or more substances combine to form product is: A. ...
• Basic unit of matter is: A. Atom B. Compound C. Element D. Mixture ...
• CnH2n-2 is the general formula of : A. Alkanes B. Alkenes C. Alkynes ...
• CnH2n is the general formula of : A. Alkanes B. Alkenes C. Alkynes ...
• It provides protective cushion to our vital organs: A. Carbohydrates B. Hormones ...
• Any thing that occupies space & has mass is called: A. Atom B. ...
• Organic compounds that have aroma are called: A. Alkane B. Alkene C. Alkyne ...
• It transport cholesterol from extra-hepatic tissues back to liver: A. Chylomicron B. HDL ...
• A chemical bond formed between two atoms by complete transfer of electron from one atom ...
• The building block of proteins is: A. Amino acids B. Eicosanoids ...
• Structure of proteins that is made by aggregates of two or more protein chain is ...
• Round shaped proteins are: A. Elastic proteins B. Fibrous proteins C. Globular ...
• Reduction is: A. Gain of electrons B. Gain of oxygen C. Loss of ...
• Contractile proteins include: A. Actin, myosin B. Albumin, transferin C. Immunoglobulin, interferon ...
• The building block of lipid is: A. Amino acid B. Fatty acid ...
• A type of chemical formula that shows actual number of atoms present in a molecule ...
• Acid and base react to form: A. Metals B. Salt C. Salt and ...
• What is the term for microbes that cause diseases? A. Nonpathogens B. Pathogens ...
• Which of the following is a method of active immunization? A. Blood transfusion ...
• Which of the following is a characteristic of prokaryotic cells? A. Binary fission for ...
• Which of the following is NOT a type of microorganism? A. Mammals B. ...
• What is the role of algae in nature? A. Act as parasites B. ...
• What is the primary function of ribosomes in all cell types? A. DNA replication ...
• What is the cell wall of fungi made of? A. Protein B. Cellulose ...
• What is the primary component of bacterial cell walls? A. Peptidoglycan B. Chitin ...
• What is the main difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells? A. Prokaryotic cells have ...
• Which of the following is a unicellular eukaryotic microbe? A. Algae B. Bacteria ...
• Which of the following is a characteristic of viruses? A. They are cellular ...
• What is the primary focus of microbiology? A. Study of large organisms B. ...
• What type of microscope uses a beam of electrons? A. Digital Microscope B. ...
• Which of the following microbes thrive in extreme environments? A. Fungi B. Archaea ...
• What are prions? A. Bacteria B. Infectious proteins C. Viruses D. Fungi ...
• The stretchy bag of muscle that digests swallowed food is the _______. A. liver ...
• Which organ produces insulin and enzymes? A. Liver B. Stomach C. Pancreas ...
• What are the five basic food groups? A. Fruits, proteins, dairy, vegetables, and grains ...
• What is the small organ that stores extra bile from the liver? A. Kidney ...
• The part of the digestive system that takes in water and salts is the _____. ...
• The nutrients that provided stored energy for the body are called ______. A. vitamins ...
• Two organs that help digest food and are not part of the digestive tract are ...
• The small organ that stores extra bile from the liver is the ________. A. ...
• What do different foods have that give the body energy? A. Vitamins B. ...
• What is the process of breaking down foods into forms that the body can use ...
• What is the process of breaking down food into smaller pieces by grinding it called? ...
• What is the clear liquid in the mouth that begins the digestive process? A. ...
• The first part of the digestive system is the _____. A. stomach B. ...
• What is the hard covering that protects the teeth from the pressures of biting and ...
• What is the flap of tissue that covers the opening of the trachea called? ...
• Which taste is associated with cheese and tomatoes? A. Sweet B. Sour ...
• Vaccines can help your body remember germs. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What might happen if your body couldn't produce antibodies? A. It wouldn't be able ...
• A pathogen that depends on living things to reproduce is a A. Bacteria ...
• Name two types immune system A. Passive and Active B. Passive and Aggressive ...
• The diagram shows a pathogen, what is the arrow pointing to on the surface of ...
• What is the Immune system? A.  The body's defense system B. A system ...
• Active immunity is when A. Lymphocyte produce their own antibodies B. Antibodies is ...
• Organisms like ticks and mosquitos that spread diseases are called? A. Fungi B. ...
• Viruses are the smallest disease-causing organisms. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What traps germs in your respiratory system? A. White Blood Cells B. Stomach ...
• Any condition that interferes with the proper functioning of the body or mind is a(n)_______________. ...
• Cells that ingest pathogens are A. plasma cells B. phagocytic cells C. helper ...
• What is the scientific name of the causes of infectious diseases? A. Germ ...
• Which of the following remember antigens that have already attacked the body? A. Antibodies ...
• Breastfeeding is how a baby will acquire a _____________ A. Natural active immunity ...
• A protein that attacks antigens is called: A. Antibody B. Immune response ...
• An immune response that occurs in the human body is shown above. This activity helps ...
• What do B cells produce? A. antigens B. macrophages C. T cells ...
• Organisms that cause diseases are called? A. Pathogens B. Hosts C. Phagocytes ...
• A molecule that the immune system recognizes either as part of the body or as ...
• A disease that can spread from person to person is A. Inherited B. ...
• Which of the following statements is TRUE about someone's immune system that has allergies? ...
• What is the main function of white blood cells? A. Transport oxygen B. ...
• Any foreign molecule that can trigger an immune response is called a(n): A. antibody ...
• An organism that lives on and feeds on another organism is a A. Bacteria ...
• Which system protects you from disease? A. Endocrine B. Immune C. Nervous ...
• A disease that is harmful to the body and is contagious is called.... A. ...
• The purpose of the immune system is to: A. Help germs invade your body ...
• What is the other name for red blood cells? A. Erythrocytes B. Leukocytes ...
• A substance made from a weakened pathogen or part of a pathogen that triggers an ...
• Which cells identify and destroy germs? A. Bacteria B. Neurons C. Red Blood ...
• Diseases can be transmitted by all of the following except A. Contaminated food ...
• What is a vaccine? A. A weakened pathogen injected in the body to produce ...
• First Line of defenses include... A. Skin and Mucus B. White Blood Cells ...
• All diseases are caused by pathogens. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What is the primary diagnostic tool for tuberculosis case finding? A. Blood culture ...
• What is the recommended preventive measure for tuberculosis? A. Isolation of patients B. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a symptom of tuberculosis? A. Night sweating ...
• What is the incubation period for severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)? A. 1-3 days ...
• Which bacterium is responsible for tuberculosis? A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Bacillus anthracis ...
• Which of the following is a common symptom of pneumonia? A. Cough with rusty ...
• What is considered the deadliest respiratory disease? A. Influenza B. Whooping Cough ...
• Which age group is most susceptible to whooping cough? A. Teenagers B. Children ...
• What is the primary treatment for cutaneous anthrax? A. Vaccination B. Intravenous fluids ...
• What is the primary mode of transmission for tuberculosis? A. Direct contact B. ...
• What is a common complication of whooping cough? A. Tuberculosis B. Pneumonia ...
• What is the causative agent of diphtheria? A. Mycobacterium bovis B. Bordetella pertussis ...
• What is the main source of infection for bird flu? A. Airborne particles ...
• What is a key nursing responsibility for patients with respiratory diseases? A. Administering vaccines ...
• What is the incubation period for influenza? A. 7-10 days B. 24-72 hours ...
• What is the term for a sudden, severe onset condition that requires short-term care? ...
• What is an extra sound in the heartbeat that occurs when blood flows through the ...
• What occurs when an organ or part of the body doesn't receive enough blood flow, ...
• What term describes a disease or condition that arises spontaneously or for which the cause ...
• What is the process of increasing the size, density, and shape of an organ or ...
• In an electrocardiogram (ECG), what is the line between two points on the ECG that ...
• What is the electrical signal captured by an electrode during an ECG called? A. ...
• What is the continuous transmission and monitoring of electrical activity of the heart called? ...
• Which procedure uses sound waves to create images of the heart and nearby blood vessels? ...
• What is the death of body tissue, which can occur when cells in the tissue ...
• What is the study of the electrical activity of biological cells and tissues, including the ...
• What is an abnormal heartbeat or an irregular rhythm in the heart called? A. ...
• Which procedure restores a normal heart rhythm when it's beating abnormally or too fast? ...
• What is the term for the return of stimulated muscle to the resting state? ...
• What is the electrical shift in muscle cells that causes them to contract called? ...
• How can the presence of aphasia, apraxia, and agnosia in a patient support the diagnosis ...
• How does Alzheimer's disease differ from other forms of dementia in terms of its classification ...
• How does the classification of Alzheimer's disease into mild, moderate, and severe stages assist in ...
• What strategic approaches can be used to differentiate between Alzheimer's disease and other forms of ...
• Discuss the significance of cognitive deficits in diagnosing Alzheimer's disease and how they relate to ...
• Strategize a plan for managing the progression of Alzheimer's disease in a patient diagnosed with ...
• Analyze the implications of diagnosing Alzheimer's disease at an early stage in terms of treatment ...
• What reasoning can be used to explain why Alzheimer's disease is considered a degenerative disorder? ...
• Evaluate the role of vascular dementia in the context of dementia-related diseases and its relationship ...
• How does the progression of Alzheimer's disease impact the planning of long-term care for patients? ...
• Evaluate the impact of early onset Alzheimer's disease compared to late onset in terms of ...
• Analyze the stages of Alzheimer's disease and determine how the symptoms evolve as the disease ...
• What evidence supports the classification of Alzheimer's disease as a neuropsychiatric disorder? A. It ...
• Evaluate the importance of recognizing emotional and behavioral changes in Alzheimer's patients for effective management ...
• Discuss the potential challenges in diagnosing Alzheimer's disease in its early stages and how they ...
• What is a common characteristic of a Grade 1 muscle strain? A. Complete rupture ...
• Which type of muscle is responsible for voluntary movement? A. Smooth muscle B. ...
• What is the main function of the patella? A. To protect the knee joint ...
• What is the primary function of ligaments? A. To produce synovial fluid B. ...
• What is a common sign of a ligament tear? A. Localized swelling and bruising ...
• What is a common symptom of a stress fracture? A. Complete loss of function ...
• The degree of sprain/strain where there is a partial ...
• Which type of fracture involves the bone breaking through the skin? A. Closed fracture ...
• A dislocation occurs when a ________ is pulled or ...
• Sprains occur when ________ at the joints get stretched ...
• What is the main function of synovial membranes? A. To produce cartilage B. ...
• Which type of cartilage is found on the articulating surfaces of bones? A. Fibrocartilage ...
• What is the main characteristic of tendinosis? A. Complete rupture of the tendon ...
• a sudden or violent twist of a joint with ...
• Which type of injury is characterized by damage to a ligament? A. Muscle strain ...
• What is the primary cause of tendinitis? A. Chronic overuse B. Inflammatory response ...
• What is the typical healing time for a ligament sprain? A. 1-2 weeks ...
• What is a common treatment for a muscle strain? A. Immediate surgery B. ...
• What is a common symptom of a muscle tear? A. Sudden sharp pain ...
• What is the main role of synovial fluid in joints? A. To provide structural ...
• Strains occur to what structure? A. Bones B. Ligaments C. Skin D. Muscle ...
• Chronic injuries can be caused by A. ...
• An ACL sprain is a tear of the Anterior ...
• What is the primary cause of cartilage damage? A. Poor nutrition B. Inadequate ...
• What is the primary role of the Achilles tendon? A. To connect the calf ...
• What is the primary function of cartilage? A. To store energy B. To ...
• Which type of joint allows for the greatest range of motion? A. Hinge joint ...
• What is the role of fibroblasts in ligament healing? A. To absorb shock ...
• What is the primary purpose of the meniscus in the knee joint? A. To ...
• Inflammation of the tendon. A. Bursitis ...
• which of the following conditions will lead to absent a wave in JVP measurement ? ...
• straight left heart border on chest X ray is associated with which Murmur A. ...
• which murmur is associated with a prominent ‘v’ wave in the JVP and a pulsatile ...
• fixed splitting of the second heart sound occurs in which of the following conditions ? ...
• diastole represents an interval between A. P2A2 and S1 B. S2 and S1 ...
• what's the importance of JVP measurement A. Assessing fluid status and cardiac function ...
• If right atrial pressure is high how do we measure JVP? A. let the ...
• which grade signifies how loud diastolic murmurs could get ? A. Grade 2 ...
• which of the following conditions will cause jvp abnormality A. Pulmonary stenosis B. ...
• which of the following is a systolic murmur A. Mitral stenosis B. Tricuspid ...
• what does the c wave represent in JVP waveform A. Aortic valve bulging into ...
• which of the following vessels is best used to check for JVP ? A. ...
• which of the following is a diastolic murmur A. Pulmonary stenosis B. Tricuspid ...
• which of the following murmurs lead to increase in stroke volume ? A. Aortic ...
• Which of the following will cause prominent A wave in JVP ? A. Left ...
• An auscultatory sound best heard using the diaphragm with the patient holding their breath in ...
• which of the following conditions best fit the image ...
• a wave when measuring JVP signifies ? A. atrial contraction or atrial systole ...
• rapidly changing murmurs signify which of the following diseases ? A. Mitral Stenosis ...
• in which of the following condition is finding of a third heart sound physiologic ...
• Which side of the heart handles deoxygenated blood? A. Both sides B. Right ...
• What is the main function of the left ventricle? A. Pump oxygenated blood to ...
• Which heart valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle? A. Pulmonary ...
• What is the main function of the pulmonary circulation? A. Transport blood between the ...
• Which layer lines the interior of the heart and provides a smooth lining? A. ...
• Which term describes the ability of heart muscle cells to generate electrical impulses independently? ...
• What is the primary function of the cardiovascular system? A. Connective tissue B. ...
• Which blood vessels are involved in the actual exchange of water and chemicals between blood ...
• What is the primary function of the cardiovascular system? A. Connective tissue B. ...
• Which circulation involves the transport of blood to all parts of the body except the ...
• What is the main function of arteries? A. Carry blood away from the heart ...
• Which chambers of the heart receive blood from the body and lungs? A. Aortic ...
• Which valve prevents backflow of blood into the right atrium? A. Aortic valve ...
• What is the role of the pericardium? A. Protects and surrounds the heart ...
• What is a key characteristic of veins? A. Myocardium B. Epicardium C. Endocardium ...
• Which type of blood vessel has valves to prevent backflow? A. Arterioles B. ...
• What is the role of the sinoatrial (SA) node? A. Pumps blood into the ...
• Which layer of the heart is responsible for its pumping action? A. Valves ...
• What is the longest and strongest bone in the body? A. Stirrup B. ...
• What does the musculoskeletal system include? A. Bones and muscles only B. Joints ...
• What joins the bones together? A. Muscles B. Tendons C. Joints D. Knobs ...
• These joints are fixed. They do not allow movement. A. immovable joint B. ...
• What organs make up the skeletal system? A. Bones B. Skin C. Muscles ...
• These joints allow movement in all directions. The joints in shoulder and hip have these. ...
• Which is a function of the muscular system? A. Exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide. ...
• These muscles are considered involuntary, they cannot be controlled consciously. They are present in the ...
• How do muscles move? A. Stretch and contract B. Expand and collapse ...
• How can stretching exercises benefit the musculoskeletal system? A. Improve flexibility and reduce the ...
• What organs make up the muscular system? A. Bones B. Intestines C. Muscles ...
• Which injury is more severe, involving torn ligaments? A. Arthritis B. Osteoporosis ...
• Which among the organs DOES NOT belong to the group? A. Skull B. ...
• This bone protects the brain. A. rib cage B. skull
• How many muscles are there in the body? A. about 63 B. about ...
• It is composed mainly of the skeleton and the different types of the muscles such ...
• Which type of muscles move under our control? A. Voluntary Muscles B. Involuntary ...
• What are the organ systems that make up the musculoskeletal system? A. Muscular and ...
• These joints allow side to side and back and forth movement. These joints are present ...
• What does the musculoskeletal system include? A. Bones and muscles only B. Joints ...
• What role does the musculoskeletal system play in protecting vital organs? A. Regulating body ...
• What food should we eat to help build our muscles? A. Calcium rich food ...
• What is the primary function of the musculoskeletal system? A. Regulate body temperature ...
• These muscles allow the heart to contract allowing blood to circulate. A. smooth muscles ...
• What is the primary function of the musculoskeletal system? A. Regulate body temperature ...
• These joints allow movement in one direction. These joints are present in the elbow and ...
• Which type of muscles move on its own? A. Voluntary Muscles B. Involuntary ...
• The muscles that compose the blood vessels and the digestive tract are made up of ...
• Which injury is more severe, involving torn ligaments? A. Arthritis B. Osteoporosis ...
• When is adequate calcium intake important for healthy bone development? A. During adulthood ...
• What is osteonecrosis also known as? A. Bone inflammation B. Bone death ...
• Which cells are responsible for bone resorption? A. Osteoblasts B. Osteoclasts C. Chondrocytes ...
• What part of the body is most commonly affected by osteonecrosis? A. Femur ...
• What is a Jones fracture? A. Fracture of the clavicle B. Fracture of ...
• What is a comminuted fracture? A. A fracture with a single line through the ...
• What is the benefit of early mobilization after a fracture? A. Decreases bone density ...
• What condition can result from poor cartilage regeneration after adolescence? A. Increased bone density ...
• How does immobilization affect bone tissue after one week? A. Increases bone strength ...
• What is the primary function of osteocytes? A. Resorb bone B. Form new ...
• What does heterotopic ossification result in? A. Muscle hypertrophy B. Bone formation in ...
• What marks the beginning of the reparative phase in fracture healing? A. Formation of ...
• How long does the reparative phase typically last? A. 1-2 weeks B. 3-4 ...
• What is the primary difference between open and closed fractures? A. Open fractures do ...
• What is the primary function of cartilage in the body? A. Support muscle growth ...
• What is the main clinical symptom of a tibial stress fracture? A. Knee pain ...
• What is a common type of fracture in adults? A. Greenstick fracture B. ...
• What percentage of body weight is typically considered partial weight-bearing? A. 10% B. ...
• What is the role of electrical muscle stimulation in rehabilitation? A. Increase bone density ...
• What is the primary symptom of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease? A. Shoulder pain B. Hip ...
• Who is typically affected by Osgood-Schlatter Syndrome? A. Elderly adults B. Young athletes ...
• What is the goal of rehabilitation during immobilization? A. Increase muscle atrophy B. ...
• What is the purpose of external fixation in fracture repair? A. To increase bone ...
• What is the main characteristic of a complete fracture? A. Partial break in the ...
• What is the definition of osteopenia? A. Increase in bone density B. Decrease ...
• What sport is most commonly associated with stress fractures? A. Basketball B. Swimming ...
• What is a nonunion fracture? A. A fracture that heals improperly B. A ...
• What is an avulsion fracture? A. A fracture where the bone is shattered ...
• What is BMD an abbreviation for? A. Bone Mineral Density B. Bone Mass ...
• What are factors that can impact bone healing? A. Nutritional deficiencies B. Adequate ...
• What impact does aging have on bone? A. Increases bone density B. Decreases ...
• Hannah, a young athlete, is diagnosed with Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease. Explain the reasoning behind using physical ...
• During a biology class, Aria learned about a condition that occurs due to a neural ...
• Michael, a young athlete, is recovering from a femoral fracture. Which rehabilitation strategy is most ...
• During a biology class, Lily learned about a genetic disorder characterized by brittle bones and ...
• During a school sports day, Scarlett noticed that one of her classmates had difficulty with ...
• Michael, a young boy, is diagnosed with a condition. Which of the following is a ...
• William is a young boy diagnosed with scoliosis. What is the primary goal of his ...
• Hannah, a 10-year-old, has been diagnosed with developmental dysplasia of the hip. Discuss the strategic ...
• Scarlett, a young girl, visits the doctor due to persistent hip pain. What is the ...
• Aria is a pediatrician who is treating an infant with hip dysplasia. Explain the reasoning ...
• Elijah is a young boy who has been diagnosed with a condition that affects his ...
• Arjun, a 10-year-old boy, arrives at the emergency room with a suspected fracture after falling ...
• Abigail noticed that her friend Mia, who has been diagnosed with muscular dystrophy, often struggles ...
• Mason, a young boy, has been diagnosed with Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease. What is the primary treatment ...
• Grace, a young girl, has been experiencing a common symptom of osteogenesis imperfecta. Which of ...
• During a school health class, Evelyn learned about various conditions affecting children. What is the ...
• David is studying about various diseases in his biology class. He learns about a group ...
• William, a young boy with osteogenesis imperfecta, visits the doctor. What is the primary treatment ...
• Aria recently fractured her leg while playing soccer. Explain the reasoning behind using gradual weight-bearing ...
• Michael is a school-aged child diagnosed with cerebral palsy. Discuss the strategic approach to managing ...
• During a soccer game, Harper fell and injured her arm. What is the most common ...
• Daniel, a child with cerebral palsy, is being managed by a team of specialists. Explain ...
• Abigail is a pediatrician who needs to describe the strategic plan for managing developmental dysplasia ...
• Maya is studying for her biology exam and comes across a question: Which of the ...
• Liam, a young boy diagnosed with muscular dystrophy, is being evaluated for a strategic management ...
• Abigail is a child with muscular dystrophy. What should be the primary focus of her ...
• Emma, a 12-year-old girl, has been diagnosed with scoliosis. Which of the following is a ...
• Which of the following is an example of a hinge joint? A. Shoulder ...
• What is the function of cartilage in the joints? A. Produce blood cells ...
• The skeleton can be divided into which two main parts? A. Upper and lower ...
• The process of creating new blood cells in the bones is called? A. Locomotion ...
• Which type of joint allows rotational movement, such as turning the head? A. Ball ...
• Which mineral is essential for bone strength and growth? A. Iron B. Calcium ...
• What is the primary function of the skeletal system? A. Circulating blood B. ...
• Smooth muscles are found in which organs? A. Bones B. Heart C. Digestive ...
• Which type of muscle is found only in the heart? A. Smooth muscle ...
• The human body has approximately how many bones? A. 100 B. 150 ...
• Which part of the musculoskeletal system provides flexibility and movement? A. Bones B. ...
• What is the role of tendons in the musculoskeletal system? A. Connect bones to ...
• The axial skeleton includes which of the following? A. Skull, vertebral column, and rib ...
• Which of these is a characteristic of cardiac muscles? A. They are voluntary ...
• The appendicular skeleton consists of which parts? A. Skull and rib cage B. ...
• Ligaments connect which parts of the body? A. Muscles to bones B. Bones ...
• To maintain a healthy musculoskeletal system, one should consume foods rich in? A. Fats ...
• What type of muscle is under voluntary control? A. Cardiac muscle B. Skeletal ...
• Which type of joint allows for movement in all directions? A. Hinge joint ...
• Which exercise is beneficial for maintaining bone health? A. Swimming B. Running ...
• Multiple myeloma is a tumour of plasma cells that accumulate in the bone marrow, ...
• The Staging of Hodgkin lymphoma are done by clinical representation along with: A. CBC, ...
• The major subdivision of lymphomas is into Hodgkin lymphoma and non‐Hodgkin lymphoma and this is ...
• Genetic defect of red cells destruction in hemolytic anemia are: A. Myeloproliferative disorder, CLL, ...
• A patient’s complete blood count shows MCV is lower than 80fl & MCH is lower ...
• Burkitt’s cells are found in: A. ALL-L2 B. ALL-L3 C. AML-M1 D. AML- ...
• Philadelphia (Ph) chromosome is the definitive diagnosis of: A. CML B. AML ...
• JACK2 mutation is most commonly characteristic feature of which type of disease? A. Polycythemia ...
• Myelodysplasia includes a group of clonal disorders of _______ that lead to bone marrow failure ...
• A patient is found to have elevated kappa and lambda serum‐free light chains, but the ...
• If the hematocrit is 45%, how much of the blood volume is made up of ...
• An elevated MCHC can be seen in which of the following conditions? A. Spherocytosis ...
• What does the RDW value help to differentiate in blood smears? A. The presence ...
• Which RBC index is primarily used to assess the variation in red blood cell size? ...
• What is the normal range for hematocrit in adult males? A. 35-45% B. ...
• The normal range for MCHC (Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration) is: A. 24-30 g/dL ...
• If a patient has a high RDW, what does it suggest? A. Uniformity in ...
• Which RBC index measures the average volume of red blood cells? A. MCHC ...
• Which of the following is true about the Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH)? A. number ...
• What does a low RDW (Reduced Red Cell Distribution Width) suggest? A. Severe anemia ...
• Hemoglobin is primarily responsible for which of the following functions? A. Blood clotting ...
• Which of the following could lead to an elevated MCV? A. Iron deficiency anemia ...
• A patient with a high MCV might have which of the following conditions? A. ...
• A low hematocrit may be seen in which of the following conditions? A. Dehydration ...
• Which of the following is typically a cause of low MCV (microcytosis)? A. Iron ...
• What does the hemoglobin (Hb) concentration measure? A. The amount of oxygen carried by ...
• The MCHC (Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration) provides information about which of the following? A. ...
• A decreased MCHC (mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration) suggests A. hypochromic cells B. hyperchromic ...
• Which of the following conditions is associated with a high RDW? A. Iron deficiency ...
• The MCV is decreased in which type of anemia? A. Macrocystic anemia B. ...
• The hematocrit (Hct) value represents: A. Total volume of RBCs in blood B. ...
• A high MCH value indicates A. Larger-than-normal red blood cells with more hemoglobin ...
• What is the role of the large intestine? A. Absorb nutrients B. Form ...
• What should a patient do if their pain worsens? A. Ignore it B. ...
• What is a common treatment for acid reflux? A. Antacid B. Gallstones ...
• Which part of the digestive system is primarily responsible for nutrient absorption? A. Stomach ...
• Which procedure is used to examine the inner lining of the colon? A. Endoscopy ...
• What should a patient avoid if they have digestive issues? A. Whole grains ...
• What is the medical term for stomach inflammation? A. IBS B. GERD ...
• What is the main function of the stomach? A. Form feces B. Produce ...
• What is a common symptom of gastritis? A. Fatigue B. Burning pain in ...
• Which of the following is a symptom of IBS? A. Gallstones B. Nausea ...
• What is the starting point of the digestive system? A. Stomach B. Mouth ...
• What is a common side effect of laxatives? A. Nausea B. Weight gain ...
• What is the purpose of a biopsy? A. To take a tissue sample for ...
• What is the function of proton pump inhibitors? A. Increase stomach acid B. ...
• Empathy in patient-centered endocrinology is: A. Understanding and sharing the patient's feelings B. ...
• Which of the following is a best practice in ensuring culturally competent care in endocrinology? ...
• Which of the following is a key attitude for a patient-centered endocrinologist? A. Superiority ...
• What is the significance of using patient-reported outcomes in patient-centered endocrinology? A. To replace ...
• Shared decision-making in patient-centered endocrinology involves: A. The doctor making all decisions about the ...
• A patient-centered endocrinologist should: A. Treat all patients the same B. Be culturally ...
• How should a patient-centered endocrinologist address a patient's concern about weight stigma? A. Ignore ...
• Accessibility in endocrinology means: A. Making healthcare difficult to access B. Providing care ...
• Which strategy is most effective for ensuring continuity of care in patient-centric endocrinology? A. ...
• To assess a patient's cultural needs, a patient-centered endocrinologist should: A. Make assumptions ...
• Patient-centered communication involves: A. Using medical jargon to explain things B. Asking closed-ended ...
• How should a physician approach a patient who is hesitant to start insulin therapy? ...
• Continuity of care in endocrinology is: A. Providing fragmented care B. Ensuring consistent ...
• When managing a patient with Type 2 Diabetes, what is an important aspect of patient-centered ...
• To assess a patient's needs and preferences, a patient-centered endocrinologist should: A. Ask closed-ended ...
• Which of the following is a key component of patient-centered communication? A. Speaking in ...
• Cultural competence in endocrinology is: A. Being aware of and respectful of different cultures ...
• What role does patient education play in patient-centric endocrinology? A. It is unnecessary as ...
• To assess a patient's understanding of their condition, a patient-centered endocrinologist should: A. Use ...
• To assess a patient's satisfaction with care, a patient-centered endocrinologist should: A. Avoid asking ...
• Which statement best reflects an attitude consistent with patient-centric endocrinology? A. Patients should simply ...
• Holistic care in endocrinology considers: A. Only the patient's physical health B. The ...
• A patient-centered endocrinologist should: A. Treat patients as numbers B. Focus solely on ...
• To assess a patient's self-management skills, a patient-centered endocrinologist should: A. Assume the patient ...
• Patient empowerment in endocrinology is: A. Keeping patients uninformed B. Helping patients take ...
• In the context of patient-centric endocrinology, how should a physician respond to a patient who ...
• How can healthcare providers assess a patient's readiness to change their lifestyle for better endocrine ...
• In a patient-centric approach, how is treatment adherence best supported? A. By emphasizing the ...
• A patient-centered endocrinologist should: A. Make decisions for patients B. Empower patients ...
• What is a common barrier to patient-centric care in endocrinology? A. Lack of physician ...
• Accountability in endocrinology is: A. Avoiding taking responsibility for mistakes B. Blaming patients ...
• Self-management in endocrinology is: A. Relying solely on healthcare providers B. Patients taking ...
• When communicating with patients, a patient-centered endocrinologist should: A. Use medical jargon B. ...
• Which muscle is the agonist for plantar flexion? A. Tibialis Anterior B. Deltoid ...
• When in plank position, muscles are contracting... A. Concentrically B. Eccentrically C. Isotonically ...
• Which muscle is the agonist for flexing the hip to move the leg upwards? ...
• Which type of muscle is found in the wall of the heart? A. Voluntary ...
• Which muscle is the agonist for adducting the arm at the shoulder? A. Deltoid ...
• Which muscle is the agonist for elbow extension? A. Deltoid B. Pectoralis Major ...
• Which muscle is the antagonist of the biceps? A. Pectoralis Major B. Triceps ...
• From wrist to fingertip, what is the order of bones? A. Carpals, metacarpals, phalanges ...
• Which muscle is responsible for lifting knees when sprinting? A. Tibialis Anterior B. ...
• There are lots of mitochondria (site of respiration) in which muscle fibre type? A. ...
• Which muscle is responsible for knee flexion? A. Gluteus Maximus B. Hamstrings ...
• Which of the following bones is INCORRECTLY matched with its type? A. ribs--irregular ...
• Define type 1 muscle fibres A. fast twitch suited to anaerobic work B. ...
• During the downward phase of a press up, the triceps contract... A. Concentrically ...
• plantar-flexion is defined as A. moving a part of the body in a circular ...
• A long term effect of exercise on the muscular system is A. reduced blood ...
• Which muscle is the agonist for dorsi flexion? A. Tibialis Anterior B. Deltoid ...
• Which muscle is the agonist for elbow flexion? A. Deltoid B. Pectoralis Major ...
• Define antagonistic pair A. muscles that work together to create movement B. muscles ...
• When a muscle in contracting but lengthening, the contraction is said to be A. ...
• Tendons are... A. strong, flexible connective tissue that connects bones to other bones. ...
• Which type of muscle is found in the stomach, intestines, and blood vessels? A. ...
• There are 2 types of isotonic muscle contraction A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Which of the following is not a function of bones? A. Protection B. ...
• During the upward phase of a squat, what muscle works concentrically? A. Hamstrings ...
• Which muscle is the ANTAgonist for knee extension? A. Gluteus Maximus B. Hamstrings ...
• Which part of the body connects muscles to bones? A. Ligaments B. Tendons ...
• What is the function of nails? A. To provide energy B. To help ...
• What is the largest bone in the human body? A. Femur B. Humerus ...
• Which type of muscle is found in the heart? A. Skeletal muscle B. ...
• Which of these is NOT a part of the central nervous system (CNS)? A. ...
• What is the gap between two nerve cells called? A. Synapse B. Axon ...
• What is melanin responsible for? A. Producing sweat B. Giving the skin its ...
• Which bone protects the brain? A. Femur B. Skull C. Rib cage ...
• What does the sebaceous gland produce? A. Blood cells B. Sweat C. Oil ...
• Which part of the nervous system controls involuntary actions like breathing? A. Brain ...
• Which of these is a part of the integumentary system? A. Skin B. ...
• Which of the following is the main function of the musculoskeletal system? A. Protecting ...
• Which layer of the skin contains blood vessels and nerve endings? A. Epidermis ...
• What is the main function of the skin? A. To produce blood cells ...
• What is the role of hair on the skin? A. To regulate body temperature ...
• What is the function of cartilage in joints? A. Store calcium B. Connect ...
• Which type of muscle is responsible for voluntary movements, like running or jumping? A. ...
• What is the main function of the nervous system? A. Pumping blood B. ...
• What is the role of the myelin sheath in a nerve cell? A. It ...
• What is the protective covering around the brain and spinal cord called? A. Skin ...
• What part of the skin helps in wound healing and immune response? A. Epidermis ...
• Which part of the nervous system is responsible for sending messages from the brain to ...
• What part of the nervous system is responsible for reflex actions? A. Brainstem ...
• Which part of the brain is responsible for thinking and decision-making? A. Cerebrum ...
• What type of nerve carries signals from your body to your brain? A. Motor ...
• What is the main function of sweat glands in the skin? A. To produce ...
• What part of the skeleton supports the weight of the body and protects the spinal ...
• What is the outermost layer of the skin called? A. Hypodermis B. Dermis ...
• How many bones are in the adult human body? A. 206 B. 305 ...
• Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system? A. Protection ...
• Rheumatoid factor (RF) is an autoantibody directed against: A. Insulin B. Fc portion ...
• Which complement proteins are commonly reduced during active SLE due to immune complex consumption? ...
• Which of the following is a common symptom of Myasthenia Gravis? A. Muscle rigidity ...
• Which type of antibodies are commonly found in Hashimoto's Thyroiditis? A. Anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) ...
• Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis? A. Type I (IgE-mediated) ...
• The primary treatment for Myasthenia Gravis includes: A. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors B. Insulin injections ...
• Which of the following is a hallmark feature of Hashimoto's Thyroiditis? A. Hyperthyroidism ...
• Which of the following cells are primarily attacked in Multiple Sclerosis? A. T-lymphocytes ...
• Which of the following organs is most commonly affected in SLE? A. Lungs ...
• The most specific laboratory marker for Rheumatoid Arthritis is: A. Anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) ...
• Which cells in the pancreas are destroyed in Insulin-Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM)? A. Alpha ...
• Which of the following is the most characteristic skin manifestation of SLE? A. Butterfly ...
• Which of the following autoantibodies is considered most specific for the diagnosis of SLE? ...
• Which of the following best describes molecular mimicry in autoimmune diseases? A. The immune ...
• Which hormone is deficient in Type 1 Diabetes? A. Cortisol B. Insulin ...
• What is a common treatment for tumor lysis syndrome to lower uric acid levels? ...
• Which condition is characterized by metabolic abnormalities due to the release of intracellular contents after ...
• Which of the following is a symptoms of Leukemia? A. Itching B. High ...
• Which of the following is a common side effect of radiation therapy? A. Increased ...
• What is a key preventive measure for children with neutropenia to avoid sepsis? A. ...
• In Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) what type of harmful cells does the bone marrow produce ...
• Which of the following symptoms is associated with superior vena cava syndrome? A. Nausea ...
• What is the purpose of the induction phase in chemotherapy treatment for ALL? A. ...
• What is the cause of superior vena cava syndrome? A. Viral infection B. ...
• What should the nurse avoid when assessing the abdomen of a patient with a Wilm's ...
• Which condition is commonly accompanied by swelling of lymph nodes, fever, and night sweats? ...
• Why is radiotherapy harmful to the body sometimes? A. Radiotherapy can harm the body ...
• What is a major risk associated with hematopoietic stem cell transplantation? A. Graft-versus-host disease ...
• Which type of cell is commonly seen in Hodgkin lymphoma? A. Red blood cells ...
• What is the main goal of hematopoietic stem cell transplantation? A. Reduce tumor size ...
• What is the most common form of cancer in children in the United States? ...
• Which of the following is a potential late effect after a hematopoietic stem cell transplant? ...
• What can increased intracranial pressure result from? A. Viral infection B. Primary tumor, ...
• In children, what is a common cause of tumor lysis syndrome? A. Surgery ...
• Which of the following is NOT a chemotherapy side effect? A. Diarrhea B. ...
• What type of transplantation uses the child's own stem cells? A. Allogenic transplantation ...
• Which of the following is a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure? A. Cough ...
• When is hospice care considered for children? A. When life expectancy is more than ...
• A child with neuroblastoma will have a tumor in which area? A. Liver ...
• Which oncological disorder often involves leukocoria or a “cat’s eye reflex”? A. Osteosarcoma ...
• What is the purpose using intense chemotherapy and radiation (TBI) prior to a hematopoietic stem ...
• Prioritizing treatment to those who need it first A. cerebrovascular accident B. first ...
• Which of the following is a sign and symptom of shock? A. constricted pupils ...
• Which of the following is NOT associated with shock? A. loss of blood ...
• Body part is cut off and separated from body A. incision B. amputation ...
• Lack of blood flow to the brain aka stroke A. Cerebrovascular accident B. ...
• Which of the following doesn't cause a CVA (stroke)? A. cerebral artery clot ...
• A sudden, uncontrolled electrical disturbance in the brain, which leads to changes in behavior, movements, ...
• Excessive bleeding is known as what? A. arteriosclerosis B. cerebrovascular accident C. hemorrhage ...
• Which of the following core temperature constitutes a heat stroke? A. 100 degrees ...
• T/F: Hypertension can cause atherosclerosis, which can lead to a heart attack. A. TRUE ...
•  T/F: The acronym to detect a stroke is FACT. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• T/F: Fluids are allowed to be given to the victim who is having a stroke. ...
• Loss of function to one or more parts of the body is known as what? ...
• An acute medical condition associated with a fall in blood pressure is known as what? ...
• Which of the following is a sign of a CVA? A. bradycardia B. ...
• Blood flow to the heart is blocked; aka heart attack A. cerebrovascular accident ...
• A scrape A. incision B. avulsion C. puncture D. abrasion
• Hardening of the arteries A. cerebrovascular accident B. arteriosclerosis C. atherosclerosis D. myocardial ...
• Hole made from a sharp object such as a pin or nail A. amputation ...
• A person has been working outside all day in the summer and suddenly stops sweating, ...
• Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of a heart attack? ...
• A smooth cut made with a sharp object such as a knife or scissors ...
• High blood pressure A. hypertension B. bradycardia C. tachypnea D. hypotension
• Which of the following is the correct treatment for a heart attack? A. get ...
• Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of a seizure? A. ...
• Tissue torn & separated from victim's body A. avulsion B. incision C. puncture ...
• A traumatic brain injury caused by a blow to the head is known as what? ...
• Plaque buildup in the arteries A. arteriosclerosis B. atherosclerosis C. concussion D. cerebrovascular ...
• A cut with jagged, irregular edges A. incision B. laceration C. abrasion ...
• What is sports medicine primarily concerned with? A. Nutrition and diet planning B. ...
• What exam must candidates pass to become an athletic trainer? A. GRE B. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a part of immediate care provided by an AT? ...
• What is one of the primary roles of an exercise physiologist? A. Prescribe medication ...
• Which of the following is a key component of prevention in athletic training? A. ...
• What must an individual do to practice as an athletic trainer in most states? ...
• What is an important aspect of teaching patients by exercise physiologists? A. How to ...
• According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, what is the annual salary for the top ...
• Which organization is responsible for the accreditation of collegiate programs? A. National Education Association ...
• How do exercise physiologists help patients with their health conditions? A. By prescribing antibiotics ...
• Which of the following is a task performed by exercise physiologists to determine a patient's ...
• What is the minimum educational requirement mentioned for the profession? A. High school diploma ...
• Is certification required to practice as an exercise physiologist in most states? A. Yes, ...
• What are some of the services provided by Athletic Trainers (ATs)? A. Financial planning ...
• In clinical evaluation and diagnosis, what does observation and assessment include? A. Designing nutrition ...
• What is the role of an Athletic Trainer (AT) during athletic performance? A. To ...
• What type of approach does sports medicine use? A. Single-discipline B. Interdisciplinary ...
• What is one of the main roles of an exercise physiologist? A. Diagnose cardiovascular ...
• What vital signs do exercise physiologists measure and monitor? A. Blood sugar levels and ...
• Who may refer patients to exercise physiologists? A. Lawyers B. Primary care physicians ...
• What significant development in athletic training occurred post-WWI? A. Athletic trainers began playing a ...
• What is an example of knowing previous medical history in athletic training? A. Monitoring ...
• How do exercise physiologists help improve patients' health? A. By providing nutritional supplements ...
• Which of the following is typically part of a sports medicine team? A. Dermatologist ...
• When was the National Athletic Trainer’s Association (NATA) formed? A. 1950s B. 1881 ...
• What are some treatment modalities used by ATs for managing injuries? A. Manual, Electrical, ...
• In what year did athletic training begin in the United States at Harvard University? ...
• What significant event in athletic training history occurred in 1989? A. The Board of ...
• In which year did the American Medical Association officially recognize athletic training as an Allied ...
• What is the current educational requirement for new athletic trainers? A. High school diploma ...
• Which of the following is a common work setting for exercise physiologists? A. Restaurants ...
• What percentage of athletic trainers already have at least a master's degree? A. 50% ...
• What percentage of Athletic Trainers work in secondary schools? A. 19% B. 18% ...
• What is the purpose of trap-neuter-release programs? A. To increase the feral population ...
• Which of the following vaccines is NOT listed as a core vaccine for dogs? ...
• Which virus is included in the modified-live vaccines for cats? A. Canine parvovirus ...
• What is the purpose of the SAFER (Safety Assessment for Evaluating Rehoming) test? A. ...
• What is one possible outcome for an animal after an intake evaluation at a shelter? ...
• Which of the following is an example of a shelter medicine program? A. Animal ...
• What does Shelter Medicine traditionally refer to? A. Veterinary practices for managing animal health ...
• What type of disease is rabies? A. Genetic disease B. Zoonotic disease ...
• Why is it important to vaccinate immunologically naive animals in shelters? A. To improve ...
• How long does the temperament test take to complete? A. 30 minutes B. ...
• How can rabies be transmitted to humans? A. Through the air B. By ...
• What is the focus of the outreach mobile programs provided by animal shelters? A. ...
• When should a formal behavior evaluation be performed on an animal in a shelter? ...
• What is required by state law regarding rabies? A. Vaccination must be administered ...
• What kind of rehabilitative care do animal shelters offer? A. Care for orphaned, ill, ...
• How do shelter medicine programs assist domestic violence programs? A. By providing animal fashion ...
• Who created the temperament test mentioned in the document? A. Sue Sternberg B. ...
• Intranasal or Parenteral herpesvirus-1 is a type of vaccine for which animal? A. Dogs ...
• Which of the following is a core vaccine for dogs? A. Canine Distemper ...
• What type of technical rescue services do animal shelters provide? A. Rescuing animals from ...
• What are the two main types of needs assessed during an animal shelter intake evaluation? ...
• Canine influenza vaccines protect against which strains? A. H1N1 and H2N2 B. H3N8 ...
• What is another possible outcome for an animal after an intake evaluation at a shelter? ...
• What is a cornerstone of animal shelter health according to the text? A. Regular ...
• Which service is included in disaster emergency response planning for animals? A. Animal fashion ...
• What type of clinics do animal shelters have to assist animals in financial need? ...