Sitemap 82

• What is the purpose of strict asepsis with catheter care in dialysis patients? A. ...
• What should be avoided in medications for patients undergoing hemodialysis? A. Medications containing iron ...
• What is the main purpose of hemodialysis? A. To maintain electrolyte balance B. ...
• What is a common skin problem experienced by dialysis patients? A. Acne B. ...
• What is the primary function of a dialyzer in hemodialysis? A. To maintain electrolyte ...
• What is a key nursing management consideration for patients on dialysis? A. Monitor for ...
• What is the advantage of knee disarticulation compared to trans-femoral-level amputation? A. Reduced pressure ...
• Which component of a prosthesis connects the prosthesis to the body? A. Appendage ...
• Which suspension system uses an electric or mechanical vacuum pump to hold the prosthesis to ...
• What is the most common type of amputation in the foot and ankle? A. ...
• Which suspension system involves a cushion interface with an integrated suspension pin? A. Interface ...
• Which type of prosthesis involves the removal of the entire lower extremity through the hip ...
• What is the main advantage of knee disarticulation amputation? A. Improved proprioception B. ...
• What is the purpose of a gel cushion interface in a prosthesis? A. To ...
• What is the surgical procedure that involves the removal of a portion of the pelvic ...
• What is the main advantage of Symes amputation? A. Allows for weight bearing ...
• What are the two main types of limb prosthesis? A. Mechanical and Hydraulics ...
• Which component of a prosthesis includes joints like ankle, knee, wrist, and elbow? A. ...
• What is the most common level of lower limb alteration? A. Trans-tibial (BK) amputation ...
• What is the main purpose of a socket in a prosthesis? A. To connect ...
• What is the purpose of the interface or liner in a prosthesis? A. To ...
• According to Gestalt therapy, what role does the therapist play in the therapeutic process? ...
• What is the significance of body language in Gestalt therapy? A. Body language is ...
• Gestalt therapists responsibilities are A. Quality of their presence and to remain open to ...
• What is a role-playing technique in which all the parts are played by the client? ...
• What does the term Gestalt mean? A. Theory in physics. B. Style of ...
• What is the role of the therapist in Gestalt therapy? A. The role of ...
• Trina is a socially-aloof and timid girl who often has problem asserting herself to others. ...
• In Gestalt therapy, what is the significance of the empty chair technique? A. It ...
• What is the primary goal of Gestalt therapy? A. Resolving unconscious conflicts B. ...
• How does Gestalt therapy address the client's environment and relationships? A. By focusing on ...
• How does Gestalt therapy view the concept of unfinished business in a client's life? ...
• Which concept in Gestalt therapy emphasizes the integration of fragmented aspects of the self? ...
• How does Gestalt therapy address unfinished business? A. By providing medication to suppress unresolved ...
• Which of the following can create a block to awareness A. A state of ...
• Which psychologist is credited with developing Gestalt therapy? A. Sigmund Freud B. Carl ...
• What is the function of the pulmonary capillary network in the lungs? A. Gas ...
• What is the role of the parasympathetic nervous system in the lungs? A. Regulate ...
• What is the structure that separates lobules in the lungs? A. Alveoli B. ...
• What is the shape of the lungs? A. Oval B. Square C. Pyramid-shaped ...
• Which artery carries deoxygenated, arterial blood to the alveoli in the lungs? A. Pulmonary ...
• What is the function of the pleurae in the lungs? A. Produce hormones ...
• What separates the lobes in each lung? A. Nerves B. Arteries C. Veins ...
• What is the function of the visceral pleura in the lungs? A. Creates cavities ...
• Which system controls bronchoconstriction and bronchodilation in the lungs? A. Circulatory system B. ...
• Where does the pulmonary vein drain oxygenated blood from in the lungs? A. Pulmonary ...
• Which nerve controls coughing reflexes in the lungs? A. Auditory nerve B. Optic ...
• What is the major function of the lungs? A. Excretion B. Circulation ...
• Which nerve fibers arise from the vagus nerve and thoracic ganglia for the lungs? ...
• Where is the cardiac notch located in the lungs? A. Right lung B. ...
• What is the function of the pleural fluid in the lungs? A. Create friction ...
• What is the role of Myelin sheath in nerve fibers? A. Transmit information away ...
• What is a synapse? A. A fatty layer of insulation on nerve fibers ...
• What is the function of a nerve bundle? A. Conduct impulses to the muscles, ...
• What is the structure that contains the nucleus and is the metabolic center of the ...
• What is the function of Nodes of Ranvier in myelinated nerve fibers? A. Provide ...
• What is the function of Motor end plates? A. Conduct impulses to the central ...
• What is the structural classification of neurons based on the number of processes? A. ...
• What are body organs made of? A. Connective tissue, Epithelial tissue, Muscular tissue, Nervous ...
• What is the role of Schwann cells in nerve fibers? A. Conduct impulses toward ...
• What is the classification of synapses based on action? A. Unmyelinated nerve fiber, Myelinated ...
• What is the main function of neurons? A. Conduct impulses toward the cell body ...
• Which type of neurons have many extensions from the cell body? A. Bipolar neurons ...
• What is the function of Neuron processes? A. Conduct impulses toward the cell body ...
• What is the function of dendrites in a neuron? A. Produce myelin sheath ...
• What is the function of synaptic terminals? A. Conduct impulses toward the cell body ...
• Which type of muscle is striated and voluntary? A. Skeletal muscle B. Cardiac ...
• What covers the entire muscle, bundles of muscle fibers, and individual muscle fibers? A. ...
• What is the main function of the TRIAD tubular system in muscle contraction? A. ...
• What is the purpose of the sarcolemma in muscle cells? A. Cell division ...
• What is the function of the terminal cisternae in muscle fibers? A. Energy production ...
• How many skeletal muscles does the human body contain approximately? A. 100 B. ...
• What is the function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle fibers? A. Calcium storage ...
• What is the role of the Z-line in muscle fibers? A. Cell division ...
• What is the function of skeletal muscle? A. Heat production B. Digestion support ...
• Which filaments are involved in muscle contraction? A. Actin and Myosin B. Troponin ...
• What is the shape of skeletal muscle fibers? A. Cuboidal B. Irregular ...
• What is stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum? A. Lipids B. Carbohydrates C. Calcium ...
• Where are the nuclei located in skeletal muscle fibers? A. Randomly B. Peripherally ...
• What is the function of the T-tubules in muscle fibers? A. Waste removal ...
• What are body organs made of? A. Muscular tissue B. Epithelial tissue ...
• For the past 3 years, a 24-year-old college student has suffered from chronic headaches, fatigue, ...
• Regarding the etiology of anxiety disorders, which brain structures are involved? A. Amygdala ...
• Which of the following is the treatment of choice for the patient with specific phobia? ...
• Which one of the following is NOT an example of compulsive behavior? A. Repetitive ...
• A 24-year-old woman from a rural and low socioeconomic back-ground with a fifth-grade education develops ...
• A 28-year-old taxi driver is chronically consumed by fears of having accidentally run over a ...
• For several months, a 32-year-old housewife has been unable to leave her house unaccompanied. When ...
• For the diagnosis of PTSD, the symptoms should be present for? A. More than ...
• Two years after she was saved from her burning house, a 32-year-old woman continues to ...
• Obsessions are? A. recurrent and persistent thoughts B. intrusive and unwanted C. own ...
• For the diagnosis of Generalized Anxiety Disorder, the symptoms should be present for? A. ...
• In PTSD, intrusion symptoms can present as? A. Nightmares B. Intrusive thoughts ...
• In OCD, compulsive behaviors reduce anxiety or distress? A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• A middle-aged man is chronically preoccupied with his health. For many years he feared that ...
• Treatment option(s) for patients with Generalized Anxiety Disorder? A. CBT B. SSRI ...
• A 23-year-old woman arrives at the emergency room complaining that, out of the blue, she ...
• Which therapy is proven to be the most effective in OCD? A. Family therapy ...
• A 34-year-old secretary climbs 12 flights of stairs every day to reach her office because ...
• Which one of the following is NOT a physical symptom of anxiety? A. Tremors ...
• Which one of the following is NOT a symptom of PTSD? A. Hypervigilance ...
• What is the function of cartilage in the body? A. Generate energy B. ...
• What is the structure of Yellow Elastic Cartilage? A. Only elastic fibers B. ...
• Which type of cartilage provides a gliding area for joints? A. White fibro cartilage ...
• What happens if the articular cartilage erodes? A. Increased joint movement B. Decreased ...
• What is the main component of Hyaline Cartilage? A. Chondrogenic cells B. Acid ...
• What is the function of Hyaline Cartilage in joints? A. Support soft tissues ...
• What is the function of White Fibro Cartilage? A. Support soft tissues B. ...
• Where is Hyaline Cartilage found in the body? A. Intervertebral discs B. Fetal ...
• Which type of cartilage is yellow in fresh state? A. Hyaline cartilage B. ...
• Which type of tissue is cartilage? A. Connective tissue B. Muscular tissue ...
• What is the main function of White Fibro Cartilage? A. Resist great tensile stretch ...
• What is the function of Yellow Elastic Cartilage? A. Resist great tensile stretch ...
• What are body organs made of? A. Nervous tissue B. Connective tissue ...
• Where is White Fibro Cartilage found in the body? A. Mandibular joint B. ...
• What is the main component of Hyaline Cartilage matrix? A. Proteoglycans B. Glycoproteins ...
• Which bone cells are derived from monocytes and serve to break down bone tissue? ...
• Which type of bone tissue looks solid but is very precisely structured? A. Spongy ...
• Which type of joint generally allows for greater movement? A. Fibrous joint B. ...
• Which type of bone is found in the wrists and ankles? A. Irregular bones ...
• What is the purpose of the skeletal system? A. Support/maintain posture B. Digestion ...
• What is the function of the axial skeleton? A. Support the arms and legs ...
• Which part of the human skeleton protects the brain and supports facial structure? A. ...
• What is the function of the periosteum? A. Allow for mobility B. Cover ...
• What is the site of blood cell production in the human skeleton? A. Spongy ...
• What is the function of osteoblasts? A. Store energy B. Form bone ...
• Which part of the human skeleton surrounds and protects the spinal cord? A. Skull ...
• What is the function of ligaments in joints? A. Store minerals B. Produce ...
• What is the function of the pectoral girdle in the appendicular skeleton? A. Support ...
• What is the study of bones called? A. Histology B. Cardiology C. Osteology ...
• Which type of bone tissue contains red bone marrow that produces blood cells? A. ...
• The stroma of the spleen is formed by: A. Adipose tissue B. Epithelial ...
• The hematothymic barrier is located in: A. Cortex B. Medulla C. Both cortex ...
• The cellular composition of the mantle zone of the spleen is: A. Small B-lymphocytes, ...
• The hematopoietic organ containing red and white pulp is: A. Red bone marrow ...
• The parenchyma of the red bone marrow consists of: A. Blood cells at various ...
• The hematopoietic organ whose lymphatic follicles contain a central artery is: A. Thymus ...
• In the follicles of the lymph node, T-lymphocytes inhabit: A. Germinal center B. ...
• The thymus-independent zone (B-zone) of the spleen is: A. Periarterial zone B. Paracortical ...
• The cellular composition in the reactive centers of lymph node follicles is: A. Erythroblasts, ...
• The destruction of erythrocytes occurs in: A. Thymus B. Lymph nodes C. Spleen ...
• Hassall's corpuscles are: A. Layered epithelial cells B. Reticular cells C. Interdigitating macrophages ...
• The stroma of the red bone marrow is: A. Loose connective tissue B. ...
• The white pulp of the spleen is formed by: A. Lymphatic follicles B. ...
• T- and B-lymphocytes enter the tissue of the lymph node from: A. Arterioles ...
• Antigen-independent differentiation of T-lymphocytes occurs in: A. Thymus B. Lymph nodes C. Spleen ...
• The cellular composition of the paracortical zone of the lymph node is: A. B-lymphocytes, ...
• The cells forming the medullary cords of the lymph node are: A. Granulocytes, macrophages, ...
• In the peripheral hematopoietic organs of an adult, the following processes occur: A. Transformation ...
• The difference between yellow bone marrow and red bone marrow is: A. Absence of ...
• Memory B-cells are formed in: A. Paracortical zones B. Periarterial zones C. Medullary ...
• Processes occurring with lymph as it passes through the lymph node are: A. Decrease ...
• The stroma of the spleen consists of: A. Loose connective tissue B. Dense ...
• Cells of the thymus secreting thymosin, thymalin, thymopoietin are: A. Lymphoblasts B. Supporting ...
• The thymus-dependent zone (T-zone) of the lymph node is: A. Lymphatic follicles B. ...
• Morphological signs of age-related involution of the thymus are: A. Proliferation of epithelial tissue ...
• Effector cells in cellular immunity are: A. B-lymphocytes B. T-lymphocytes C. Cytotoxic T-suppressors ...
• The thymus-dependent zone (T-zone) of the spleen is: A. Periarterial zone B. Germinal ...
• Interdigitating cells in the lymph node are located in: A. Paracortical zone B. ...
• The red pulp of the spleen is formed by: A. Lymphatic follicles B. ...
• The stroma of the thymus is: A. Loose connective tissue B. Dense connective ...
• What blood group is the universal recipient? A. AB Positive B. AB Negative ...
• Which organ secretes erythropoietin mainly ? A. Liver B. Pancreas C. Spleen ...
• What is the average lifespan of an Erythrocyte? A. 28 Days B. 120 ...
• What antigens are present on the RBC cell surface of group B Blood? A. ...
• Excitable tissues are A. Muscular B. Nervous C. Glandular D. All answers are ...
• What is the main function of the Mitochondria? A. Site of glucose synthesis ...
• What is the resting potential of a typical neuron? A. -70 millivolts (mV) ...
• What is the term for the rapid conduction of electrical signals along myelinated axons? ...
• Which cell is considered an immature red blood cell? A. Megakaryocytes B. Erythrocytes ...
• Which of the following leukocytes is not classed as a granulocyte? A. Neutrophils ...
• Where does Erythropoiesis mainly occurs in adults? A. Bone Marrow of All Bones ...
• Which blood group is universal donor? A. AB Negative B. A Positive ...
• Which antigen causes Haemolytic disease of the newborn? A. RhD Antigen B. A ...
• What antibodies are present in the serum of group O Blood A. Only anti-A ...
• Which structure houses the cell’s DNA? A. Mitochondria B. Nucleus C. Ribosome ...
• The mechanism of movement of ions through membrane against the concentration gradient with energy consumption ...
• What makes up the largest proportion of cell membrane? A. Lipid B. Protein ...
• What blood type can people with blood group O Negative Receive? A. O Positive ...
• What is the most abundant leukocyte within peripheral blood? A. Monocytes B. Neutrophils ...
• What blood type can people with blood group O Negative Receive? A. O Positive ...
• What is the membrane bilayer made of? A. Glycoproteins B. Phospholipids C. Glycolipids ...
• Which of the following is a function of the cell membrane? A. Forming a ...
• The presence of which antigens determines if blood type will be positive or negative ? ...
• The neuron is being depolarised with the following currents. A. 15mA B. 25mA C. 40mA. ...
• Describe the immune response to infectious agents. A. Recognition of infectious agents is not ...
• How are neoplasms classified? A. According to alphabetical order. B. By geographical location. ...
• Give examples of common genetic disorders. A. Down syndrome, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, ...
• Explain the process of tissue repair. A. During tissue repair, the body relies on ...
• What are the different modes of genetic inheritance? A. Autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X-linked ...
• What is the significance of irreversible cell injury? A. Irreversible cell injury leads to ...
• How do genetic disorders manifest in individuals? A. Abnormalities or mutations in DNA affecting ...
• What are the risk factors for developing neoplasms? A. Gender, diet, exercise habits ...
• What are the basics of neoplasia? A. Suppression of angiogenesis and metastasis B. ...
• How can infectious diseases be prevented? A. By sharing drinks with strangers B. ...
• What are the different types of cell injury mechanisms? A. Biological agents B. ...
• Provide an overview of genetic disorders. A. Genetic disorders have no impact on health ...
• How do infectious diseases impact the body? A. Infectious diseases impact the body by ...
• Describe the process of inflammation and repair. A. Inflammation is caused by lack of ...
• What are the mechanisms of cell injury? A. Direct physical damage, radiation, toxins, lack ...
• How does the body respond to tissue damage? A. The body responds to tissue ...
• Discuss the impact of infectious diseases on public health. A. Public health is not ...
• What are the characteristics of neoplasia? A. Uncontrolled proliferation, lack of differentiation, local invasion, ...
• Name the types of reversible cell injury. A. Nuclear pyknosis B. Cytoplasmic vacuolization ...
• Explain the role of inflammation in the body. A. Inflammation is caused by excessive ...
• When the beta chain is produced, is forms a complex with ___ A. CD4 ...
• T lymphocytes derive from the common myeloid progenitor A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Where do T cells go through selection and education processes? A. bone marrow ...
• The first gene rearrangement in the double negative stage is of the ___ chain ...
• If the TCR binds with HIGH affinity to self antigen then the T cell ____ ...
• Notch 1- means the progenitor becomes a A. T cell B. B cell ...
• Immature T cells A. thymocytes B. progenitor cells
• Notch +1 means the progenitor becomes a A. T cell B. B cell ...
• Where do T cells develop? A. bone marrow B. thymus
• Progenitor cells are not committed to the T lineage when they enter the thymus. ...
• Which of the following about the thymus is true? A. the thymus begins to ...
• When does gene rearrangment occur to produce a functional TCR? A. double negative stages ...
• T cells are involved in the ___ immune response. A. innate B. adaptive ...
• Growth factor that is secreted by thymic stromal cells A. IL 7 B. ...
• Which of the following statements about the thymus is true? A. the thymus is ...
• Thymocytes that lack the TCR but beginning to rearrange their TCR genes A. double ...
• Involution of the thymus A. the thymus steadily decreases with age B. the ...
• Early T cell precursor development occurs in the ___ A. bone marrow B. ...
• Thymic cells that produce growth factors and ligands that contribute to T cell development. ...
• If the TCR binds strongly to MHC class I or II molecules then ___ ...
• Which receptor signaling commits the progenitor cell to the T lineage? A. Notch 1 ...
• The thymus and the proportion of T cells it produces increases with age. A. ...
• Which rearrangement is first during the double negative stage? A. beta chain B. ...
• Once the complete T cell receptor is formed then the cell expresses A. CD4 ...
• Which of the two lineages make the majority of T cells? A. aB ...
• What color does Staphylococcus aureus turn when it ferments mannitol? A. Red B. ...
• What is the purpose of the Voges-Proskauer test in microbiology? A. To detect sugar ...
• Which test is used to determine the ability of bacteria to consume citrate as a ...
• What is the significance of the nitrate reduction test in microbiology? A. To detect ...
• Which test is used to detect the presence of urease enzyme in bacteria? A. ...
• What does the catalase production test detect in bacteria? A. Production of water ...
• Which bacteria produce coagulase enzyme? A. Streptococcus B. Salmonella C. Staphylococcus aureus ...
• What is the purpose of the Simmons citrate test in bacterial identification? A. To ...
• Which test is used to detect the presence of cytochrome c oxidase in bacteria? ...
• What is the significance of the methyl red test in bacterial identification? A. To ...
• What is the purpose of Triple Sugar Iron (TSI) and Kligler's Iron Agar (KIA) media? ...
• Which type of pigment remains bound to the body of the microorganism? A. Exopigment ...
• What does the urease test detect in bacteria? A. Production of water B. ...
• Which type of haemolysis shows a complete clear circular zone around the bacterial colonies? ...
• Which test is used to detect the production of cytochrome oxidase? A. Catalase test ...
• How is motility of bacteria detected? A. Hanging drop technique B. Shaking the ...
• What is the color of Bacillus cells with green endospores in the spore staining technique? ...
• What is the color of Lactobacilli cells in the Gram staining technique? A. Violet ...
• What is the result of the Glucose fermentation test (Methyl red test) for Lactobacillus spp.? ...
• Which test is used to determine the ability of B. subtilis to produce nitrate reductase ...
• Which bacteria shows slow liquefaction in the Gelatinase test? A. B. anthracis B. ...
• What is the aim of the Nitrate Reduction Test? A. To prevent the colonization ...
• What is the color of Bacillus cells with green endospores in the spore staining technique? ...
• Which type of media is De Man, Rogosa and Sharpe (MRS) agar for Lactobacillus? ...
• Which test is used to determine the ability of microorganisms to produce casinase enzyme? ...
• Which method is used for multiplying microbial organisms under controlled laboratory conditions? A. Microscopical ...
• What is the aim of the Nitrate Reduction Test? A. To determine the ability ...
• What is the color of the media in the Amylase test when Bacillus spp. shows ...
• Which bacteria shows large, white spreading colonies with irregular edges on nutrient agar? A. ...
• Which test is used to determine the ability of microorganisms to produce casinase enzyme? ...
• Which type of culture media is used for the production of alpha amylase? A. ...
• Pathogenesis is the process by which physicians diagnose their patients. A. TRUE B. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a usual topic involved in medical microbiology research? ...
• Microbes only cause disease in humans. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Another name for medical microbiology is __________. A. Diagnostic microbiology B. Antigen microbiology ...
• Which setting is NOT typically involved in the diagnostics area of medical microbiology? A. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a pathogen characteristic? A. Mode of transmission ...
• Helping physicians make treatment decisions is involved in medical microbiology teaching careers. A. TRUE ...
• A principal investigator is a career in medical microbiology research. A. TRUE B. ...
• Medical microbiology teaching is generally done at high schools and middle schools. A. TRUE ...
• Antimicrobial resistance only occurs with viruses. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Which statement does NOT describe a way in which medical microbiologists contribute to society? ...
• Which of the following describes a symbiotic relationship between humans and microbes? A. Human ...
• Which of the following is a common college major for a medical microbiologist? A. ...
• Which scientist had a rivalry with Isaac Newton? A. Zacharies Janssen B. Anton ...
• Which scientist contributed to the cell theory belief that all living things are made of ...
• Who is known as the father of microbiology? A. Robert Hooke B. Anton ...
• Which of the following is a key component of all cells? A. Cell wall ...
• Who is considered one of the founding figures of cell theory? A. Isaac Newton ...
• Which of the following is a major principle upon which cell theory is based? ...
• Which component of cell theory did Rudolf Virchow contribute to? A. Cells are the ...
• Whose research did Rudolf Virchow use to prove that cells came from other cells? ...
• Who concluded that all plants are made up of cells? A. Robert Hooke ...
• The cell theory is a result of the work of one very important scientist name ...
• What did Theodor Schwann contribute to cell theory? A. He discovered the cell nucleus. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a part of the Cell Theory? A. All ...
• What did Robert Hooke observe under a microscope when he used the word cell for ...
• Who proved that cells came from other cells? A. Robert Remak B. Rudolf ...
• Cell theory states 1. ??? 2. Cells are the basic unit of structure and ...
• Who is associated with the invention of the first compound microscope and telescope? A. ...
• Which of the following is NOT part of cell theory? A. All organisms are ...
• What is the generic name for Kapvay or Catapres? A. Clopidogrel B. Simvastatin ...
• What is the generic name for Plavix? A. Clonidine B. Niacin C. Clopidogrel ...
• What is the generic name for Lipitor? A. Pravastatin B. Clopidogrel C. Atorvastatin ...
• What is the generic name for Lovaza? A. Gemfibrozil B. Atorvastatin C. Fish ...
• What is the generic name for Pacerone? A. Lovastatin B. Hydralazine C. Isosorbide ...
• What is the generic name for Zetia? A. Isosorbide Mononitrate B. Amiodarone ...
• What is the generic name for Crestor? A. Lovastatin B. Ezetimibe C. Fish ...
• What is the generic name for Apresoline? A. Clopidogrel B. Fenofibrate C. Hydralazine ...
• What is the generic name for Lopid? A. Gemfibrozil B. Nitroglycerin C. Hydralazine ...
• What is the generic name for Tenex? A. Guanfacine/ADHD B. Niacin C. Guanfacine ...
• What is the generic name for Eliquis? A. Guanfacine/ADHD B. Nitroglycerin C. Amiodarone ...
• What is the generic name for Nitrostat? A. Nitroglycerin B. Gemfibrozil C. Guanfacine ...
• What is the generic name for Niospan or Niacor? A. Warfarin B. Prazosin ...
• What is the generic name for Imdur? A. Apixaban B. Warfarin C. Fenofibrate ...
• What is the generic name for Zocor? A. Simvastatin B. Clonidine C. Hydralazine ...
• What is the generic name for Tricor? A. Fenofibrate B. Rosuvastatin C. Rivaroxaban ...
• What is the generic name for Xarelto? A. Ezetimbe B. Rivaroxaban C. Simvastatin ...
• What is the generic name for Intuniv? A. Atorvastain B. Warfarin C. Guanfacine ...
• What is the generic name for Minipress? A. Prazosin B. Gemfibrozil C. Rosuvastatin ...
• What is the generic name for Pravachol? A. Guanfacine/ADHD B. Pravastatin C. Amiodarone ...
• What is the generic name for Coumadin? A. Fenofibrate B. Hydralazine C. Warfarin ...
• What is the generic name of Mevacor? A. Lovastatin B. Niacin C. Atorvastatin ...
• What is the function of myoglobin in muscle cells? A. To store oxygen ...
• Which muscle type is involuntary and found in the walls of internal organs? A. ...
• Which process describes the shortening of a muscle during contraction? A. Isometric contraction ...
• Which type of muscle fibre is most resistant to fatigue? A. Type I (slow-twitch) ...
• How does lactic acid affect muscles during intense exercise? A. It increases muscle strength ...
• What is the role of calcium ions in muscle contraction? A. They provide energy ...
• Which of the following is an effect of regular exercise on muscles? A. Muscle ...
• What is the recommended daily protein intake for muscle growth in grams per kilogram of ...
• What role do antagonistic muscles play in the body? A. They work together to ...
• What is the primary function of skeletal muscles? A. Pumping blood B. Facilitating ...
• What is the primary energy source for muscle contraction during high-intensity exercise? A. Fatty ...
• Which of the following is a benefit of proper nutrition for muscle recovery? A. ...
• What is the term for the process of muscle repair after exercise? A. Hypertrophy ...
• Which nutrient is most important for muscle growth and repair? A. Carbohydrates B. ...
• Which of the following is a type of muscle found in the human body? ...
• How do bones protect internal organs? A. By producing blood cells B. By ...
• What is the function of osteoblasts in bone tissue? A. Breaking down bone ...
• Which bone protects the brain? A. Femur B. Skull C. Humerus D. Tibia ...
• What is the main function of red bone marrow? A. Storing fat B. ...
• How do bones contribute to movement? A. By producing energy B. By acting ...
• Which type of bone is the patella classified as? A. Long bone B. ...
• Which type of bone is the carpals classified as? A. Long bone B. ...
• What is the role of the periosteum in bone structure? A. To produce red ...
• Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton? A. Femur ...
• Which type of bone is the vertebra classified as? A. Long bone B. ...
• Which type of bone is the femur classified as? A. Long bone B. ...
• Which type of bone is primarily responsible for protecting internal organs? A. Long bones ...
• Which bone is part of the appendicular skeleton? A. Skull B. Rib ...
• What is the function of yellow bone marrow? A. Producing blood cells B. ...
• What is the primary mineral stored in bones? A. Sodium B. Potassium ...
• What is the primary function of the skeletal system? A. Digestion B. Support ...
• The cerebellum is part of which region of the brain? A. Forebrain B. ...
• Neurons communicate with each other through which of the following? A. Hormones B. ...
• The autonomic nervous system is responsible for transmitting signals between the central nervous system and ...
• Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is primarily responsible for hearing? A. Frontal lobe ...
• The corpus callosum is responsible for which of the following? A. Connecting the brain ...
• The nature vs. nurture debate is concerned with which of the following? A. The ...
• Which system is responsible for preparing the body for action? A. Parasympathetic nervous system ...
• Which part of the peripheral nervous system transmits signals between the central nervous system and ...
• Which neurotransmitter is associated with the fight or flight response? A. Dopamine B. ...
• The peripheral nervous system connects the central nervous system to which of the following? ...
• Monozygotic twins are also known as which of the following? A. Fraternal twins ...
• Which of the following is part of the central nervous system? A. Nerves ...
• Dopamine is primarily related to which of the following functions? A. Energy B. ...
• Which technique uses electrodes placed on the scalp to study brain activity? A. fMRI ...
• Genotype refers to which of the following? A. Physical appearance B. Genetic makeup ...
• Which part of the nervous system is primarily involved in the fight or flight response? ...
• How many pairs of nerves branch off the spinal cord? A. 25 pairs ...
• What is the primary function of the nervous system? A. To digest food and ...
• What is the function of motor neurons? A. To transmit signals from the brain ...
• How do nerve cells transmit information? A. Nerve cells transmit information through sound waves. ...
• What role do cranial nerves play in the nervous system? A. Cranial nerves are ...
• Which type of glial cell is responsible for myelinating neurons in the central nervous system? ...
• Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for balance and coordination? A. Cerebrum ...
• What are nerves made up of? A. Muscles and tendons B. Blood and ...
• What is the role of the hypothalamus in the nervous system? A. To control ...
• What is the main function of sensory neurons? A. To transmit signals from the ...
• Which part of the nervous system is responsible for higher cognitive functions? A. Cerebellum ...
• What connects the brain to the rest of the body? A. Lungs B. ...
• What is the role of the spinal cord in the nervous system? A. To ...
• How fast can a nerve signal travel from the brain to the toe? A. ...
• What is the control center of the nervous system? A. Spinal Cord B. ...
• What is the primary function of the cerebellum? A. To process visual information ...
• What is the protective covering of the brain and spinal cord called? A. Endocrine ...
• What is the function of sensory receptors in the nervous system? A. To transmit ...
• What type of signals do nerve cells transmit? A. Magnetic signals B. Electrical ...
• Why is the brain compared to a living computer? A. The brain is compared ...
• Which type of neuron carries signals away from the brain? A. Afferent neurons ...
• What part of the nervous system is responsible for involuntary actions? A. Cerebrum ...
• What is the primary role of the autonomic nervous system? A. To control voluntary ...
• What is the role of neurotransmitters in the nervous system? A. To protect the ...
• What is exhalation? A. Exhalation refers to the exchange of gases in the bloodstream. ...
• Why is respiration important for living organisms? A. Respiration is only necessary for plants. ...
• What is the significance of carbon dioxide in respiration? A. Carbon dioxide is a ...
• How do fish breathe underwater? A. Fish breathe underwater using gills to extract oxygen ...
• How do plants respire? A. Plants respire by converting sunlight into energy without any ...
• Explain the gas exchange mechanism in humans. A. Gas exchange happens in the skin, ...
• Define aerobic respiration. A. Aerobic respiration is a process that only occurs in plants. ...
• How does oxygen enter the bloodstream? A. Oxygen enters the bloodstream via the stomach. ...
• What are the two main types of respiration? A. Aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration ...
• Describe the process of breathing in humans. A. Breathing in humans involves only the ...
• What are the respiratory organs in mammals? A. Gills B. Trachea C. Skin ...
• Name one organism that primarily uses aerobic respiration. A. Human B. Dog ...
• What is the primary difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration? A. Aerobic respiration produces ...
• What is the difference between external and internal respiration? A. External respiration is the ...
• Name one organism that primarily uses anaerobic respiration. A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae B. Streptococcus ...
• What is the role of gills in respiration? A. Gills store nutrients for the ...
• What is the role of hemoglobin in respiration? A. Hemoglobin is responsible for the ...
• What is the function of alveoli in the lungs? A. To produce mucus for ...
• What is inhalation? A. Inhalation is the act of exhaling air. B. Inhalation ...
• Define anaerobic respiration. A. Anaerobic respiration occurs only in plants during photosynthesis. B. ...
• This belongs to a... A. carnivore B. omnivore C. herbivore D. producer
• Which of the following is the polymer of Carbohydrates? A. Polypeptide B. Polysaccharide ...
• Which type of teeth are used by carnivores to tear meat? A. Incisors ...
• Which of the following terms can be used to describe the digestive tract of carnivores? ...
• Describe the importance of nitrogen-fixation in the nitrogen cycle. A. Convert atmospheric nitrogen into ...
• Why do organisms like plants need nitrogen? A. To produce carbohydrates. B. For ...
• Which of the following is the polymer of Nucleic Acids? A. Polypeptide B. ...
• We release energy from bonds through the process of ______, a catabolic reaction. A. ...
• What happens during the process of denitrification? A. Process of absorbing nitrogen from the ...
• What is the function of Proteins? A. Store genetic information B. Provide fast ...
• Which of the following digestive systems belongs to an herbivore? A. Short intestine, no ...
• Which of the following is a characteristic of carnivore teeth? A. Flat B. ...
• Explain how a carnivore obtains nitrogen. A. A carnivore obtains nitrogen by absorbing it ...
• Which of the following processes builds up polymers? A. Catabolic reaction B. Anabolic ...
• Which of the following is the monomer of Proteins? A. Amino Acid B. ...
• This belongs to a... A. carnivore B. omnivore C. herbivore D. producer
• Macromolecules are _______ because they are _______ A. large; complex B. small; complex ...
• Which part of the digestive system is typically larger in herbivores compared to carnivores? ...
• What role do vitamins often play in enzymatic reactions? A. They act as substrates. ...
• Which of the following is a cofactor? A. Zinc B. Chlorine C. Gold ...
• What is the effect of high/extreme temperatures on enzymes? A. Enzyme activity decreases with ...
• Which macromolecule is made up of fatty acids and glycerol? A. Proteins B. ...
• What Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) can be used to keep your eyes safe in a ...
• Which of the following is an example of an enzyme? A. Hemoglobin B. ...
• How does your body use carbohydrates? A. As easy sources of energy your body ...
• Which of the following statements is true about enzyme-substrate specificity? A. Enzymes can bind ...
• All of the following are examples of Carbohydrates (sugars) EXCEPT...? A. Sucrose B. ...
• Which of the following best describes the role of an enzyme in a chemical reaction? ...
• What is the rule for properly disposing of broken glass in a lab setting? ...
• What is the primary function of cofactors in enzymatic reactions? A. To provide energy ...
• How does pH affect enzyme activity? A. Enzyme activity is highest at extreme pH ...
• What is the active site of an enzyme? A. The part of the enzyme ...
• Which of the following best describes the induced fit model of enzyme activity? A. ...
• Which macromolecule is in charge of storing your genetic information? (DNA & RNA) A. ...
• Which of the following statements is true about competitive inhibition? A. The inhibitor binds ...
• What does the term BIOMOLECULE mean? A. Molecules that are able to be made ...
• Which of the following is a characteristic of enzymes? A. They are made up ...
• How does a non-competitive inhibitor affect an enzyme's activity? A. It binds to the ...
• A Nucleotide is shown above. What part of the ...
• What is the complementary RNA base pairing for Adenine? A. Thymine B. Cytosine ...
• What is the role of RNA polymerase during transcription? A. It unwinds the DNA ...
• Which of the following correctly describes the structure of DNA? A. Single-stranded helix ...
• Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription? ...
• In DNA, which base pairs with Adenine? A. Cytosine B. Guanine C. Thymine ...
• Which of the following statements is true about RNA? A. RNA is double-stranded. ...
• Describe the difference between DNA and RNA in terms of their structure. A. DNA ...
• Predict the complementary DNA strand for the following sequence: 5'-ATCGGCTA-3'. A. 5'-TAGCCGAT-3' B. ...
• How does the structure of RNA differ from that of DNA in terms of sugar ...
• Evaluate the consequences of a substitution mutation in the DNA sequence on the resulting protein. ...
• Compare and contrast the roles of DNA and RNA in protein synthesis. A. DNA ...
• What are the four nucleotide bases found in DNA? A. Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, Guanine ...
• What is the difference between DNA and RNA A. DNA has uracil and RNA ...
• What is the significance of the double helix structure of DNA in terms of genetic ...
• Given the DNA sequence 5'-GATTACA-3', what would be the corresponding mRNA sequence? A. 5'-CUAAUGU-3' ...
• What 3 things make up a nucleotide? A. Sugar, Phosphate, Nitrogen Base B. ...
• Analyze the impact of a mutation that changes an Adenine to a Thymine in a ...
• How does complementary base pairing facilitate the process of transcription? A. It allows the ...
• Explain the role of complementary base pairing in DNA replication. A. It ensures that ...
• Where are phospholipids found in the cell? A. In the mitochondria B. In ...
• What is the main function of carbohydrates? A. Build muscle and repair tissues ...
• A dehydration reaction turns A. polymers into ...
• When bears hibernate, they do not eat for many months. Which macromolecule should they eat ...
• What is the monomer of lipids? A. Glycerol and fatty acids B. triglyceride ...
• What elements make up carbohydrates? A. Carbon, Nitrogen, Oxygen B. Nitrogen, Oxygen, Hydrogen ...
• What is the monomer of carbohydrates? A. monosaccharide B. Fructose C. Galactose ...
• You are super hungry and you need a source of quick energy. Which macromolecules should ...
• A hydrolysis reactions turns A. polymers into ...
• Give an example of a complex carbohydrate. A. Pasta B. nuts C. honey ...
• Give an example of a source of quick, short-term energy from carbohydrates. A. Bread ...
• What elements make up lipids? A. Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen B. Nitrogen, Oxygen, Hydrogen ...
• What are the main functions of lipids in the body? A. long term energy ...
• What is the polymer of carbohydrates? A. polysaccharide B. Protein C. triglyceride ...
• What are simple carbohydrates made of? A. monosaccharides B. polysaccharides C. Fat ...
• What is the polymer of lipids? A. Carbohydrates B. Proteins C. Nucleic acids ...
• An isotope of carbon has 6 protons and 8 neutrons. What is its mass number? ...
• An atom becomes _______ when it loses electrons. Positive ...
• What type of bond is formed when two atoms share electrons? A. Ionic bond ...
• Attractions between water molecules are called A. ...
• Carbon-13 has ____ protons, ____ neutrons, and ____ electrons. A. 6, 7, 6 ...
• The substance that does the dissolving. A. Solute B. Mixture C. Solvent ...
• Matter is... A. a substance made up ...
• A(n) _______ is a substance with a pH greater than 7. A. Base ...
• What is the mass number of an atom with 6 protons, 6 neutrons, and 6 ...
• Four substances were tested for pH, lemon juice (pH 2), baking soda (pH 9), bleach ...
• Suspension is A. A substance composed of two or more elements or compounds that ...
• An atom of ___________ contains 15 protons, 16 neutrons, 15 electrons and therefore has a ...
• Which of the following particles is found in the nucleus of an atom? A. ...
• Which of the following statements is true about isotopes? A. They have the same ...
• What is the primary difference between a covalent bond and an ionic bond? A. ...
• A compound is made of up A. Two or more atoms B. Two ...
• What is the atomic number of an element determined by? A. The number of ...
• A(n) ______ is a substance with a pH less than 7 A. Base ...
• All matter is made of _________. A. energy  B. atoms  C. electrons  ...
• Which is the strongest acid? A. ph of 1 B. ph of 4 ...
• Which subatomic particle has a negative charge? A. Proton B. Neutron C. Electron ...
• When water is in its __________ state, an equal number of hydrogen bonds are formed ...
• In a covalent bond, atoms A. share electrons B. transfer electrons C. attract ...
• Solute is A. a homogeneous mixture. B. The substance that does the dissolving. ...
• An atom becomes _________ when it gains electrons. ...
• What is the charge of a neutron? A. Positive B. Negative C. Neutral ...
• Proteins are synthesised in a cell at . A. Nucleus B. Mitochondria ...
• What type of enzyme reaction involves the breakdown of large substrate molecules into smaller products? ...
• What happens to enzymes at the end of a chemical reaction? A. They are ...
• What does the specificity of an enzyme refer to? A. The ability of an ...
• What is the role of phosphorylase enzyme? A. It synthesises starch from glucose ...
• During a synthesis reaction smaller substrates are A. broken down into larger products. ...
• Which enzyme catalyses this reaction ? Hydrogen peroxide ---> Oxygen + Water A. ...
• What is the role of an enzyme in a synthesis reaction? A. To break ...
• Enzymes are made of________ . A. Phospholipids B. Plasmids C. Carbohydrates D. Proteins ...
• What would likely occur without enzymes in biological systems? A. Reactions would occur at ...
• What reaction does Amylase catalyse? A. It converts maltose into starch. B. It ...
• What type of enzyme reaction does the diagram show? ...
• How do enzyme and substrate molecules interact? A. They repel each other due to ...
• Which of the following conclusionscan be drawn from this ...
• What effect does being heated to a high temperature have on enzyme activity? A. ...
• The diagram shows what type of enzyme reaction ...
• What is the definition of the term 'optimum'? A. The conditions at which the ...
• The conditions in which an enzyme is most active. A. Optimum B. Specific ...
• Which of the following is an example of a degradation reaction? A. Glucose with ...
• What is a substrate? A. A product formed at the end of a reaction. ...
• What is the role of catalase in cells? A. It breaks down starch ...
• What is the function of the active site of an enzyme? A. It is ...
• What is the function of enzymes in biological processes? A. To store genetic information ...
• What are the products of the reaction catalysed by catalase? A. Carbon dioxide and ...
• How specific are enzymes to substrates? A. Enzymes are not specific; they can attach ...
• Enzymes are ________.​ This means they only work on one substrate. A. complementary ...
• In the synthesis reaction example provided, what is the ...
• Which abnormality can be artificially produced in the preparation of blood smears? A. Smudge ...
• What are Mott cells filled with? A. Nucleoli B. Glycogen C. Russell bodies ...
• What is the distinctive chromatin pattern seen in monocytes? A. Dense and clumped ...
• Toxic granulation is commonly associated with which condition? A. Parasitic infections B. Viral ...
• Pelger-Huët anomaly primarily affects the: A. Neutrophils B. Lymphocytes C. Basophils D. Monocytes ...
• Neutrophilia is seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT: A. Bacterial infections ...
• Basophils are closely related to which other cell type? A. Lymphocytes B. Monocytes ...
• What percentage of plasma cells in the peripheral blood defines plasma cell leukemia? A. ...
• Plasma cell leukemia is an aggressive variant of which condition? A. Multiple myeloma ...
• What is a key finding in CLL? A. Smudge cells B. Auer rods ...
• Plasma cells are derived from which type of lymphocyte? A. T lymphocyte B. ...
• What is the primary function of eosinophils? A. Phagocytosis B. Anti-parasitic activity ...
• In which stage of lymphocyte maturation is the N ratio 4:1? A. Lymphoblast ...
• Necrobiotic/apoptotic neutrophils are characterized by a pyknotic nucleus and can be occasionally found in normal ...
• Which disorder is characterized by excessive IgM production? A. Multiple myeloma B. Waldenström's ...
• Which condition is associated with May-Hegglin anomaly? A. Thrombocytopenia B. Thrombocytosis C. Leukocytosis ...
• Which lymphoid organ is active during fetal development for B-cell production? A. Bone marrow ...
• What is the primary site of involvement in hairy cell leukemia? A. Bone marrow ...
• Hypersegmented neutrophils have six or more lobes and can be found in all of the ...
• How are flame cells distinguished? A. Red cytoplasm B. Increased vacuoles C. Blue ...
• What type of cells are characteristic of hairy cell leukemia? A. Plasma cells ...
• Which of the following is associated with Waldenström's macroglobulinemia? A. Flame cells B. ...
• Which leukemia is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome? A. Chronic myelogenous leukemia B. ...
• What type of leukemia is most commonly seen in children? A. Chronic myelogenous leukemia ...
• How can neutrophilic, eosinophilic, and basophilic bands be identified? A. By the presence of ...
• Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of myeloblasts? A. Size of 15-20 ...
• What is a characteristic of monoblasts? A. Presence of secondary granules B. Basophilic ...
• Which of the following cells is NOT typically found in peripheral blood? A. Plasma ...
• Mast cells can be distinguished from basophils by: A. Their round to oval nucleus ...
• What is a distinguishing feature of metamyelocytes? A. Presence of primary granules B. ...
• Which stem cell gives rise to the monocytic macrophage series? A. Myeloid stem cell ...
• Which of the following is a characteristic feature of plasma cells? A. Round or ...
• What is a distinguishing feature of promonocytes compared to monocytes? A. Lace-like chromatin pattern ...
• Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of monocytes? A. Variable-shaped nucleus ...
• Which of the following cells is the largest in peripheral blood? A. Promonocytes ...
• What is a characteristic feature of promonocytes? A. Small nucleus with condensed chromatin ...
• What is the first identifiable stage of the monocytic macrophage series? A. Promonocyte ...
• Variant lymphocytes exhibit characteristics such as: A. Dense and clumped chromatin B. Small ...
• Where does B cell production primarily occur in humans? A. Bone marrow B. ...
• Which of the following cells is the earliest identifiable stage of the granulocytic series? ...
• What is the normal pH range of adult blood? A. 6.0 - 6.5 ...
• In the context of thermoregulation, what happens when blood circulates to the surface of the ...
• How does the body respond to cold environments in terms of blood circulation? A. ...
• What is the main component of the circulatory system that carries blood? A. Lungs ...
• What is one of the functions of platelets in the blood? A. Transport oxygen ...
• What is the primary role of platelets in the circulatory system? A. Preventing infection ...
• Which of the following is NOT a function of regulation? A. Thermoregulation B. ...
• What component of blood makes up 45% of its volume? A. Plasma B. ...
• Which of the following is a key aspect of thermoregulation? A. Heat production ...
• Which component of blood is the liquid connective tissue? A. Red blood cells ...
• What percentage of blood is made up of the buffy coat? A. 55% ...
• What is the primary difference between plasma and serum? A. Serum contains clotting proteins ...
• Which of the following is a key function of blood in the circulatory system? ...
• What is the main function of the circulatory system? A. Digestion B. Circulation ...
• Which component of blood is primarily involved in clotting? A. Red blood cells ...
• Blood pH is A. slightly acidic B. slightly basic
• What is the major site of hematopoiesis in adults? A. Thymus B. Bone ...
• Which of the following is a characteristic of sickle cell anemia? A. Increased white ...
• What is the primary function of erythrocytes? A. Transport nutrients B. Blood clotting ...
• Which component of blood is responsible for hemostasis? A. Erythrocytes B. Leukocytes ...
• Which of the following is a common symptom of anemia? A. Increased appetite ...
• What is the role of erythropoietin? A. Enhance immune response B. Stimulate platelet ...
• What is the primary function of leukocytes? A. Nutrient transport B. Clot formation ...
• What is the normal pH range of blood? A. 7.0-7.5 B. 6.5-7.0 ...
• Which phase of hematopoiesis occurs in the yolk sac? A. Hepatic Phase B. ...
• Which type of anemia is characterized by a deficiency in vitamin B12? A. Sickle ...
• What is the lifespan of a mature erythrocyte? A. 120 days B. 60 ...
• Which type of leukocyte is primarily involved in allergic reactions? A. Basophils B. ...
• What is the primary cause of iron deficiency anemia? A. Inadequate iron absorption ...
• What is the main characteristic of megaloblastic anemia? A. Normal-sized red blood cells ...
• myasthenia: weakness of the ______. A. muscle B. bone C. nerve D. skin ...
• fibromyalgia: pain in the muscles and ______ tissue. A. connective B. nervous ...
• hernia: protrusion of a part through ______. A. tissues B. muscles C. bones ...
• tendon: band of non-elastic, fibrous connective tissue that connects muscle to ______. A. bone ...
• strain: injury to the body of a muscle and its attachment to the ______. ...
• tendonitis: inflammation of a ______. A. tendon B. muscle C. bone D. ligament ...
• sprain: injury to a joint that involves a ______. A. ligament B. muscle ...
• at____: a condition without coordination. A. ataxia B. atonic C. atopic D. atrophy ...
• hyperkinesia: a condition of increased ______. A. movement B. sleep C. appetite ...
• spasm: sudden, involuntary muscle ______. A. contraction B. relaxation C. expansion D. tension ...
• adhesion: a band of fibrous tissues that holds structures together ______. A. abnormally ...
• quadriceps: four headed ______. A. muscle B. bone C. nerve D. artery ...
• atrophy: weakness, wasting ______. A. away B. around C. aside D. along
• sphincter: ringlike muscle that tightly constricts an opening or ______. A. passageway B. ...
• hemiparesis: partial paralysis on one side of the ______. A. brain B. body ...
• viscera: internal ______. A. organs B. muscles C. bones D. tissues ...
• kinesiology: the study of ______. A. movement B. cooking C. painting D. singing ...
• fasciodesis: binding fascia to a skeletal ________. A. attachment B. muscle C. joint ...
• striated: striped ______. A. appearance B. color C. pattern D. texture
• myalgia: muscle ______. A. pain B. growth C. relaxation D. contraction ...
• What is the largest bone in the human body? A. femur B. humerus ...
• What part of the skeletal system protects the brain? A. Skull B. Pelvis ...
• What is the primary role of synovial fluid in joints? A. To provide nutrients ...
• What type of joint allows for the greatest range of motion? A. Hinge joint ...
• What is the role of the skeletal system in the human body? A. To ...
• What is osteoporosis and how does it affect bones? A. Osteoporosis is a condition ...
• What is the purpose of cartilage in joints? A. To provide nutrients to the ...
• What are the two main types of muscle tissue? A. Cardiac muscle and connective ...
• What disease is characterized by weak and brittle bones? A. Scoliosis B. Rickets ...
• What type of joint allows for rotational movement? A. Hinge joint B. Ball-and-socket ...
• Name the types of joints found in the human body. A. Hinge joints ...
• What type of muscle tissue is found in the heart? A. Skeletal muscle ...
• What is the difference between axial and appendicular skeleton? A. The axial skeleton is ...
• What type of muscle is responsible for involuntary movements? A. Skeletal muscle B. ...
• What is the role of ligaments in the musculoskeletal system? A. Ligaments connect muscles ...
• What is the main function of bones in the body? A. The main function ...
• What is the function of tendons in the musculoskeletal system? A. Tendons connect muscles ...
• How can regular exercise benefit your musculoskeletal system? A. Lack of exercise is essential ...
• Identify a common injury that affects muscles or bones. A. Sprain B. Dislocation ...
• What does the combining form 'scoli/o' mean? A. Crooked, bent B. Wrist bones ...
• The suffix '-scopy' means: A. Puncture to remove fluid B. Visual examination ...
• The prefix 'poly-' means: A. Softening B. Many C. Pore D. Surgical repair ...
• The root carp/o means: A. wrist bones B. foot bones C. skull ...
• The prefix 'ad-' means: A. Toward B. Away from C. Softening D. Pore ...
• The suffix -trophy means: A. muscle B. nourishment, development C. heart D. wrist ...
• The suffix -ectomy means: A. surgical repair B. surgical incision C. surgical removal, ...
• What does the suffix '-malacia' refer to? A. Pore B. Softening C. Visual ...
• The combining form my/o means what? A. Fascia B. Joint C. Muscle ...
• The suffix '-porosis' means: A. Surgical repair B. Pore, passage C. Lack of ...
• What does the suffix '-centesis' mean? A. Puncture to remove fluid B. Surgical ...
• What does 'fasci/o' refer to? A. Fascia B. Muscle C. Bone D. Heart ...
• What does the suffix '-asthenia' mean? A. Lack of strength B. Development ...
• Which combining form means bone marrow? A. sarc/o B. rhabdomy/o C. myel/o ...
• Which combining form means 'bone'? A. scoli/o B. carp/o C. oste/o D. my/o ...
• Which of the following is the meaning of 'arthr/o'? A. Joint B. Bone ...
• Which combining form refers to the 'skull'? A. crani/o B. fasci/o C. my/o ...
• The root cost/o means A. foot B. ribs C. wrist D. coccyx
• What is the meaning of the combining form 'lumb/o'? A. Bone marrow B. ...
• What does the suffix -algia mean? A. pain B. strength C. muscle ...
• Which of the following is not a risk factor to coronary heart disease? A. ...
• What type of fat is primarily found in fish and is beneficial for heart health? ...
• Which of the following is not an example of monounsaturated fat? A. avocado ...
• Which of the following modifications does not help to reduce the risk of Coronary Heart ...
• Which of the following oil is not healthy for the heart A. soya bean ...
• Oils are used for shallow and deep-fat frying. Which property of oil is the most ...
• Which of the following is not an example of unsaturated fats? A. olive oil ...
• Which of the following does not explain the importance of having good fats in the ...
• Which of the following types of fats does not contribute to obesity? A. saturated ...
• A fat molecule consists of .... A. glycerol only B. one fatty acid ...
• Diets that are high in ________ and ________ increases the formation of plaque. A. ...
• Which of the following is a characteristic of saturated fats? A. They contain double ...
• Which of the following is a common source of trans fats? A. Butter ...
• Which of the following major nutrients provides the most amount of calories per gram? ...
• The end digestion of a triglyceride would yield... A. glycerol only B. fatty ...
• Which of the following statements about polyunsaturated fats is true? A. They are solid ...
• Which type of fat is considered the healthiest for the heart? A. Saturated fats ...
• What is the primary function of fats in the human body? A. Energy storage ...
• Which of the following noodles has the highest fat content? A. fried beehoon with ...
• Which medication has the effect of disulfiram like reactions A. Ciprofloxacin B. PCN ...
• What is the MOA of beta lactams A. Inhibit DNA gyrase B. Inhibit ...
• Which of the following class of antibiotics can lead to torsades de pointes (QT prolongation) ...
• You have a 12 year old who is being treated for an infection, they come ...
• Vancomycin and aminoglycosides are associated with which toxicities A. Nephro toxicity B. Neuro ...
• An 80 year old patient has a creatinine of 2.9 and presents with an infection. ...
• Which medication is known for causing C diff A. Vanco B. Azithromycin ...
• Which of the following is a 3rd gen cephalosporin A. Ceftriaxone B. Cefepime ...
• Which medication works by inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase? A. Ciprofloxacin B. Azithromycin ...
• Which antibiotics are good for pseudomonas aeruginosa coverage A. Vancomycin B. Linzolid ...
• Which of the following 1st generation cephalosporin is best for surgical settings A. Ceftriaxone ...
• Which medication increases risk of seizures A. Meropenem B. Imipenem C. Ertapenem ...
• Which abx is contraindicated in pregnancy A. Metronidazole B. PCN C. Doxycycline ...
• Which medication causes red man syndrome A. Vancomycin B. Erythromycin C. Levofloxacin ...
• Which of the following is not a beta lactam antibiotic A. Azithromycin B. ...
• What is the term for a condition of stiffening or immobility of a joint? ...
• A Podiatrist would see you as a patient if you had an injured_______________. A. ...
• Rickets is caused by a lack of which vitamin?  A. A B. D ...
• Which term refers to the surgical repair or replacement of a joint? A. Arthrodesis ...
• Which mineral contributes to the hardness and strength of bones? A. iron B. ...
• The axial skeleton includes which of the following? A. limbs and girdles B. ...
• Artificial device that is used as a substitute for a missing body part. A. ...
• This disease translates to pourous bone which is weak, thin and easily breakable bone. ...
• Which term describes inflammation of the bone and joint? A. Osteoarthritis B. Arthroplasty ...
• To examine and surgically repair a joint with an arthroscope is called: A. arthroscopy ...
• The abbreviation OA means: A. osteoarthritis B. polymyalgia C. rheumatoid arthritis D. none ...
• What does the term osteoporosis refer to? A. Bone inflammation B. Bone softening ...
• Scoliosis is a condition related to the: A. heart B. lungs C. liver ...
• Bones of the wrist could be classified as A. Short Bones B. ...
• What is the purpose of red bone marrow in the skeletal system? A. fat ...
• The root word for rib is: A. chondr/o B. cost/o C. arthr/o ...
• The suffix -algia means: A. pain B. cartilage C. crooked D. away from ...
• Which of the following is a medical term for the inflammation of a joint? ...
• The suffix -desis means: A. loosening, setting free B. bind, tie together ...
• Lindsey is 8 months pregnant and complains of lower back pain. She has an exaggerated ...
• The partial displacement of a bone from a joint is a: A. dislocation ...
• Which type of joint is found in the knee? A. ball and socket joint ...
• -lysis means: A. toward, near B. away from C. curved, bent D. loosening, ...
• Which term refers to the surgical removal of a bursa? A. Arthrocentesis B. ...
• What does the term chondromalacia refer to? A. Inflammation of a tendon B. ...
• Which of the following is a function of blood related to oxygen? A. Blood ...
• How many individual types of cells can blood cells mature into? A. Five ...
• Where does hematopoiesis primarily occur in adults? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Bone ...
• From which type of stem cell do blood cells originate? A. Mesenchymal stem cell ...
• What is the study of blood and the tissues that produce it called? A. ...
• What is the formation of blood cells called? A. Hematopoiesis B. Hemostasis ...
• What role do platelets play in the blood? A. They help in oxygen transport ...
• What are the main functions of the blood? A. Transportation and protection B. ...
• What percentage of plasma is composed of solid substances that dissolve in it? A. ...
• What is the primary function of red blood cells (erythrocytes)? A. Transportation of oxygen ...
• Approximately what percentage of the composition of blood does plasma make up? A. 45 ...
• What is the first step in the method for differentiating between normal and abnormal test ...
• Within what scope can a Medical Assistant (MA) perform laboratory testing? A. Outside their ...
• How does blood help in fighting off infection? A. By carrying red blood cells ...
• What standard precautions should be followed during blood specimen collection? A. WHO standard precautions ...
• What is the key component of plasma? A. Hemoglobin B. Fibrinogen C. Platelets ...
• What is the purpose of documenting the patient’s record accordingly? A. To ensure accuracy ...
• What is serum? A. Plasma with fibrinogen B. Plasma without fibrinogen C. Plasma ...
• What is one of the most common diagnostic tools in the doctor's office? A. ...
• Why must a Medical Assistant (MA) know normal values? A. To prescribe medication ...
• What should be included in the patient's electronic medical record for reviewing laboratory test results? ...
• According to the procedure, when should results be released to the patient? A. Immediately ...
• How many types of white blood cells (leukocytes) are there? A. Three B. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a type of granular leukocyte? A. Neutrophils ...
• What is the primary function of white blood cells (leukocytes)? A. Oxygen transport ...
• What are the main functions of the blood? A. Transportation and protection B. ...
• What is the liquid component of blood called? A. Plasma B. Hemoglobin ...
• What are lab tests performed on blood commonly used for? A. To verify or ...
• What standards must laboratories adhere to for blood specimen collection? A. OSHA standards ...
• Where does blood take waste products for elimination? A. Lungs, liver, kidneys, and skin ...
• What is one of the primary functions of plasma in the blood? A. To ...
• How does blood assist in regulating body temperature? A. By carrying oxygen B. ...
• What percentage of plasma is water? A. 90 percent B. 95 percent ...
• Who must follow regulation guidelines in blood specimen collection? A. Doctors B. Nurses ...
• Who regulates the blood specimen collection process? A. CDC B. FDA C. OSHA ...
• What is one of the roles of a Medical Assistant (MA)? A. Performing surgeries ...
• What should be done after highlighting any abnormal results per facility policy? A. Schedule ...
• What is NOT a contributing factor to the development of osteoporosis? A. Being physically ...
• What type of fracture is this? A. ...
• Which disease is characterized by the formation of uric acid crystals in the joints? ...
• What is a strain? A. The stretching or tearing of a nerve B. ...
• Osteoporosis can increase a person’s risk for __________. A. heart disease B. bone ...
• Which type of arthritis develops when joint cartilage just wears out? A. osteoarthritis ...
• Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is classified as what type of ...
• What is a partial dislocation called? A. Subluxation B. Dislocation C. Displaced ...
• What type of fracture is this? ...
• Chuku describes L big toe pain. Chuku had these ...
• What type of fracture is this? (Hint: it's across ...
• TRUE or FALSE A sprain is a traumatic injury to a ligament A. ...
• What injury is this? A. Sprain ...
• A nursing student is working on a presentation explaining differences in osteoarthritis vs rheumatoid arthritis. ...
• Who is more likely to be affected by Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD)? A. Natal ...
• What type of fracture is this? A. ...
• What is the most common benign bone tumor? A. Osteochondroma B. Osteosarcoma ...
• What happens when calcium levels are low? A. increase in bone density B. ...
• What does Sequela refer to? A. An objective indication of a disease B. ...
• Which term describes the reduction or disappearance of disease symptoms? A. Remission B. ...
• What is Exacerbation in medical terms? A. The cause or origin of a disease ...
• What is the study of disease known as? A. Pathology B. Physiology ...
• What is a disease or infection contracted by a patient while under medical care called? ...
• What is the time called that passes between being exposed to something that can cause ...
• What term describes the process by which a disease or disorder develops, progresses, and is ...
• What does Subacute mean? A. A condition that is irreversible B. A recent ...
• What are Signs in the context of disease? A. Something a person feels indicating ...
• What are Clinical manifestations in the context of pathology? A. The cause or origin ...
• Which term describes a condition that is persistent or long-lasting? A. Acute B. ...
• What is a Terminal illness? A. A condition that is reversible B. A ...
• What are Symptoms? A. An objective indication of a disease B. Something a ...
• What does Etiology refer to? A. The cause or origin of a disease ...
• What does Systemic mean in medical terms? A. Affecting a single organ B. ...
• What does the term Acute refer to in pathology? A. A condition that is ...
• What does Iatrogenic mean? A. A disease of unknown cause B. Any disease ...
• What are events or triggers that cause the onset of a disease, illness, accident, or ...
• What does Incidence refer to in medical terms? A. The cause or origin of ...
• What does Complications refer to in medical terms? A. A disease of unknown cause ...
• What is a Relapse in medical terms? A. An after-effect of a disease ...
• What is the study of physiological processes corresponding with diseases called? A. Pathology ...
• What branch of biology deals with the normal functions of living organisms and their parts? ...
• How is Endemic defined in the context of diseases? A. A disease that is ...
• What is the definition of Idiopathic? A. A disease of unknown cause B. ...
• What does the term Prevalence refer to in medical terminology? A. The time between ...
• What is a Syndrome? A. A condition affecting the entire body B. A ...
• What is the term for a disease that comes on slowly and does not have ...
• What is the meaning of Epidemic in pathology? A. A disease of unknown cause ...
• What is the Prodromal period? A. The reduction of disease symptoms B. The ...
• What factors increase the likelihood of a person developing a problem or disorder, but are ...
• surgical reconstruction of hip by implanting prosthetic or artificial hip joint A. total hip ...
• piece of bone taken from patient used to take the place of removed bone or ...
• Artificial device used as a substitute for body part that is either congenitally missing or ...
• Procedure to stabilize a joint by fusing bones together (joint / to fuse) A. ...
• instrument used to cut bone (bone / instrument to cut) A. orthotic B. ...
• correcting fracture by realigning bone fragments A. cast B. fixation C. reduction ...
• surgical procedure involving intentional breaking of bone to correct a deformity (bone / surgically break) ...
• procedure to stabilize fractured bone while it heals; includes casts, splints and pins inserted through ...
• surgical immobilization of adjacent vertebrae A. synovectomy B. laminectomy C. spinal fusion ...
• applying a pulling force on fractured or dislocated limb or vertebral column in order to ...
• removal of bursa at joint of great toe (bursa / surgical removal) A. chondrectomy ...
• surgical repair of cartilage (cartilage / surgical repair) A. chondrectomy B. chondroplasty ...
• surgical procedure that cuts into skull (skull / cutting into) A. craniotomy B. ...
• surgical removal of bursa A. laminectomy B. osteotomy C. snyovectomy D. bursectomy
• surgical procedure that cuts into a joint capsule (joint / cutting into) A. arthrotomy ...
• Insertion of a needle into joint cavity in order to remove fluid (joint / puncture ...
• surgical removal of cartilage A. chondrectomy B. laminectomy C. bursectomy D. synovectomy
• surgical removal of synovial membrane (synovial membrane / surgical removal) A. bunionectomy B. ...
• orthopedic appliance, such as a brace or splint used to prevent or correct deformities. (straight ...
• surgical reconstruction of knee joint by implanting prosthetic or artificial knee joint A. total ...
• to forcibly break loose a fused joint while patient is under anesthetic (joint / surgically ...
• removal of vertebral posterior arch to correct severe back problems and pain caused by compression ...
• application of solid material to immobilize extremity or portion of the body as a result ...
• performing a surgical procedure while using arthroscope to view internal structure. A. arthroscopic surgery ...
• Partial or complete removal of a limb A. orthotic B. prosthesis C. amputation ...
• Which of the following pigments accumulates intracellularly under special circumstances? A. Lipids B. ...
• What type of injury results in reversible changes to a cell? A. Lethal injury ...
• Which of the following injuries may result in the formation of free radicals and damage ...
• What mechanism underlies chemical injuries to cells? A. Production of free radicals B. ...
• In hypoxia, which organelle is the first to show dysfunction? A. Nucleus B. ...
• What is a common morphologic feature of reversible cell injury? A. Necrosis B. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a basic mechanism of cell injury? A. ATP ...
• What is the primary biochemical change seen in hypoxic injury? A. Increased DNA replication ...
• What are the two main pathways by which a cell can die? A. Degeneration ...
• The normal steady state involves the preservation of which key feature? A. Cellular division ...
• The process in which cells accumulate abnormal substances within the cytoplasm is known as: ...
• The term degeneration is most closely associated with which type of cell injury? A. ...
• Which of the following is an example of intracellular accumulation of proteins? A. Hyaline ...
• Who first demonstrated that cellular alterations correlate with the clinical aspects of disease? A. ...
• What accumulates during cellular degeneration due to hypoxia? A. Lipids B. Proteins ...
• Which of the following describes the term degeneration in the context of cell injury? ...
• Which of the following is the first observable structural change in cell injury? A. ...
• Which type of cell death is a controlled and programmed process? A. Necrosis ...
• Which of the following can result from nutrient deficiencies? A. Genetic abnormalities B. ...
• Which cellular change is commonly associated with ATP depletion? A. Protein aggregation B. ...
• Which of the following can lead to abnormal intracellular accumulation of carbohydrates? A. Proteinuria ...
• The process by which a cell adapts to a stress that exceeds normal levels but ...
• What process follows if an organism dies due to massive cellular injury? A. Necrosis ...
• What is the term used to describe the narrow range of stability in cellular function? ...
• Which of the following is a feature of irreversible cell injury? A. Apoptosis ...
• What is the main morphologic pattern seen in irreversible cell injury? A. Cell swelling ...
• What cellular process is most associated with cell death via necrosis? A. Apoptosis ...
• Which of the following is a common macroscopic feature of fatty liver? A. Shrinkage ...
• The accumulation of what substance leads to fatty change in cells? A. Protein ...
• Which of the following is NOT a possible outcome when a cell is exposed to ...
• Which type of bariatric surgery involves removing a large portion of the stomach, leaving a ...
• Which indicator is most important for assessing underweight? A. Blood pressure B. Body ...
• Which oral hypoglycemic agent is commonly used to improve insulin sensitivity? A. Metformin ...
• Which of the following is a common metabolic alteration in obesity? A. Low blood ...
• What does the glycemic index measure? A. The protein content of food B. ...
• In carbohydrate counting, how many grams of carbohydrate is considered one serving? A. 10 ...
• The primary goal of diet therapy for diabetes mellitus is to: A. Increase insulin ...
• Which dietary change is recommended for someone with underweight? A. High-fiber foods B. ...
• Which type of insulin acts quickly and lasts for a short time? A. Long-acting ...
• Which food group typically has a high glycemic index? A. Fruits B. Vegetables ...
• Which of the following is a chronic complication of diabetes mellitus? A. Hypoglycemia ...
• What is a common symptom of obesity? A. Low energy levels B. High ...
• What is a common lifestyle recommendation for managing obesity? A. Decrease physical activity ...
• Which type of bariatric surgery involves creating a small stomach pouch and bypassing most of ...
• Which is an acute complication of diabetes mellitus? A. Retinopathy B. Diabetic ketoacidosis ...
• The laparoscope provides a two-dimensional view of the inside of the body. A. TRUE ...
• Why do surgeons inflate the abdomen during laparoscopic surgery? A. To make it easier ...
• Laparoscopic surgery is also known as open surgery. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Fewer entry ports in laparoscopic surgery are better for reducing patient trauma. A. TRUE ...
• What future development is expected for laparoscopic tools? A. They will become larger and ...
• What is the laparoscope used for in this surgery? A. Cutting tissues B. ...
• The umbilicus is the same as the belly button. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Which tool is used to create small cuts during laparoscopic surgery? A. Laparoscope ...
• What does minimally invasive surgery mean? A. Surgery that uses large cuts B. ...
• Which body organ is not typically found in the abdominal cavity? A. Heart ...
• What is laparoscopic surgery? A. Surgery involving large cuts in the abdomen B. ...
• Ventral herniation is a possible complication after laparoscopic surgery. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• What is a common challenge during laparoscopic surgery? A. Larger cuts are needed ...
• What term refers to the membrane lining the abdominal cavity? A. Fascia B. ...
• How many small cuts are usually made during laparoscopic surgery? A. One B. ...
• What happens if a laparoscopic surgery can't be completed safely? A. The surgeon stops ...
• Which body cavity contains the stomach, liver, and intestines? A. Thoracic cavity B. ...
• What is one main benefit of laparoscopic surgery over traditional surgery? A. It is ...
• Which gas is used to inflate the abdomen during laparoscopic surgery? A. Oxygen ...
• What is the main purpose of the design challenge mentioned in the article? A. ...
• Under which types of anesthesia can carotid endarterectomy be performed? A. CEA can be ...
• Under which types of anesthesia can carotid endarterectomy be performed? A. General anesthesia or ...
• What vessels comprise the arterial supply to the spinal cord? A. Posterior spinal arteries ...
• What are the most common indications for carotid endarterectomy (CEA)? A. Symptomatic carotid ...
• What is amaurosis fugax? A. Monocular blindness caused by emboli from the carotid lesion ...
• Under which types of anesthesia can carotid endarterectomy be performed? A. General anesthesia or ...
• What is the most common cause of occlusive vascular disease of the lower extremities? ...
• What are the most common indications for carotid endarterectomy (CEA)? A. CEA is indicated ...
• What is the purpose of a shunt during carotid endarterectomy? A. To allow blood ...
• How does blood pressure change above and below the clamp when the aorta is cross-clamped? ...
• Under which types of anesthesia can carotid endarterectomy be performed? A. General anesthesia or ...
• What is the incidence of significant coronary artery disease in the population of patients undergoing ...
• What is the primary advantage to performing an 'awake' carotid endarterectomy with regional anesthesia? ...
• What is the purpose of a shunt during carotid endarterectomy? A. If the blood ...
• What is the peak onset of heparin for normothermic patients? A. The peak onset ...
• What are the recommendations for blood pressure maintenance during a carotid endarterectomy? A. During ...
• Carotid surgery can be performed under regional anesthesia by blocking the nerves originating from which ...
• What are the most common indications for carotid endarterectomy (CEA)? A. Patients with symptomatic ...
• Carotid surgery can be performed under regional anesthesia by blocking the nerves originating from which ...
• What is the peak onset of heparin for normothermic patients? A.
• What are the most common symptoms seen in patients presenting for carotid endarterectomy? A. ...
• What is the purpose of performing a carotid endarterectomy under regional anesthesia? A. It ...
• During carotid endarterectomy, a distal stump pressure less than what value is an indicator that ...
• How should ventilation be managed during a carotid endarterectomy? A. Both hypercapnea and hypocapnea ...
• The carrier molecules in the cell membrane which facilitate the transport of large molecules in ...
• modifies and packages proteins for export A. nucleus B. cell membrane C. cell ...
• Which solution has a high concentration of solute, and a lower concentration of water outside ...
• directs all the activities of the cell A. nucleus B. cell membrane ...
• In which of these activities of humans or cells is osmosis involved? A. vendors ...
• protects and gives shape to plant cells A. nucleus B. cell membrane ...
• In which of the following solutions is the amount of solvent that moves in and ...
• An animal cell that is surrounded by fresh water will burst because the osmotic pressure ...
• protects the cell and allows materials to enter and leave the cell A. nucleus ...
• Which of the following is not a form of passive transport? A. diffusion ...
• Which describes the chemical composition of a cell membrane? A. two layers of proteins ...
• What is the process wherein large particles of solid are engulfed by the cell? ...
• The cell placed in salt solution shrinks because _______________. A. The cell gains water. ...
• The diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called A. osmotic pressure. ...
• What process creates a vesicle? A. Endocytosis B. Facilitated Diffusion C. Exocytosis ...
• The passage of materials into and out of cells by active transport requires _________. ...
• To which of the following processes do phagocytosis and pinocytosis belong? A. endocytosis ...
• Through which process does water become available to cells? A. active transport B. ...
• This movement of oxygen molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of ...
• Which of the following structures serves as the cell's boundary from its environment? A. ...
• During diffusion, when the concentration of molecules on both sides of a membrane is the ...
• jelly-like substance that holds the organelle in place A. nucleus B. cell membrane ...
• Substances transported by facilitated diffusion A. may flow to a region of higher concentration ...
• What is the primary function of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)? A. To protect ...
• What happens to lymphocytes that are likely to bind to self-antigens? A. They mature ...
• What is a naive lymphocyte? A. A lymphocyte that has encountered an antigen before ...
• What is the function of a Helper T cell in the immune system? A. ...
• How do B lymphocytes acquire receptors? A. Through genetic inheritance. B. By exposure ...
• What is the role of the spleen in the immune response? A. It filters ...
• What happens to self-reactive B cells in primary lymphoid organs? A. They undergo apoptosis. ...
• Which cell type is a precursor of macrophages and is located in blood? A. ...
• Which animals possess a thymus and a spleen as part of their immune system? ...
• What was Edward Jenner's contribution to immunology? A. He discovered the smallpox virus. ...
• What percentage of B cells whose Igs do not recognize stromal cell epitopes are released ...
• What is the role of the thymus in the immune system? A. It filters ...
• What is the T-cell receptor (TCR) responsible for? A. Recognizing self-antigens B. Binding ...
• What is passive immunity? A. Immunity gained through vaccination B. Immunity gained by ...
• What is the primary characteristic of adaptive immunity? A. It is innate and non-specific. ...
• What is the role of dendritic cells in the immune system? A. Important in ...
• What is an antigen? A. A type of white blood cell. B. A ...
• Which organs are considered primary lymphoid organs? A. Lymph nodes and spleen B. ...
• Where are secondary lymphoid organs located? A. Near the heart B. In the ...
• Diagram showing different epitopes on a protein and a bacterium. A. Epitopes are specific ...
• What is the difference between humoral and cellular forms of immunity? A. Humoral immunity ...
• Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the adaptive immune system? A. ...
• What is the role of B cells in the immune response? A. Secreting antibodies ...
• What is the primary function of eosinophils? A. Important in the elimination of helminths ...
• The replacement of a defective or missing gene, or the addition of a new gene, ...
• What is the primary function of a restriction enzyme? A. To replicate DNA ...
• Determining the order of DNA nucleotides in genes or in genomes. A. Gene sequencing ...
• What does transgenic mean in genetics? A. An organism with a mutation B. ...
• What is a DNA fingerprint used for? A. To identify an individual at the ...
• The process of testing DNA to determine a person's risk of having or passing on ...
• Show the lengths of DNA fragments between restriction sites in a strand of DNA ...
• What is a clone? A. A genetically identical copy of a gene or organism ...
• What is a primer? A. A long strand of RNA B. A short ...
• The study of genomes A. Genomics B. Gene sequencing C. Gene therapy ...
• Tools that allow scientists to study many genes, and their expression, at once. A. ...
• Genetic manipulation by disrupting the function of a gene A. Polymerase Chain Reaction ...
• The use of computer databases to organize and analyze biological data A. Bioinformatics ...
• What is genetic engineering? A. The study of genetic diseases B. Changing an ...
• The study and comparison of all the proteins that result from an organism's genome. ...
• Electrical current is used to separate a mixture of DNA fragments from each other. ...
• To map and sequence all of the DNA base pairs of the human chromosomes and ...
• What is recombinant DNA? A. DNA that contains genes from more than one organism ...
• Technique used that produces millions of copies of a specific DNA sequence in just a ...
• What is a plasmid? A. A type of virus that infects bacteria B. ...
• What is the structure of a TCR similar to? A. Immunoglobulin Fab B. ...
• What type of protein is a T-cell receptor (TCR)? A. Monomeric protein B. ...
• What are the two identical short polypeptides in an immunoglobulin molecule called? A. Heavy ...
• How many amino acids are typically found in each domain of an immunoglobulin fold? ...
• Which region of the immunoglobulin molecule is referred to as the stem? A. Fab ...
• What is the function of the constant regions in T-cell receptors? A. They bind ...
• What is the function of IgG according to the table? A. Serves as an ...
• What is the primary function of memory cells during a secondary immune response? A. ...
• What process allows for the generation of immunoglobulin diversity? A. Somatic hyper-mutation B. ...
• Which type of immunoglobulin is the major form found in blood plasma? A. IgA ...
• What are the two main types of chains in an immunoglobulin molecule? A. Heavy ...
• What is the role of helper T cells in the immune response? A. They ...