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• The use of strong passwords is not necessary for accessing medical records. A. TRUE ...
• Cybersecurity audits are optional for healthcare organizations. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Phishing attacks are a common cybersecurity threat in the medical field. A. TRUE ...
• The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is irrelevant to cybersecurity. A. TRUE ...
• Cybersecurity incidents can disrupt medical services and patient care. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Cybersecurity training for medical staff is crucial to protect patient information. A. TRUE ...
• Mobile devices pose no risk to healthcare cybersecurity. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The medical field is not a target for nation-state cyber espionage. A. TRUE ...
• A data breach in a healthcare institution can lead to identity theft. A. TRUE ...
• Cybersecurity is only a concern for IT departments in healthcare settings. A. TRUE ...
• Regular software updates are not essential for cybersecurity in healthcare. A. TRUE B. ...
• Medical devices, such as pacemakers, can be targets for cyber attacks. A. TRUE ...
• Encrypting patient data is an unnecessary step for healthcare providers. A. TRUE B. ...
• Cybersecurity measures are less important in the medical field than in other industries. A. ...
• The Internet of Medical Things (IoMT) does not increase cybersecurity risks. A. TRUE ...
• Patient consent is not required when sharing medical data for treatment purposes. A. TRUE ...
• which has shorter striations A. cardiac muscle B. skeletal muscle C. visceral muscle ...
• center of sarcomere A. M line B. Z disc C. H zone ...
• As muscular tissue contracts, it produces heat, a process known as? A. thermogenesis ...
• ability to respond to certain stimuli by producing electrical signals A. excitability B. ...
• the skeletal muscle is a DENSE IRREGULAR CT A. TRUE B. FALSE
• skeletal muscle is vascularized A. TRUE B. FALSE
• NUCLEUS: multinucleated, located at periphery A. skeletal B. cardiac C. visceral
• most important property of muscle, ability to contract forcefully when stimulated A. excitability ...
• dense irregular CT A. perimysium B. epimysium C. endomysium
• G-actin are polymerized F-actin are not polymerized A. TT B. FF ...
• the _____ is responsible for communicating w/ other filaments A. actin tail B. ...
• in what process can we see the action of thermogenesis A. melting B. ...
• thin CT layer A. endomysium B. perimysium C. epimysium
• which is main responsible for body movements A. skeletal muscles B. bones ...
• delicate layer of reticular fibers A. epimysium B. perimysium C. endomysium
• has spindle-shaped nuclei A. skeletal B. visceral C. cardiac
• which muscle has a nucleus that has glycogen A. skeletal B. cardiac ...
• ability to stretch, within limits, without being damaged A. excitability B. contractility ...
• ability to return to original strength and shape after contraction and extension A. excitability ...
• it contains the calcium-binding site A. tropomyosin B. troponin C. myosin-binding site ...
• bisects I-band A. H zone B. M line C. Z disc D. A ...
• what prevents the outflow of contents in hollow organs A. smooth muscles B. ...
• A calcified ovoid or round nodule found in the PDL is called a A. ...
• The 1st deposition of the root covering is called A. Intermediate cementum B. ...
• The majority of the time, A. Cementum meets enamel B. Cementum does not ...
• The muscle that functions to protrude the mandible is the A. Masseter B. ...
• The muscle that functions to protract and elevate the mandible is the A. Masseter ...
• After the second layer of cementum is laid, what type of cementum is laid next? ...
• Which of the following attach the PDL to cementum? A. Cementoblasts B. Hemidesmosomes ...
• Bone loss in the coronal area of the root is called A. Fenestration ...
• The fibers that resist vertical and lateral forces and are located only in some posterior ...
• In health, the alveolar crest should be ___ to the CEJ A. 2.5-3.5 mm ...
• The muscle that functions to protrude the mandible is the A. Masseter B. ...
• What encloses the TMJ like a cuff and contains synovial fluid? A. Capsule ...
• The fibers that resist vertical and lateral forces and are located only in some posterior ...
• As the ligament ages, A. Cell # and activity decreases B. Scalloping occurs ...
• Where does that condyle sit at rest? A. Articular eminence B. Articular capsule ...
• What type of movement occurs during the mixed dentition stage? A. Leeway space ...
• The gingival fibers that maintain the tooth in the appropriate space are called? A. ...
• The muscle that functions to protract and elevate the mandible is the A. Masseter ...
• Which cranial nerve innervates the TMJ? A. Facial B. Trigeminal C. Glossopharyngeal ...
• Cells in the cementum are more vital A. On the surface of cementum ...
• Somatic hypermutation (SHM)/affinity selection of T-dependent B cell responses ______. A. occurs in the ...
• B lymphocytes are made in the: A. blood stream B. bone marrow ...
• Which of the following is NOT true of T-independent antigens? A. they are rarely ...
• Which of the following molecules is needed for the mature class I MHC to be ...
• Which of the following is the first event of BCR gene rearrangement during B cell ...
• The human MHC locus is one of the most polymorphic regions of the genome. What ...
• Which of the following is true regarding the structure of the MHC class I molecule? ...
• Which of the following cell types would be least likely to express MHC class II? ...
• Pre-B cell receptors consist of _____. A. heavy and light chain B. a ...
• Which of the following would be the most likely source of a peptide bound to ...
• The developmental stages of B cells in the bone marrow are defined by: A. ...
• This type of cell will leave the bone marrow and complete maturation in the spleen ...
• The following are MHC class II molecules EXCEPT: A. HLA-DR B. HLA-DP ...
• Which cell type would be most likely NOT to express detectable MHC I? A. ...
• Which of the following is true about B-1 cells? A. produce IgM antibodies which ...
• MHC class I molecules are heterodimers consisting of _____. A. a chain and B2-microglobulin ...
• At what stage of development does a B cell begin to express a pre-B cell ...
• MHC molecules _____. A. are secreted by T cells and bind and neutralize antigen ...
• Which of the following is true for the structures of the MHC class II molecules? ...
• What could occur to the immature B cells in the bone marrow if they are ...
• A patient unable to produce mature B cells may have a mutation in: A. ...
• The term major histocompatibility complex is synonymous with: A. allele B. chromosome ...
• MHC molecules containing beta-2 microglobulin: A. contain alpha and beta transmembrane polypeptides B. ...
• The human MHC gene locus is located on chromosome A. 6 B. 7 ...
• What is the role of the invariant chain (Ii)? A. to prevent peptide binding ...
• Of the cells listed below, which is least likely to be presenting antigens by MHC ...
• V-DJ recombination occurs during which phase of B cell development? A. activated B cell ...
• Which of the following is the correct order of the class I processing pathway? ...
• The first immunoglobulin isotype produced during the course of a primary immune response contains which ...
• What type of immunoglobulin gene rearrangement occurs during B cell progenitor development? A. DH-JH ...
• Which of the following antigen types could be characterized as T-independent antigens? A. soluble ...
• Which of the following cell types would be most likely to express MHC class I? ...
• Superantigens: A. are harmless B. bind to MHC class I outside the peptide ...
• Which of the following is true for the function of class II MHC molecules? ...
• AID converts cytosine into which of the following? A. adenine B. thymine ...
• Of the classical MHC genes, which are least related to antigen presentation? A. MHC ...
• Peptide binding diversity is increased by: A. multiple MHC alleles in the population, only ...
• Of the cells listed below, which one represents the most developed B-cell? A. immature ...
• How many different MHC classical class I proteins does each nucleated cell in a human ...
• If a mother is MHC A3A14/B5B15/Cw3Cw4 and her child is A3A9/B5B27/Cw4Cw7, which of the following ...
• Which of the following is an example of cross presentation? A. an endogenous peptide ...
• Through which of the following ways do B cells acquire/interact with antigen in the lymph ...
• Which of the following is true regarding B-cell development? A. B cells complete maturation ...
• At what stage of development does a B cell begin to display an IgM receptor? ...
• Allelic exclusion occurs during VH to DHJH recombination in ______. As a result, an intact ...
• Mature naive B cells express high levels of ____ on their cell surfaces. A. ...
• MHC polymorphisms tend to cluster ______. A. in the peptide binding groove B. ...
• Endogenous peptides binding to MHC-A, MHC-B or MHC-C molecules on the surface of hepatocytes are ...
• The function of somatic hypermutation is best described by which of the following statements? ...
• At what stage of development does a B cell undergo DH-JH rearrangement? A. pre-pro-B-cell ...
• What is coronary artery disease? A. Insufficient blood supply to the heart due to ...
• Which vessels carry blood away from the heart? A. arteries B. veins ...
• Which vessels carry blood towards the heart? A. arteries B. veins
• What is cardiac arrest? A. when the heart stops B. a myocardial infarction ...
• How many valves are there in the heart? A. 1 B. 2 ...
• In which blood vessels does diffusion of oxygen and CO2 occur? A. arteries ...
• A form of arteriosclerosis caused by the formation of plaque inside arteries A. aneurysm ...
• Which chambers in the heart are the pumping chambers? A. atrium B. ventricles ...
• Weakness in the artery wall resulting in protrusion of the artery A. aneurysm ...
• Which chambers of the heart are receiving chambers? A. atrium B. ventricles
• The force exerted by blood against the wall of a blood vessel A. blood ...
• Severe pain around the hear caused by lack of oxygen to the heart A. ...
• What is the name of a blood clot in a blood vessel? A. embolus ...
• What is Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)? A. When the heart is not pumping effectively ...
• Where are the heart valves located? A. At the entrances and exits of the ...
• How many chambers are in the heart? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 ...
• What is the function of the CV system? A. to protect the body ...
• what is a myocardial infarction A. a heart attack B. hypertension C. hypotension ...
• What is the yellow, fatty deposit of lipids in an artery? A. thrombus ...
• What is the name of a blood clot that has traveled to a smaller blood ...
• Which type of diabetes has a gradual onset? A. Type 1 B. Type ...
• How long can you store an opened insulin vial at room temperature? A. 5 ...
• What medication is considered first line treatment for type 2 diabetics? A. Glipizide ...
• Which type of diabetes is an autoimmune disorder? A. Type 1 B. Type ...
• Oral antidiabetic agents are used in which type of diabetes? A. Type 1 ...
• Which type of diabetes is most common? A. Type 1 B. Type 2 ...
• Which type of insulin is cloudy? A. Lispro B. Glulisine C. NPH ...
• How far back does a HbA1C test go? A. 2 weeks B. 3 ...
• Which of the following types of insulin that can be administered IV? A. Regular ...
• Which type of diabetes has an abrupt onset? A. Type 1 B. Type ...
• Which type of diabetes is insulin dependent? A. Type 1 B. Type 2 ...
• Which type of diabetes has an unknown cause? A. Type 1 B. Type ...
• What medication can mask the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia? A. Glucocorticoids B. ...
• Which type of diabetes occurs in children or adolescents? A. Type 1 B. ...
• How would we draw up insulin? A. Aspart first then NPH B. NPH ...
• What stimulates insulin release? A. Insulin B. Glucose C. Beta cells D. Hypoglycemia ...
• Calculate the pediatric dosage of a medication if the prescribed dose is 0.2 mg/kg and ...
• If the adult dose of a medication is 150 mg and the child's body surface ...
• If the adult dose of a medication is 100 mg and the child is 5 ...
• What is the formula for calculating medication administration based on the volume to be administered ...
• Calculate the amount of medication to be administered if the prescribed dose is 50 mg ...
• How do you calculate the IV flow rate in drops per minute? A. IV ...
• What is the formula for calculating the dosage of a medication based on the patient's ...
• If the prescribed IV fluid for a pediatric patient is 500 ml over 8 hours, ...
• What is the formula for calculating pediatric dosage based on the child's age and weight ...
• What is the formula for calculating the pediatric dosage of a medication based on the ...
• If the IV infusion set delivers 15 drops per ml, and the prescribed IV flow ...
• Calculate the dosage of a medication if the prescribed dose is 0.1 mg/kg and the ...
• How do you calculate the IV flow rate in ml/hour for a pediatric patient? ...
• What is the formula for calculating pediatric dosage based on the child's age and the ...
• If the adult dose of a medication is 200 mg, the child is 4 years ...
• What is the formula for calculating pediatric dosage based on the child's body surface area ...
• What is the primary neurotransmitter released by the parasympathetic nervous system? A. Acetylcholine ...
• What is the primary neurotransmitter released by the parasympathetic nervous system? A. Acetylcholine ...
• Where are alpha-1 adrenergic receptors primarily located? A. Smooth muscle cells of blood vessels ...
• The ganglia of the parasympathetic nervous system are typically found: A. near or within ...
• Where can the Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor be found? A. In the lungs B. ...
• Which action is associated with sympathetic nervous activation? A. Decreased heart rate B. ...
• Where can the Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor be found? A. In the lungs B. ...
• Serotonin (5-HT) functions A. mediates cholinergic B. acting as adrenergic receptor C. regulate ...
• What effect does the sympathetic nervous system have on respiratory rate? A. Increases respiratory ...
• Which neurotransmitter is known to increase digestive activity? A. Acetylcholine B. GABA ...
• Where is beta adrenergic allocated ? A. Cell membrane of target cells B. ...
• Which division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for the 'rest and digest' response? ...
• What aspect of neurotransmitter function is crucial for regulating the autonomic nervous system? A. ...
• Where are muscarinic receptors predominantly found? A. In the heart B. In the ...
• What is the primary neurotransmitter released by the sympathetic nervous system? A. Acetylcholine ...
• The rest and digest response is primarily the function of which nervous system? A. ...
• Which nervous system is responsible for the fight-or-flight response? A. Digestive system B. ...
• Neurotransmitters function in the autonomic nervous system by: A. Directly influencing muscle contraction and ...
• Dopamine act as a A. structural protein in the brain. B. hormone in ...
• Which action is associated with sympathetic nervous activation? A. Decreased heart rate B. ...
• Which adaptive response mechanism results in cells decreasing in size? A. Atrophy B. ...
• The most abundant white blood cell is the A. eosinophil B. t lymphocyte ...
• Inflammation marked with rapid onset and short duration (days) is called A. chronic inflammation ...
• The granules in which white blood cell are responsible for secreting histamine during an inflammatory ...
• The cells responsible for developing new blood vessels during healing are called A. myofibroblasts ...
• The organelles responsible for synthesizing proteins for the cell are A. endoplasmic reticulum ...
• Which cellular response mechanism results in an increase in the number of cells? A. ...
• The evolution of a monocyte when it escapes the bloodstream that is responsible for phagocytosis ...
• One of the cardinal signs of inflammation is A. redness B. necrosis ...
• DNA is housed in the cell's A. cytoplasm B. nucleus C. Golgi apparatus ...
• The cellular component made up of a phospholipid bilayer and controls the movement of substances ...
• During acute inflammation, white blood cells A. gather in the center of the blood ...
• A form of irregular healing that results in excessive tightening of the scar and surrounding ...
• PMI is based on what? A. How much the body has heated up since ...
• Post-Mortem Interval A. The period of time between when the body dies and when ...
• Greenish lividity is caused by what? A. Carbon Monoxide Poisoning B. Hydrogen Sulfide ...
• Pink Lividity is caused by what? A. Cyanide Poisoning B. Hydrogen Sulfide Poisoning ...
• A body is found to have lividity that is bright, cherry red. What can be ...
• What is Autolysis? A. Regeneration of cells B. Self destruction of cells
• Lividity A. When the blood rushes through the body shortly after death B. ...
• What is a Namogram used for? A. Determining the size of the body ...
• How long does it take bone cells to die without oxygen? A. 3 minutes ...
• How long does it take brain cells to die without oxygen? A. 3 minutes ...
• What happens when the heart stops? A. Oxygen no longer moves through the body, ...
• Brownish Lividity is caused by what? A. Cyanide Poisoning B. Nitrate Poisoning ...
• A body is found laying face down, but has lividity on their back torso and ...
• How long does it take other major organ cells to die? A. 24 Hours ...
• After 8 hours Lividity is permanent and no longer changes A. TRUE B. ...
• Once the cells no longer get oxygen they die. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• PMI can be affected by surrounding environment and the size of the body. A. ...
• If someone died on their back and was not moved, where would LIVIDITY occur? ...
• Whitish discoloration of skin caused by applied pressure A. Blanching B. Lividity
• Blanching no longer occurs after 8 hours A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What is the main difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? A. Presence of a ...
• What is the role of the Golgi apparatus in a cell? A. DNA replication ...
• Which organelle is responsible for photosynthesis in plant cells? A. Mitochondria B. Chloroplast ...
• Which property of water allows it to dissolve many substances? A. Cohesion B. ...
• Monosaccharide (Simple sugar) is the monomer of a A. nucleic acid B. lipid ...
• How does the structure of DNA differ between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? A. Prokaryotic ...
• Identify the main structural difference between plant and animal cells. A. Plant cells have ...
• What is the primary function of ribosomes in a cell? A. Energy production ...
• Which type of macromolecule is primarily responsible for storing genetic information? A. Proteins ...
• What is the primary function of the mitochondria in a cell? A. Protein synthesis ...
• Evaluate the importance of water's cohesive and adhesive properties in the process of transpiration in ...
• Describe the role of enzymes in biochemical reactions. A. Enzymes slow down reactions. ...
• Which of the following is a monosaccharide? A. Sucrose B. Glucose C. Lactose ...
• Compare and contrast the functions of the rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum. A. Both ...
• Analyze the consequences of a malfunctioning lysosome in a eukaryotic cell. A. The cell ...
• Describe the role of the cytoskeleton in maintaining cell shape and structure. A. It ...
• Predict the effect of removing mitochondria from a eukaryotic cell. A. The cell will ...
• What is the role of the cell membrane in maintaining homeostasis? A. It controls ...
• How does the high specific heat of water benefit living organisms? A. It allows ...
• Which organelle is responsible for cellular respiration? A. Chloroplast B. Golgi apparatus ...
• What is the traditional growth media used in cellular agriculture? A. Plant-based serum ...
• What is the role of CPI Biologics in the development of RNA vaccines? A. ...
• What is the vision of CPI as described in the article? A. To create ...
• What type of meat is mentioned in the article as being produced through cellular agriculture? ...
• What is a potential benefit of oral monoclonal antibodies for inflammatory bowel disease? A. ...
• What is the primary focus of CPI's work according to the article? A. Developing ...
• What does CPI stand for in the context of the article? A. Cellular Production ...
• What is the role of Messenger RNA (mRNA)? A. It acts as an intermediate ...
• What role did CPI play in the development of the RNA vaccine in response to ...
• What is Infliximab used to treat? A. Diabetes B. Crohn's disease C. Hypertension ...
• What is the name of the eco-friendly, animal-free growth media product developed by 3D Bio-Tissues? ...
• What is the ongoing role of CPI in the context of RNA vaccine development? ...
• What is Cellular Agriculture? A. Production of animal-based products via cell culture methods instead ...
• What is the main ethical concern with using Fetal Bovine Serum in cellular agriculture? ...
• What is the primary function of traditional vaccines? A. To use large doses of ...
• What is the function of the Gastrointestinal (GI) Tract? A. It is the passageway ...
• What is the significance of the 4 litres of saRNA produced by CPI Biologics? ...
• What are Monoclonal Antibodies (mAbs)? A. A type of protein made in a lab ...
• What is a Chronic Condition? A. A disease that is long-lasting in its effects. ...
• What was the goal of CPI's collaboration with 3D Bio-Tissues? A. To develop a ...
• What is the function of Self-Amplifying RNA (saRNA)? A. It can produce more copies ...
• What is the purpose of packaging saRNA into lipid nanoparticles (LNPs)? A. To create ...
• What does an RNA vaccine contain that helps the immune system recognize and respond to ...
• Which disease is mentioned as being treated with oral monoclonal antibodies in the article? ...
• As a virus changes over time, it can affect different systems within the organism. This ...
• Why do scientists use a different system to classify viruses? A. Many scientists do ...
• What happens in the lytic cyle? A. Virus goes in and leaves the host ...
• Viruses are living organisms A. FALSE B. TRUE
• What is the purpose of a bacterium's flagellum? A. to help it move ...
• A vaccine triggers your body to produce _____________ which help fight infections. A. antibiotics ...
• Where are bacteria located? A. No where. B. Every where! C. Only in ...
• What is a host? A. An organism that eats another organism B. An ...
• Which of the following characteristics is common to both bacteria and viruses? A. Contain ...
• Why do scientists classify viruses as non-living? A. They DO respond to a stimulus ...
• Which statement about bacteria is true? A. Bacteria help you breath B. Bacteria ...
• The viruses that do not cause symptoms right away. A. active virus B. ...
• Archaea love harsh environments.  A. TRUE B. FALSE
• When a virus enters a cell and it immediately makes copies of itself this is ...
• What is the protective protein coat of a virus? A. envelope B. membrane ...
• Viruses contain genetic material either DNA or RNA A. FALSE B. TRUE
• Disease causing agents are called __________. A. Bacteria B. Microbes C. Pathogens ...
• Viruses are microscopic infectious agents that can only replicate inside a host cell A. ...
• Which is bigger, a bacteria or a virus? A. Bacteria B. Virus
• Bacteria are important to the environment because that break down waste materials. They are called ...
• Vaccines are made from A. dead or weakened viruses B. fungi C. allergens ...
• Antibiotics only work against what organisms ? A. viruses B. bacteria C. prions ...
• What happens in the lysogenic cycle?  A. Virus goes in and leaves the host ...
• What part of blood is responsible for fighting infections? A. Red Blood Cells ...
• The component of which makes chemicals known as antibodies are called? A. Red blood ...
• When your body builds a resistance to a virus, it is called an acquired ________. ...
• Cells that fight infection in our bodies. A. Plasma B. Platelets C. Red ...
• Lymph nodes contain white blood cells and lymph fluid. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• What is immunity? A. The body's ability to produce cells that inactivate foreign cells ...
• What is the body's first line (non-specific) of defense against infection by foreign organisms? ...
• When your body builds a resistance to a virus, it is called an acquired ________. ...
• What is an antigen? A. blood cell B. immunity C. foreign substance ...
• What can expand to nearly twice its size when fighting a disease? A. nose ...
• The main function of the thymus gland is to produce ________. A. blood ...
• Lymph nodes contain white blood cells and lymph fluid. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• The resistance to specific pathogens, or disease-causing agents is called _________. A. spleen ...
• What is an antigen? A. blood cell B. immunity C. foreign substance ...
• What can expand to nearly twice its size when fighting a disease? A. nose ...
• All bacteria are A. unicellular B. multicellular C. eukaryotic
• What type of cell is bacteria? A. eukaryotic B. prokaryotic C. multicellular ...
• Small organelles that turn genes into proteins A. Cytoplasm B. Plasmid C. Ribosomes ...
• True or False: Bacteria is found almost everywhere. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• What is the difference between abiotic and biotic factors? A. Abiotic factors are living, ...
• What is the job of the cell membrane in bacteria? A. Decides what enters ...
• Jelly like substance that fills the inside of the bacterial cell. A. Flagella ...
• Which is a type of bacteria? A. Salmonella B. the common cold ...
• Bacteria are prokaryotes, meaning they ________. A. lack a nucleus B. are very ...
• Whip-like tail that allows bacteria to move A. Pillus B. Flagella C. Cytoplasm ...
• Small protrusions of cell membrane around the outside of the bacterial cell that allow bacteria ...
• Which type of bacteria is responsible for causing diseases? A. Friendly bacteria B. ...
• What is the job of the cell wall in bacteria? A. To provide protection ...
• Bacterial cells reproduce by this process A. Mitosis B. Meiosis C. Binary fission ...
• What are the three main shapes of bacteria? A. squares B. circles ...
• Why are some bacteria considered extremophiles? A. They are not affected by environmental conditions ...
• Strep throat is caused by  A. bacteria B. virus C. protist D. fungi ...
• Bacterial cells are... A. Prokaryotes B. Eukaryotes
• Bacteria can become resistant to antibiotics A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Explain the role of decomposer bacteria in an ecosystem. A. Decomposer bacteria regulate the ...
• Strong outer layer that protects the bacterial cell from infection by viruses and attack from ...
• What structure is used for movement? A. ribosomes B. cytoplasm C. flagella
• True or False: Bacteria is found on our body, especially in our intestines and skin. ...
• Small circular pieces of DNA that can be shared between bacteria. A. Cytoplasm ...
• bacteria has A. no cell wall and no cell membrane B. both cell ...
• Layer outside the cell membrane that gives the bacterial cell a solid shape. A. ...
• Describe how bacteria play a role in the food chain. A. Bacteria directly consume ...
• Bacteria reproduce asexually and result in offspring that are A. identical B. different ...
• Which of the following is a true statement about bacteria? A. Bacteria exist in ...
• Is the bacterial DNA surrounded by a nucleus? A. No B. Yes ...
• What do you need to be able to see bacteria? A. Microscope B. ...
• How do bacteria contribute to the breakdown of dead organisms? A. Bacteria absorb dead ...
• At what temperature range does bacterial growth occur within the danger zone? A. 0°C ...
• What is the recommended reheating temperature? A. 63c B. above 75c C. above ...
• What is the boiling point of water? A. below -18c B. between 1 ...
• What should be done to dried pasta and rice once they are cooked? A. ...
• What is the hot holding temperature? A. below -18c B. 63c C. 5 ...
• What is the recommended freezer temperature? A. below -18c B. between 1 & ...
• What happens to bacteria at temperatures above 75°C? A. They multiply rapidly B. ...
• What is the recommended fridge temperature range? A. below -18c B. between 1 ...
• What is the boiling point of water? A. 63c B. above 75c ...
• What is a characteristic of high-risk foods? A. They require further heat treatment or ...
• What is the recommended cooking temperature? A. 63c B. above 75c C. above ...
• What is the minimum time required for bacterial growth? A. 10 minutes B. ...
• Which of the following is an example of a low-risk food? A. Cooked bacon ...
• What characteristic do low-risk foods generally have? A. High moisture content B. Low ...
• Which of the following is a condition necessary for bacterial growth? A. High acidity ...
• What is the recommended cooking temperature? A. below -18c B. between 1 & ...
• Which of the following statements about oxygen and bacterial growth is correct? A. All ...
• Which pH level is best for most types of bacteria? A. Acidic B. ...
• What is the danger zone range for temperatures? A. below -18c B. between ...
• Why is it important to handle and store high-risk foods separately from raw foods? ...
• What is the recommended reheating temperature? A. below -18c B. between 1 & ...
• Group of closely related organisms within an order A. species B. kingdom ...
• Organisms that are typically mobile and consume organic material A. family B. plantae ...
• Group within a family, consisting of species with common attributes A. kingdom B. ...
• Science of defining and naming groups of biological organisms based on shared characteristics A. ...
• Organisms whose cells have a nucleus enclosed within membranes A. kingdom B. species ...
• Category within a class, grouping organisms with similar features A. plantae B. eukarya ...
• The rank immediately below or within taxonomic ranks to provide further distinctions A. plantae ...
• Category of organisms based on major structural similarities and evolutionary history A. eukarya ...
• Most specific rank in taxonomy, a group of interbreeding organisms A. plantae B. ...
• Division of organisms in a phylum, noted for common characteristics A. class B. ...
• Highest taxonomic rank, dividing life into three groups A. family B. eukarya ...
• Use of DNA and genetic data to inform classifications and evolutionary relationships A. eukarya ...
• Organisms that carry out photosynthesis A. eukarya B. family C. kingdom D. plantae ...
• Group of organisms sharing key structural and evolutionary traits A. kingdom B. family ...
• What are organs in multicellular organisms? A. A group of cells that function together ...
• How do multicellular organisms interact with their environment? A. By ignoring it B. ...
• What are organ systems in multicellular organisms? A. Individual cells that perform a single ...
• Which type of organism is described as having single cells that manage all activities? ...
• Which of the following correctly represents the hierarchy of living things in multicellular organisms from ...
• How do individual systems in the human body improve our chances of survival? A. ...
• What will the focus be on according to the provided text? A. Cells ...
• What type of cells manage all activities in unicellular organisms? A. Multiple cells ...
• What is the correct order of the hierarchy of building blocks in multicellular organisms? ...
• Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of unicellular organisms? A. They are ...
• What do multicellular organisms use to interact with their environment? A. Their instincts ...
• Which of the following statements is true about unicellular organisms? A. They are complex ...
• Which of the following statements is true about human body systems? A. Each part ...
• What will the focus be on in the study of multicellular organisms according to the ...
• Which of the following is the correct hierarchy of living things in multicellular organisms from ...
• What is the term used to describe the stable internal body environment maintained by human ...
• What are the five senses that play an integral role in how multicellular organisms interact ...
• What is an organism in the context of multicellular organisms? A. A single cell ...
• What is a group of cells that have similar structure and function together as a ...
• What are the key building blocks of life in multicellular organisms? A. Tissues ...
• What is the main goal in life for multicellular organisms? A. To reproduce ...
• What are behavioural responses in multicellular organisms? A. Responses made by an organism that ...
• What are physiological responses in multicellular organisms? A. Responses made by an organism that ...
• What is a characteristic of multicellular organisms? A. They are simple B. They ...
• Which of the following is NOT a building block in the hierarchy of multicellular organisms? ...
• What are structural features in multicellular organisms? A. Responses made by an organism that ...
• What are the different patterns of inheritance? A. Autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X-linked dominant, ...
• How do environmental factors influence gene expression? A. Environmental factors can influence gene expression ...
• What is the shape of the DNA molecule? A. Double helix B. Square ...
• What are the ethical considerations surrounding genetic engineering? A. Safety is not a concern ...
• Explain the difference between genotype and phenotype. A. Genotype is only relevant for plants, ...
• What is gene expression? A. Gene expression is the process by which information from ...
• What is genetic engineering? A. Genetic engineering is the process of manipulating an organism's ...
• What is a Punnett square used for? A. Predicting genotypes and phenotypes of offspring ...
• What is the basic building block of DNA? A. Nucleotide B. Cell ...
• What are the four nitrogenous bases found in DNA? A. Adenine (A), Thymine (T), ...
• How can genetic engineering be used in agriculture? A. By modifying the plant's DNA ...
• What is a genetic mutation? A. A genetic mutation is a physical change in ...
• Explain the process of DNA replication. A. DNA replication involves the synthesis of proteins. ...
• What is a recessive gene? A. A recessive gene is passed down from both ...
• What is a dominant gene? A. A dominant gene is a gene that is ...
• What is the significance of the Human Genome Project? A. It discovered a new ...
• What is a codon? A. A codon is a type of fish. B. ...
• Explain the role of enzymes in DNA replication. A. Enzymes are involved in transcribing ...
• Name a type of genetic mutation and explain how it can affect an organism. ...
• When does DNA replication occur? A. During the G1 phase of mitosis B. ...
• What is the role of tRNA in protein synthesis? A. To gather a specific ...
• What are exons? A. Nonsense codes which need to be removed B. Codes ...
• What is the process called in which a working set of instructions on how to ...
• What does the promoter sequence consist of? A. Multiple 'stop' codes B. Multiple ...
• What is the function of the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) in relation to ribosomes? A. ...
• What enzyme begins transcription by attaching to the promoter sequence? A. DNA polymerase ...
• Why must transcription occur in the nucleus? A. Thymine does not form stable bonds ...
• What does each codon have a matching counterpart on? A. mRNA B. rRNA ...
• Where are ribosomes formed? A. Cytoplasm B. Nucleolus C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Golgi ...
• What are proteins used for in the body? A. Energy storage B. Structure, ...
• What is the role of helicase in DNA replication? A. It forms the DNA ...
• What are introns? A. Codes needed for protein synthesis B. Nonsense codes which ...
• Which nitrogen bases pair together in DNA? A. Adenine - Cytosine B. Thymine ...
• What is the structure of DNA often compared to? A. Ladder B. Spiral ...
• What is the process called when the mRNA travels to the rRNA and begins to ...
• In which direction does the enzyme move during DNA replication? A. From the 3’ ...
• What molecule is substituted in place of thymine during transcription? A. Adenine B. ...
• What is the transcribed message called after transcription? A. mRNA B. tRNA ...
• What is the role of transfer RNA (tRNA)? A. Binding to the mRNA message ...
• Where does the completed protein travel after the entire message is finished? A. Nucleus ...
• What is the process called where the ribosome reads the mRNA instructions to make a ...
• What is the edited message called that must leave the nucleus and travel to the ...
• What is a codon? A. A sequence of 4 letters B. A sequence ...
• What are the components of the DNA backbone? A. Phosphate and deoxyribose (sugar) ...
• What is lipolysis? A. Hydrolysis of triacylglycerol B. Formation of lipids C. Breakdown ...
• What enzyme moves carnitine back to the cytoplasm? A. Ligase B. Isomerase ...
• Approximately how many molecules of ATP can be produced from the oxidation of a 20 ...
• What is the role of L-carnitine in fatty acid metabolism? A. Facilitate the transport ...
• What is the source of NADPH required for fatty acid synthesis? A. Pentose phosphate ...
• Which of the following is not a positive regulator of acetyl CoA carboxylase? A. ...
• Acetyl-CoA are the precursors/ used for these Except A. Ketogenesis B. Fatty acid ...
• Identify the correct sequential enzymatic step for fatty acid synthesis: A. Delta-2-enoyl CoA Dehydrate, ...
• What is the fate of fatty acid entering the cells? A. Fatty acid diffuses ...
• What are ketone bodies usually synthesized from? A. Acetyl-CoA B. Pre-B cell ...
• The acetyl CoA is produced in the mitochondria and must be transported into the cytosol ...
• Name the energy source of the brain during starvation. A. Fat B. Ketone ...
• Which of the following hormone is not used in the hydrolysis of triacylglycerol into the ...
• Which of the following is the rate-limiting step of fatty acid oxidation and is also ...
• What is the basic order of events in the digestion and mobilization of dietary fats? ...
• What is the primary method to assess the quality of a protein based on its ...
• What is the primary site of protein absorption in the human digestive system? A. ...
• What is the primary function of the group of proteins classified as enzymes? A. ...
• Which type of amino acids are considered hydrophobic due to their non-polar side chains? ...
• Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down proteins into peptides in the small intestine? ...
• Which amino acid is directly involved in the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle as an intermediate? ...
• Which amino acid is known for its role in muscle protein synthesis and recovery? ...
• What is the role of heat shock proteins in cellular stress response? A. Regulation ...
• Which amino acid is both ketogenic and glucogenic? A. Leucine B. Lysine ...
• How do heat shock proteins protect cells from damage caused by high temperatures? A. ...
• What is the significance of alpha-ketoglutarate in the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle? A. Acts ...
• Which category of proteins is responsible for transporting molecules across cell membranes? A. Enzymes ...
• What is the role of the citric acid cycle in amino acid metabolism? A. ...
• Which amino acid is considered exclusively ketogenic? A. Valine B. Phenylalanie C. Leucine ...
• What is the primary role of ketogenic amino acids in metabolism? A. Energy production ...
• Which category of proteins is responsible for assisting in the refolding of denatured proteins? ...
• What is the primary function of the urea cycle? A. Convert ammonia to urea ...
• What is the role of the transamination process in amino acid metabolism? A. Converts ...
• Which food group is generally high in branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs) like leucine and valine? ...
• Which amino acid classification includes cysteine and methionine? A. Polar amino acids B. ...
• What is the role of pepsin in the process of protein digestion? A. Breaks ...
• Which amino acid is a precursor for neurotransmitters and plays a crucial role in brain ...
• What is the process that involves the removal of an amino group from an amino ...
• What is the role of citric acid in the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle? A. ...
• What is the significance of branched-chain amino acids (BCAAs) like leucine and isoleucine? A. ...
• What is the main function of the protein classification referred to as antibodies? A. ...
• Which food group is generally high in acidic amino acids like aspartic acid and glutamic ...
• Which amino acid is essential for the synthesis of proteins, antioxidants, and other sulfur-containing compounds ...
• What is the significance of sulfur-containing amino acids like cysteine and methionine? A. Associated ...
• Which amino acid classification includes histidine and lysine? A. Polar amino acids B. ...
• How do enzymes increase the rate of a chemical reaction? A. By providing additional ...
• What is the reason for the drop in enzyme activity at temperatures above the optimum? ...
• What is the key idea about the wide range of reactions catalyzed by enzymes? ...
• An enzyme is denatured when...? A. The activation energy becomes too low B. ...
• What is the term for the extra energy needed to break bonds within reactants to ...
• What theory explains the specificity of enzymes? A. Open door theory B. Lock ...
• How do enzymes catalyse substrates? A. By increasing the temperature B. By changing ...
• Why do extremes of pH cause a drop in enzyme activity? A. They increase ...
• What is the specific region on an enzyme that allows the substrate to bind? ...
• Enzymes and substrates are ... to one another A. Complimentary B. Harmonious ...
• Which of the following reactions do enzymes NOT catalyze? A. Metabolic reactions (changing molecules) ...
• What happens to enzymes at temperatures above the optimum? A. They become more stable ...
• What is the primary structure of most enzymes composed of? A. Carbohydrates B. ...
• What happens to the enzymes during a chemical reaction they catalyze? A. They are ...
• How does the active site of an enzyme facilitate the reaction? A. By providing ...
• What does the pH of a solution measure? A. The temperature B. The ...
• How do enzymes provide an alternate reaction pathway? A. By increasing the number of ...
• What happens to enzyme function at pH values away from the optimum? A. The ...
• The enzyme pepsin is produced in the: A. Small intestine B. Large intestine ...
• The purpose of the two-stage process of protein digestion is: A. To break down ...
• Where is lipase produced? A. Liver B. Small intestine C. Gall bladder ...
• The true statement about the digestion of lipids is: A. Lipids do not need ...
• Where fatty acids and glycerol get absorbed after the digestion of lipids is: A. ...
• The main purpose of the digestive process is: A. To break down large, insoluble ...
• The main region for the digestion of starch is: A. Mouth B. Stomach ...
• The enzyme responsible for the initial breakdown of proteins in the stomach is: A. ...
• The enzyme responsible for the initial breakdown of starch in the mouth is: A. ...
• The enzyme trypsin is produced in the: A. Stomach B. Pancreas C. Salivary ...
• The end product of the digestion of starch is: A. Glycerol B. Glucose ...
• The location where amino acids from protein digestion are absorbed into the body is: ...
• A positive result for a biochemical test for glucose would be: A. Add iodine, ...
• The optimum pH for the enzyme pepsin to work effectively is: A. pH 1.5 ...
• Lipid digestion occurs in: A. Pancreas B. Small intestine C. Liver D. Stomach ...
• The type of enzyme responsible for the digestion of carbohydrates is: A. Carbohydrases ...
• A positive result for a biochemical test for starch would be: A. Add iodine, ...
• A positive result for a biochemical test for protein would be: A. Add iodine, ...
• Lipids are broken down into: A. Fatty acids and glucose B. Fatty acids ...
• Proteins are broken down into: A. Amino acids B. Glucose C. Fatty acids ...
• What is osmosis? A. The movement of water from an area of low water ...
• What is the role of the active site in an enzyme? A. It binds ...
• What must the shape of the substrate match in order to fit into the enzyme? ...
• What is formed when the enzyme and substrate combine? A. Enzyme-substrate complex B. ...
• What is active transport? A. The movement of substances from a high to a ...
• What must the substrate be in relation to the enzyme's active site? A. Identical ...
• Why are enzymes specific in their action? A. Because they can bind to any ...
• What are lipids (fats) broken down into? A. Simple sugars B. Amino acids ...
• What is diffusion? A. The movement of solids from high to low concentration ...
• Which enzyme breaks down carbohydrates into simple sugars? A. Protease B. Lipase ...
• What are proteins broken down into by protease? A. Simple sugars B. Glycerol ...
• Through what type of membrane does water move during osmosis? A. Impermeable membrane ...
• Which substances move in and out of our cells through diffusion? A. Water and ...
• What are enzymes classified as? A. Chemical inhibitors B. Biological catalysts C. Physical ...
• What is a catalyst? A. A substance that slows down a reaction and is ...
• What happens to an enzyme when it reaches its optimum temperature and then the temperature ...
• What are the products in the respiration equation? A. Oxygen and Glucose B. ...
• Which process is responsible for the movement of water in and out of our cells? ...
• What is the water concentration in a concentrated solute solution? A. High water concentration ...
• What are the reactants in the respiration equation? A. Carbon Dioxide and Water ...
• At what temperature is enzyme activity in a human at its best/highest? A. 25°C ...
• What is active transport? A. The movement of substances along the concentration gradient (from ...
• What is the term used to describe the mechanism where the substrate fits into the ...
• Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down fats? A. Carbohydrase B. Protease ...
• What does it mean when an enzyme denatures? A. The enzyme becomes more active ...
• What is the water concentration in a dilute solute solution? A. High water concentration ...
• How does pH affect enzyme action? A. Enzymes denature at neutral pH B. ...
• What happens when enzymes are denatured? A. Enzymes increase in activity B. Enzymes ...
• What is the effect of substrate specificity on enzyme activity? A. Enzymes with high ...
• How does substrate concentration affect enzyme activity? A. High substrate concentration speeds up enzyme ...
• What is the role of cofactors in enzyme function? A. Cofactors inhibit enzyme activity ...
• What is the mechanism-based inhibition of penicillin? A. It inhibits the end product ...
• What type of inhibition occurs when a molecule binds to the active site of an ...
• How does enzyme concentration affect reaction rate? A. Increasing enzyme concentration decreases reaction rate ...
• How do pH and temperature interact to affect enzyme activity? A. pH and temperature ...
• How do allosteric inhibitors affect enzyme activity? A. They bind to the active site ...
• What happens when the active sites of enzymes become saturated? A. The enzyme denatures ...
• How can enzyme activity be measured in an experiment? A. By measuring the rate ...
• What is the effect of temperature on enzyme activity? A. Enzymes are not affected ...
• How do non-competitive inhibitors affect enzyme activity? A. Increase the rate of reaction ...
• What is the role of enzymes in metabolism? A. Enzymes release chemical energy as ...
• What is the purpose of increasing enzyme concentration in a reaction? A. To stabilize ...
• Which of the following is a common pathogen for gonococcal arthritis? A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae ...
• Which of the following is NOT a common pathogen for septic arthritis? A. Staphylococcus ...
• What is the best lab value to judge treatment response in septic arthritis? A. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a common site for septic bursitis? A. Prepatellar ...
• What is the typical duration for direct antibiotic therapy (ABX) after cultures and sensitivities return ...
• What is the primary method for evaluating the extent of bone destruction in osteomyelitis? ...
• What is the most common joint affected by hematogenous spread in septic arthritis? A. ...
• What is the most common pathogen associated with osteomyelitis? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. ...
• Which of the following is a risk factor for septic arthritis? A. Diabetes ...
• What is the typical WBC count range in synovial fluid for inflammatory arthritis? A. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a common presentation of osteomyelitis? A. Pain, low-grade ...
• What is a common presentation of flexor tenosynovitis? A. Tendon rupture B. Tendon ...
• Which imaging technique is helpful to assess the extent of infection in septic arthritis? ...
• Which pathogen is commonly associated with cat bites leading to septic arthritis? A. Pasteurella ...
• Which diagnostic imaging method is considered the most sensitive for identifying the extent of soft ...
• Which pathogen is commonly associated with puncture wounds and contiguous infection in infectious tenosynovitis? ...
• The combining form acr/o- in medical terminology is associated with: A. Adrenal glands ...
• The combining form crin/o- in medical terminology refers to: A. Calcium B. Excrete ...
• The combining form ket/o- refers to: A. Hormones B. Ketones C. Blood sugar ...
• The suffix -dipsia pertains to: A. Thirst B. Hunger C. Fatigue D. Urination ...
• The combining form kal/i- pertains to: A. Blood sugar B. Calcium C. Hormones ...
• The combining form aden/o- in medical terminology is associated with: A. Adrenaline B. ...
• The combining form thyr/o- in medical terminology refers to: A. Hormones B. Blood ...
• The combining form toxic/o- refers to: A. Blood sugar B. Hormones C. Poison ...
• The combining form mineral/o- in medical terminology is associated with: A. Thyroid B. ...
• The combining form adren/o- pertains to: A. Hormones B. Blood sugar C. Adrenal ...
• The combining form thym/o- is associated with: A. Thymus B. Hormones C. Calcium ...
• The suffix -tropic in medical terminology typically indicates: A. Attraction to B. Pertaining ...
• The combining form radi/o- pertains to: A. Radiation B. Hormones C. Calcium ...
• The combining form glyc/o- in medical terminology refers to: A. Sugar B. Hormones ...
• The suffix -pressin in medical terminology is associated with: A. Blood sugar B. ...
• The combining form calc/o- pertains to: A. Blood sugar B. Hormones C. Calcium ...
• The suffix -tropin is related to: A. Calcium B. Stimulate C. Blood sugar ...
• The combining form natr/o- in medical terminology is related to: A. Blood sugar ...
• The suffix -emic in medical terminology refers to: A. Pertaining to hormones B. ...
• The combining form iod/o- is associated with: A. Thyroid B. Blood sugar ...
• What part of the brain controls movement of the skeletal muscles? A. cerebellum ...
• The ______________ is the largest part of the brain A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum ...
• Homeostasis A. allows for a wildly fluctuating internal environment B. is impossible in ...
• What do Dendrites do? A. Receives information from other neurons via neurotransmitters B. ...
• A hormone is A. a chemical substance produced by a gland and carried by ...
• The main elements of the endocrine system are ______. A. The glands, hormones, and ...
• Diabetes is a disease where some mammals cannot properly regulate A. temperature B. ...
• If the environment gets cold, we will often shiver in order to: A. keep ...
• Things in the human body that need to stay the same A. Glucose ...
• A. Nucleus B. Cell Body C. ...
• What is the main function of the endocrine system? A. It creates chemicals, or ...
• Which one here reduces the amount of glucose in the blood? A. Glucagon ...
• When glucose levels in the blood rise, your brain sends a signal to your pancreas. ...
• Hormones cause specific effects by ______. A. Flooding the entire body B. Targeting ...
• Changes in chemicals, light, and sound are: A. Impulses B. Stimulus C. Receptors ...
• A. Dendrites B. Axon Terminals C. ...
• When you are hot, your body sweats to cool you down. This means your temperature ...
• Which of the following is not regulated by homeostasis? A. body temperature B. ...
• What is the point of a feedback loop? A. To provide the body with ...
• What is a synapse? A. controls movements of skeletal muscles, speech, and eyes ...
• Detects change and sends a message to the control center A. receptor B. ...
• What is a neurotransmitter? A. chemicals that transmit messages between neurons B. myelin ...
• Hormones travel through your A. blood B. bone marrow C. neurons D. brain ...
• Insulin is produced by A. the liver B. the pancreas C. the kidneys ...
• A. Frontal Lobe B. Brain Stem ...
• Which compartment of the heart receives oxygenated blood? A. Left atrium B. Right ...
• Normal blood pressure reading... A. 120/80 mmHg B. 140/90 mmHg C. 110/70 mmHg ...
• A blockage of an artery due to lipid deposits is known as... A. Arteriosclerosis ...
• The mitral valve separates the... A. left atrium from the right ventricle B. ...
• The muscular layer of the heart is known as the... A. pericardium B. ...
• Which option best describes aortic valve insufficency? A. Aortic valve insufficiency is when the ...
• Blood from the inferior and superior vena cavae enter what part of the heart? ...
• Which option best describes the location of the heart? A. In the thoracic cavity ...
• A blood vessel that carries blood AWAY from the heart A. vein B. ...
• Which option best describes mitral valve stenosis? A. Blockage of the mitral valve ...
• The top number in blood pressure represents ______ and the bottom number is ______. ...
• What is the correct movement of blood through the heart? A. Right atrium -> ...
• What is the correct order for the cardiac conduction system? A. SA node, Bundle ...
• Which artery carries deoxygenated blood? A. Carotid artery B. Coronary artery C. Pulmonary ...
• Which node is the known as the natural pacemaker of the heart? A. ventricular ...
• Which reading would be consider bradycardic? A. Less than 60 beats per minute ...
• A myocardial infarction occurs when... A. blockage in the coronary arteries B. blockage ...
• What is the function of a valve? A. Helps blood to clot B. ...
• The QRS complex of an EKG represents... A. depolarization of the ventricles B. ...
• Which lead is considered the standard limb lead for ECG? A. Lead IV ...
• What is the significance of the ST segment in an ECG? A. The ST ...
• What is the most common method of recording an ECG? A. MRI scan ...
• What metabolic process is initiated when the demand for oxygen exceeds the heart's ability to ...
• What does the T wave represent in an ECG? A. Atrial depolarization B. ...
• What is the purpose of using electrodes in ECG? A. To monitor oxygen levels ...
• What is the name of the cholesterol that circulates in the bloodstream, transporting cholesterol for ...
• What is the normal duration of the PR interval? A. 0.12 to 0.20 seconds ...
• Which type of lipoprotein is responsible for transferring excess cholesterol from peripheral tissues back to ...
• Which of the following is true about myoglobin? A. This appears slowly after myocardial ...
• What is crucial for obtaining a clear and reliable ECG signal? A. Amplifier Calibration ...
• What does the prefix ar- in arrhythmia stand for? A. Rhythm B. Heart ...
• What does angioma refer to? A. Inflammation of the inner heart lining B. ...
• Arteriosclerosis is a condition characterized by what? A. Inflammation of the heart B. ...
• What does the prefix cardi/o stand for? A. Muscle B. Vein C. Heart ...
• What is thrombosis associated with? A. Surgical removal of plaque from an artery ...
• What is the meaning of the suffix -pathy in cardiomyopathy? A. Muscle B. ...
• What is tachycardia? A. A condition with a low heart rate B. A ...
• What does endocarditis describe? A. Tumor of a blood vessel B. Inflammation of ...
• What is the purpose of an angioplasty? A. Removal of plaque from an artery ...
• The term myocarditis refers to the inflammation of what? A. Vein B. Blood ...
• What does pericarditis refer to? A. Inflammation of the surrounding lining of the heart ...
• What is the meaning of the suffix -plasty? A. Incision B. Surgical repair ...
• What does the prefix hyper- signify? A. Low B. Normal C. Excessive ...
• What is the function of a vasodilator? A. Medicine which narrows blood vessels ...
• What is cardiomyoplasty a procedure for? A. Inflammation of the heart lining B. ...
• The term phlebotomy is associated with which of the following? A. Surgical repair of ...
• What condition does hyperlipidemia refer to? A. Inflammation of the heart B. Tumor ...
• What does the term hemangioma indicate? A. Hardening of the arteries B. Inflammation ...
• What does atherectomy involve? A. Surgical repair of a blood vessel B. Inflammation ...
• What does the suffix -emia refer to? A. Muscle B. Heart C. Inflammation ...
• What does thrombophlebitis involve? A. Inflammation of a muscle associated with a blood clot ...
• TEE is ? A. Transluminal echocardiogram B. Transesophageal echocardiogram C. Transesophageal endocardium
• Ventricular Fibrillation is ? A. Narrowing of the ventricles B. Abnormal heart rhythm ...
• An aneurysm is ? A. Abnormal widening of blood vessel B. Abnormal narrowing ...
• Myocarditis is ? A. Inflammation of the heart B. Inflammation surrounding the heart ...
• Aortic Insufficiency is ? A. Aortic valve fails to close completely to seal ...
• Arrhythmia is ? A. An abnormal rhythm of the heart B. A normal ...
• Pericarditis is ? A. Inflammation surrounding the heart B. Inflammation of the heart ...
• An ultrasound of the heart is ? A. Cardiography B. Echocardiogram
• Cardiomyopathy is ? A. A disease of the lung muscle B. A disease ...
• Lucy was doing activities of daily living. Suddenly, she felt her rhythm of the heart ...
• Angioplasty is ? A. Surgical repair of the blood vessels B. Surgical repair ...
• Thickening or hardening of the blood vessel A. Arteriosclerosis B. Atherosclerosis
• Angiocardiography is ? A. X-ray examination of the heart and blood vessels B. ...
• Stenosis is ? A. Narrowing of the blood vessels B. Narrowing of any ...
• Irregular heart rhythm in the upper chambers and lower chambers of the heart beats irregularly ...
• MI stands for ? A. Mumbai Indians B. Myocardial Infarction C. Myocardial Infection ...
• Bradycardia is ? A. Fast heart beat B. Slow heart beat
• Aortic Stenosis is ? A. narrowing of the aortic valve B. narrowing of ...
• Thrombosis is ? A. A blockage B. A narrowing
• Tachycardia is ? A. Fast heart beat B. Slow heart beat
• What is the result of changing the atrioventricular time interval from 100 ms to 180 ...
• What is shown in the parasternal short-axis views in the image? A. LV at ...
• Which of the following is a Doppler change associated with acute rejection? A. Increased ...
• Which of the following is a result of chronic pressure overload in Pulmonary Heart Disease? ...
• What can result from excessively high flow rates in LVADs? A. Decreased blood pressure ...
• What is a chronic cause of Pulmonary Heart Disease? A. Pulmonary emboli B. ...
• What is the outcome of reverse remodelling following CRT as depicted in the image? ...
• What is the response of the right ventricle (RV) to chronic pressure overload? A. ...
• What is considered more accurate for the patient population with post-transplant coronary artery disease? ...
• What does Moderate to Severe TR refer to in the context of chronic pressure overload? ...
• What is an indicator of severe acute transplant rejection? A. Decreased LV mass ...
• For which patients is CRT pacing (CRT-P) recommended? A. Patients with heart failure and ...
• What is observed in the septum during M-mode and 2D imaging in the case of ...
• Which imaging technique is mentioned as having limited views for visualizing the RA and LA ...
• What is a compensatory mechanism to maintain forward stroke volume in the context of RV ...
• What does the Doppler velocity curve indicate about the flow in the context of pulmonary ...
• What does M-mode recording through the pulmonic valve show as an indirect sign of pulmonary ...
• What does RA enlargement stand for in the context of Pulmonary Heart Disease? A. ...
• Secondary tricuspid regurgitation is a result of which type of overload? A. Pressure overload ...
• What does the abbreviation RVSP stand for, as used in the context of the image? ...
• Into which part of the heart is the blood pumped back? A. The right ...
• What is a compensatory mechanism of the right ventricle (RV) in response to chronic pressure ...
• Which of the following is consistent with severe pulmonary hypertension as indicated by the Doppler ...
• What is the consequence of chronic pressure overload on the right ventricle's systolic function? ...
• If the IVC diameter is dilated (>2.1 cm) and decreases less than 50% with a ...
• What cardiac phase is represented in the left image of the ultrasound? A. Systole ...
• What leads to tricuspid regurgitation in the context of RV dilation? A. Annular dilation ...
• Where is the blood taken into the device from? A. The descending aorta ...
• What is the purpose of CRT pacing (CRT-P) devices? A. To decrease cardiac function ...
• According to the ASE Guidelines, what is the estimated RA pressure if the IVC diameter ...
• What does CRT stand for in the context of the provided material? A. Cardiac ...
• What does PASP stand for in the context of pulmonary pressures? A. Pulmonary artery ...
• What does the abbreviation RAP stand for, as used in the context of the image? ...
• Where are the leads of a CRT device placed? A. RA, RV, and LV ...
• During the cardiac cycle, what may happen to the aortic valve as a result of ...
• What cardiac phase is represented in the right image of the ultrasound? A. Systole ...
• What type of flow do current devices provide according to the text? A. Pulsatile ...
• What is a consequence of atrioventricular (AV) dyssynchrony? A. Increased left ventricular ejection fraction ...
• What can occur with long-standing or acute pulmonary hypertension? A. RV systolic improvement ...
• LVADs may also be used for: A. Short-term support only B. Long-term support ...
• What is typically observed in intraventricular dyssynchrony? A. Increased systolic function B. Normal ...
• Which of the following complications can be detected in patients with an LVAD? A. ...
• What is a characteristic feature of the bi-atrial technique in cardiac transplant as seen on ...
• What is the primary use of LVADs in patients with acute heart failure? A. ...
• What is one of the goals of echocardiographic evaluation after cardiac transplantation? A. Assessment ...
• How does transplant coronary disease differ from typical atherosclerosis? A. It is less severe. ...
• What is an acute cause of Pulmonary Heart Disease? A. Primary pulmonary hypertension ...
• What can be evaluated using M-mode or spectral Doppler approaches according to the image? ...
• In which view is the right ventricular overload best seen? A. Apical four-chamber view ...
• How is RV volume overload characterized in diastole? A. Diastolic flattening of the septum ...
• What is the result of chronic pressure overload on the size of the right atrium ...
• Why is echocardiographic evaluation of patients with a total artificial heart limited? A. The ...
• Interventricular dyssynchrony is associated with which condition? A. Right bundle branch block (RBBB) ...
• Which condition is indicated by the presence of a mid-systolic notch in the PR flow ...
• What may be needed for a definitive diagnosis of post-transplant coronary artery disease? A. ...
• What is the formula for estimating PASP? A. PASP = RVSP + RAP ...
• What is the significance of the discovery of X-rays? A. X-rays have significant importance ...
• Who is known for the development of the first successful smallpox vaccine? A. Edward ...
• Who discovered the circulation of blood in the human body? A. Isaac Newton ...
• Which disease was the first to be eradicated through vaccination? A. polio B. ...
• Who is credited with the discovery of the first antibiotic, penicillin? A. Alexander Fleming ...
• What is the placebo effect? A. The placebo effect is caused by the patient's ...
• What is the purpose of the stethoscope? A. To check body temperature B. ...
• Who discovered penicillin? A. Alexander Fleming B. Albert Einstein C. Isaac Newton ...
• What is the Hippocratic Oath? A. The Hippocratic Oath is a type of ancient ...
• What is Florence Nightingale known for? A. Invented the stethoscope B. Discovered penicillin ...
• What is the purpose of the MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging) scan? A. To measure ...
• What is the significance of the discovery of X-rays? A. X-rays have significant importance ...
• What is the primary function of red blood cells? A. Transporting oxygen to body ...
• Who is known as the father of modern medicine? A. Newton B. Aristotle ...
• What is the primary function of white blood cells? A. Transporting oxygen to body ...
• What is the Hippocratic Oath? A. The Hippocratic Oath is a type of ancient ...
• Who is known for developing the first successful polio vaccine? A. Jonas Salk ...
• Who is known for the discovery of penicillin? A. Alexander Fleming B. Albert ...
• What year was the first successful human heart transplant performed? A. 1980 B. ...
• What is the primary function of platelets in the blood? A. Transporting oxygen to ...
• Who is credited with the discovery of the structure of DNA? A. Marie Curie ...
• Who is credited with the discovery of the structure of DNA? A. Marie Curie ...
• What is the importance of the discovery of anesthesia? A. The discovery of anesthesia ...
• Who is known for the development of the first successful rabies vaccine? A. Edward ...
• What is the purpose of the ECG (Electrocardiogram) test? A. To measure blood pressure ...
• If your patient shows up with cyanosis, this means: A. They are pink ...
• If a patient's bloodwork showed a decrease in K+, which of the following is the ...
• Cryotherapy would be what type of therapy? A. Hot B. Warm C. Cold ...
• The parathyroid gland would be _______ to the thyroid gland. A. on top of ...
• Your patient has elevated erythrocytes and leukocytes. This means: A. They have an increased ...
• Dent/o and dont/o both refer to: A. Head B. Bones C. Teeth ...
• Mr. Jones has arrived for this arthroscopy appointment. What are we doing for him today? ...
• Intracellular fluid is found where: A. Between two cells B. Around the outside ...
• If a patient has hemialgia, what is going on? A. They have pain in ...
• If a patient had an OS injury, where is this injury located? A. Both ...
• What is a hematoma? A. A blood tumor B. A swelling of blood ...
• What are this person's credentials? Cameron Martinez, DO, DVM, MPH A. Medical Doctor, ...
• Your patient has arrived for their patellectomy today. What is this procedure? A. Full ...
• Which of the following best describes cardiomegaly? A. The patient has heart inflammation ...
• The unit of measurement for blood pressure is: A. mmCO2 B. mmCa++ ...
• What is the BEST option to treat a patient with Hyperthermia? A. Wrap them ...
• If a medication was to be given PRN, this means: A. It's given as ...
• Which of the following means: Inflammation around the heart? A. Endocarditis B. Pericarditis ...
• Roman numeral for 50 would be: A. I B. V C. X ...
• A patient with osteomalacia suffers from: A. Very hard bones B. Lack of ...
• The prescription label states: 3 gtt OU TID for 1 week. How do you explain ...
• This picture shows an example of pitting edema. What ...
• Which of the following describes a myosteoma? A. A bony growth/tumor found in muscle ...
• The WHO is on the ground in China helping with coronavirus (COVID-19) cases. WHO is: ...
• Which of the following best describes: slow heart rate? A. Brachycardia B. Tachycardia ...
• During a biology lab dissection, which structure would you find on the posterior surface of ...
• Which of the following is a feature of the floor of the fourth ventricle? ...
• What is the function of the vagal trigone in the brain? A. Respiratory control ...
• Which of the following structures is NOT a part of the hindbrain? A. Cerebrum ...
• In a science class, the teacher asked the students, 'The cerebral Aqueduct connects …………' ...
• In a medical emergency, which part of the spinal cord is responsible for controlling autonomic ...
• During a neuroanatomy lecture, the professor challenged the students to identify the nuclei found within ...
• Which of the following is NOT a feature of the layout of a new office? ...
• Regarding the spinal nerves, all the following are true, Except: A. There are 31 ...
• Which structure is responsible for visual processing in the midbrain? A. Superior colliculus ...
• Which of the following is NOT a part of the cerebellum? A. Anterior lobe ...
• Regarding the cerebellum, all the following are true, Except: A. Formed of 2 hemispheres ...
• What is the function of the superior colliculus in the midbrain? A. Visual processing ...
• What is the common symptom of Atrophy? A. Shows obvious deformity with severe pain ...
• What is the common symptom of Arthritis? A. Shows obvious deformity with severe pain ...
• Which condition is characterized by limited extension of the elbow? A. Dislocated shoulder ...
• What is a big sign of joint disease that affects both active and passive movements? ...
• What is a common symptom of Epicondylitis (Tennis Elbow)? A. Shows obvious deformity with ...
• When does Fracture typically occur? A. As cramping or aching B. Later in ...
• Which condition is associated with loss of muscle mass due to lack of fullness around ...
• When is Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) typically worse? A. As cramping or aching B. ...
• Which condition is characterized by pain along flexor and extensor tendons of elbow joint with ...
• Which condition is characterized by the Glenohumeral moving out of its normal position? A. ...
• What is a common symptom of Arthritis? A. Shows obvious deformity with severe pain ...
• Which type of joints do not have any mobility? A. Synovial joints B. ...
• What is the function of the femur in the human body? A. Protects our ...
• What is the function of the spine in the skeletal system? A. Protects our ...
• Which type of muscles move without us realizing? A. Voluntary muscles B. Involuntary ...
• Which organ is considered an involuntary muscle? A. Quadriceps B. Heart C. Hamstrings ...
• What is the function of the ribs in the skeletal system? A. Protects our ...
• What is the longest bone in the human body? A. Tibia B. Femur ...
• How many bones are there in the human body? A. 106 bones B. ...
• Which system is responsible for allowing us to move around? A. Nervous system ...
• What is the function of the jaw in the skeletal system? A. Protects our ...
• How many muscles do humans approximately have? A. 450 muscles B. 1000 muscles ...
• How are bones joined with each other in the human body? A. Through tendons ...
• How are muscles joined to bones in the human body? A. Through cartilage ...
• Which type of muscles move only when we want them to? A. Cardiac muscles ...
• These muscles allow the heart to contract allowing blood to circulate. A. smooth muscles ...
• Where red blood cells produced... A. skin B. bones C. muscle
• Skeletal muscles are attached to bones with ______________. A. tendons B. ligaments ...
• What is the place where two bones meet? A. hinge B. bone ...
• Biceps and triceps are the long muscles in the arm. A. TRUE B. ...
• Which type of muscle tissue are voluntary? A. Cardiac B. Skeletal C. Smooth ...
• The skeletal system does all of the following EXCEPT A. produces red blood cells ...
• Voluntary muscle is... A. muscle that has to be told when to move ...
• These joints allow rotation movement. This is also the joint where two bones of lower ...
• These muscles are considered involuntary, they cannot be controlled consciously. They are present in the ...
• The smooth muscle is located  A. In the heart  B. Bones  C. Head  ...
• These muscles make up the large part of the arms, legs, abdomen and chest. ...
• The cardiac muscle is  A. Voluntary  B. Involuntary 
• It is composed mainly of the skeleton and the different types of the muscles such ...
• The skeleton DOES NOT serve as the framework of the body and it provides PROTECTION ...
• These joints allow side to side and back and forth movement. These joints are present ...
• The bone marrow is where hemtopoiesis happens. It is the process by which blood cells ...
• Which muscles are involuntary? A. skeletal and smooth B. cardiac and skeletal ...
• What are the 3 types of muscle tissue? A. Thigh, Calf, & Shoulder ...
• Your nose is made of a flexible tissue called______. A. Cartiladge B. Spongy ...
• Muscle always work ___________ A. in pairs. B. alone. C. in groups of ...
• The musculoskeletal stores important minerals like calcium. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What are bones used for? A. support, protection, digestion, shape B. support, movement, ...
• These joints allow movement in one direction. These joints are present in the elbow and ...
• When you press on to the cord at the back of your ankle, you will ...
• The cardiac muscles present in the heart help the heart beats by producing electrical impulses. ...
• The muscles that compose the blood vessels and the digestive tract are made up of ...
• These joints allow movement in all directions. The joints in shoulder and hip have these. ...
• These joints are fixed. They do not allow movement. A. immovable joint B. ...
• This bone protects the brain. A. rib cage B. skull
• In human skeleton, regions where two bones meet are known as ________. A. bone ...
• Tough tissue that holds bone to bone... A. ligaments B. joint C. tendon ...
• Which is not a function of musculoskeletal system? A. It gives the body its ...
• What is the primary source of ATP for muscle contraction? A. All of the ...
• What is the effect of muscle stretching on the number of cross-bridges formed during contraction? ...
• What happens to the force generated by eccentric contractions compared to concentric contractions? A. ...
• What is the role of the length-tension relationship in muscle contraction efficiency? A. Determines ...
• What is the role of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells? A. Store and ...
• Which component is responsible for the transmission of nerve impulses across the neuromuscular junction? ...
• Which type of muscle contraction causes the muscle fiber to shorten? A. Isometric Contraction ...
• What is the primary function of the transverse tubules in muscle cells? A. Store ...
• What is the term used to describe the relationship between force and fiber length in ...
• Which theory explains the muscle contraction process through the interaction of Actin and Myosin? ...
• What is the function of the neuromuscular junction in muscle contraction? A. Release calcium ...
• What is the role of the H-zone in muscle contraction? A. Anchor myosin to ...
• What is the hierarchical structure of skeletal muscle composed of? A. Tropomyosin, Calcium, ATP ...
• Which type of muscle contraction causes the muscle fiber to lengthen? A. Isometric Contraction ...
• What is the basic functional unit for force production in a muscle fiber? A. ...
• How does the recruitment of motor units affect muscle force production? A. Increases muscle ...
• What is the primary function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells? A. Store ...
• What is the function of the binding site where myosin binds to actin? A. ...
• What is the effect of temperature on muscle contraction efficiency? A. Decreases force production ...
• What is the role of the M-line in muscle contraction? A. Initiate muscle relaxation ...
• Which type of muscle fibers are fatigue-resistant and are found in postural muscles? A. ...
• What is the role of calcium ions in muscle contraction? A. Initiate muscle relaxation ...
• What is the primary function of the sliding filament theory in muscle action? A. ...
• What is the role of Tropomyosin and Troponin in muscle contraction? A. Release of ...
• What is the primary function of the Z-disc in muscle contraction? A. Anchor myosin ...
• What is the primary function of the transverse tubules in muscle cells? A. Store ...
• What is the term used to describe the relationship between force and fiber length in ...
• What is the hierarchical structure of skeletal muscle composed of? A. Tropomyosin, Calcium, ATP ...
• What is the term used to describe the relationship between force and fiber length in ...
• Which factor determines the mechanical behavior and force generation of a muscle? A. Physiology ...
• In a typical myotactic monosynaptic reflex arc, how many neurons are involved? A. One ...
• Which brain regions are key components of the descending central nervous system (CNS) pathway of ...
• Damage to the rubrospinal tract may result in impairments in which aspect of motor control? ...
• Which part of the basal ganglia is primarily affected in Huntington's disease, resulting in the ...
• Which of the following best describes ephaptic transmission in the context of neuropathy? A. ...
• Which neurotransmitter deficiency is primarily associated with Parkinson's disease? A. Acetylcholine B. Dopamine ...
• Which of the following represents the correct sequence of processes involved in the motor system, ...
• Which of the following areas of the body is most likely to experience deep pain? ...
• Which descending pathway of the medial activation system is primarily responsible for facilitating head movements ...
• Which structure is considered the main input nucleus of the basal ganglia, receiving input primarily ...
• Which muscle type has smaller motor units? A. Skeletal muscles involved in fine motor ...
• Which of the following is an example of a spinal reflex arc? A. Reacting ...
• Which is the primary function of the lateral activation system in the central nervous system? ...
• What distinguishes pain from nociception? A. Pain involves only sensory processing, while nociception involves ...
• Lower Motor neurons (LMNs) that innervate extrafusal muscle fibers responsible for muscle contraction are primarily: ...
• Which component of the nervous system acts as the gate in the gate control theory ...
• Which of the following best describes the characteristics duration of acute pain? A. Lasting ...
• What is the primary function of the premotor cortex? A. Regulation of basic motor ...
• Which of the following statements accurately describes the organization of lower motor neurons (LMNs) in ...
• Which cell type is primarily found in the cerebellar cortex and forms the main processing ...
• The direct pathway of the basal ganglia involves the activation of which structure? A. ...
• Which of the following best describes a difference between upper motor neurons (UMNs) and lower ...
• What role does fiber type play in determining the localization of pain sensation? A. ...
• Superficial pain is primarily sensed by which type of nociceptors? A. A-delta fibers ...
• Which type of nerve fibers are often involved in transmitting neuropathic pain signals from ectopic ...
• Which descending pathway primarily serves as an output pathway of the spinocerebellum, influencing motor coordination ...
• Which type of pain pathway typically transmits sharp, localized pain signals rapidly to the brain? ...
• Which brain structures are primarily involved in motor adjustment? A. Cerebellum and basal nuclei ...
• Which of the following best describes the primary function of the LAS compared to the ...
• Which of the following areas is NOT commonly associated with referred pain from a myocardial ...
• What is the principal role of granule cells in the cerebellum? A. Integrating motor ...
• The cerebrocerebellum module is associated with: A. Regulation of balance and equilibrium B. ...
• Which of the following structures is NOT part of the basal ganglia? A. Putamen ...
• Based on the evidence provided in the recordings from the PC neuron and SOM-IN, what ...
• Nerve impulses travel from the retina, down the optic nerve, to the visual cortex of ...
• Identify the following medical imaging technique that uses x-ray technology. A. Magnetic resonance imaging ...
• When the membrane potential of a neuron is at resting state, which ion has the ...
• The neurologist wanted to determine if the occlusion identified in the left optic nerve (white ...
• Baclofen acts on GABA receptors. Which of the following is TRUE regarding GABA receptors? ...
• The axon of the interneuron (SOM-IN) can be visualized above. What type of synapse is ...
• Which of the following statement would correspond to an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)? A. ...
• Multiple Sclerosis is an autoimmune neurogenerative disease that primarily targets which cell type? A. ...
• Which statement is FALSE regarding the function of an astrocyte? A. Astrocytes assist in ...
• Identify the clinical approach discussed in class that captures the fastest spatial resolution of brain ...
• Which of the following levels of organization occur from the smallest to the largest? ...
• With a sharp intracellular electrode, you record the response below (left). Answer the questions below ...
• In the recording from the SOM-IN neuron, what does the downward deflection represent? A. ...
• Identify the statement about neuron structure or function that is FALSE. A. Microtubules in ...
• The equilibrium, or Nernst, potential for sodium in a typical neuron is around what voltage? ...
• What type of an anatomical section is presented in the ...
• Which of the following uses the ligand gated ion channels. A. Photons of light ...
• You now want to determine if there are voltage-gated potassium channels functioning in your unidentified ...
• Which of the following is an example of monoamine type of neurotransmitter? A. Nitric ...
• During neurotransmission, which of the following proteins interact with the SNARE complex and bind calcium ...
• Identify the component that contributes to the barrier function of the blood brain barrier (BBB). ...
• Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the membrane potential of a neuron? ...
• Identify which following statement is TRUE. A. Astrocytes and neurons both originate from a ...
• Circled in white is the optic chiasm, where the ...
• Synaptic facilitation occurs __________. A. at axo-dendritic synapses when EPSPs increase the influx of ...
• You add TTX to determine the effect on the generated action potential. What is the ...
• Which of the following is a limitation to fMRI technology? A. x-ray exposure ...
• Subthreshold depolarizations in the membrane potential that do not activate voltage gated sodium channels are ...
• What is the disadvantage of using a walker? A. Allows normal gait pattern ...
• What is the disadvantage of using crutches? A. Allows normal gait pattern B. ...
• Which gait pattern is used when there is a lack of coordination and muscle weakness ...
• What is the advantage of using a walker? A. Allows normal gait pattern ...
• Which gait pattern requires good balance to achieve? A. Three-point gait B. Four-point ...
• What is the measurement for adjusting the height of forearm crutches? A. Cover the ...
• What is the purpose of assistive gait devices? A. To limit mobility B. ...
• Which assistive device is the most stable according to the text? A. Parallel bars ...
• What is the purpose of forearm crutches? A. To limit mobility B. To ...
• What is the purpose of gutter crutches? A. Used for patients with neurological deficit ...
• Which assistive gait device provides the greatest amount of support? A. Walkers B. ...
• What muscles need strengthening in preparation for crutch walking? A. Latissimus dorsi, Triceps, Biceps ...
• What is the measurement for adjusting the height of parallel bars? A. Provide 15 ...
• Which gait pattern is used when one lower extremity is unable to fully bear weight? ...
• What is the advantage of using crutches? A. Difficulty in stair use B. ...
• Which of the following would be the MOST APPROPRIATE maintenance fluid rate to use for ...
• A Hypertonic solution will: A. Help to draw water into the intravascular space​ ...
• Which of the following is an example of a hypotonic crystalloid solution? A. 0.9% ...
• When calculating fluid losses in weight : ie. weighing wet bedding. Which is the correct ...
• Oncotic pressure is: A. Movement of fluid 'water' through a semi permeable membrane ...
• An isotonic crystalloid solution will: A. Raise intravascular volume without altering fluid shifts in ...
• In which of the following cases might a hypertonic solution be appropriate to use? ...
• The main anion of extracellular fluid is: A. Potassium B. Phosphate C. Sodium ...
• Which synthetic colloid is most likely to cause anaphylactic shock? A. Gelatin colloids ...
• What is the correct fluid replacement calculation to use when a patient has episodes of ...
• What is the normal blood PH for a canine or feline? A. 7 ...
• Which of the following is a natural colloid? A. Dextrans B. Dextrans ...
• Metabolic acidosis can be caused by which condition? A. Chronic diarrhoea B. Chronic ...
• If a hypotonic solution is given to a patient fluid will move: A. Fluid ...
• The main anion of intracellular fluid is: A. Chloride B. Sodium C. Phosphate ...
• What does PICC stand for? A. Peripheral Indwelling Complex Catheter B. Peripheral Internal ...
• A small water-soluble particle carrying a negative charge is termed? A. Anion B. ...
• When using a PCV to calculate fluid loss, for every 1% increase in the PCV ...
• What is the preferred method of permanent vascular access for hemodialysis? A. Femoral vein ...
• What is a common complication experienced during hemodialysis? A. Hypertension B. Fluid overload ...
• What is the main function of hemodialysis? A. Maintain electrolyte balance B. Regulate ...
• What is the purpose of a dialyzer in hemodialysis? A. To regulate fluid balance ...
• What is a dietary consideration for patients on dialysis? A. Low sodium intake ...
• How are toxins and wastes removed in hemodialysis? A. By filtration B. By ...
• What is the content of the dialysate solution used in hemodialysis? A. Water and ...
• What are the main renal replacement therapies? A. Hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis B. ...

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