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• Describe the process of inhalation and exhalation in humans. A. During inhalation, the chest ...
• How does the structure of the leaf in plants facilitate gaseous exchange? A. Through ...
• Explain the role of mitochondria in cellular respiration. A. Mitochondria release oxygen through the ...
• What are the end products of anaerobic respiration in animals? A. proteins and fats ...
• What is anaerobic respiration and give an example of it. A. Anaerobic respiration is ...
• What are the effects of lack of oxygen on the human body? A. Increased ...
• What is the job of the cell membrane in bacteria? A. Decides what enters ...
• True or False: Bacteria is found on our body, especially in our intestines and ...
• What structure is used for movement? A. ribosomes B. cytoplasm C. flagella ...
• Many prokaryotes have an extra layer outside the cell wall called a capsule. A. ...
• Light energy is captured by phototrophic organisms and converted to chemical energy. A. TRUE ...
• True or False: Bacteria is found almost everywhere. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• bacteria has A. no cell wall and no cell membrane B. both ...
• A prokaryote living in the deep sea where there is no sunlight but many chemical ...
• Which cells possess a single, or a few, flagellum to assist with movement? A. ...
• What is the job of the cell wall in bacteria? A. To provide protection ...
• Which type of organism uses carbon dioxide as their only or main source of carbon. ...
• Cell walls do not provide strength and rigidity to the cell. A. TRUE ...
• What type of bacteria are able to undergo photosynthesis? A. Chemoheterotrophs B. ...
• Proteins are made in which prokaryotic organelle? A. endospores B. plasmids C. ...
• Many prokaryotes have one or more flagella, which spin around their bases. A. TRUE ...
• All bacteria are A. unicellular B. multicellular C. eukaryotic
• Photoautotrophs are capable of converting ___ energy into chemical energy. A. electrical B. ...
• What type of cell is bacteria? A. eukaryotic B. prokaryotic C. multicellular ...
• Scientist drop sugar into a water solution. Overtime the ...
• What is called when a cell has an even amount of water movement in and ...
• The cell membrane is composed of many substances but also able to maintain its fluidity ...
• Name one type of facilitated diffusions that cells. A. Exocytosis B. Channel-mediated diffusion ...
• The picture shows a solution of sugar and water ...
• A cell enters a sucrose solution with a concentration of .10 M. The cell's sucrose ...
• The cell membrane is an important factor for the cell to maintain homeostasis. This is ...
• Hole like structures in the cell wall filled with cytosol that connect adjacent cells & ...
• The cell membrane is often called a mosaic model. What are the reasons they call ...
• A cell needs to intake substances to maintain function. This commonly known as endocytosis. There ...
• What type of carbohydrate is in this image. ...
• A cell is engulfing large amounts of substances through vesicles. It uses energy for it ...
• A cell is trying to move in a charged large molecule through the cell. What ...
• A cell is removing large amounts of substances out of the cell through a transport ...
• Scientists think it due to it energy making organelle not functioning properly. What will happen ...
• A cell enters a sucrose solution with a concentration of .10 M. The cell's sucrose ...
• A plant cell with a sucrose concentration of .9 M of sucrose is put into ...
• A cell membrane is usually able to maintain fluidity even in cold temperature. Scientists found ...
• The cell is seen having trouble with cell to cell recognition . Scientists think it ...
• Which of the following is a characteristic of eukaryotic cells? A. They lack a ...
• Which structure is NOT found in animal cells? A. Mitochondria B. Chloroplasts ...
• Which organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell? A. Nucleus ...
• Which of the following is NOT a function of the cell nucleus? A. Storing ...
• Which statement is part of the cell theory? A. All living things are made ...
• What is the primary component of the cell membrane? A. Nucleic acids ...
• Which of the following is a function of the cell wall in plant cells? ...
• What is the function of the endoplasmic reticulum? A. To package DNA ...
• What is the main function of the cell membrane? A. To control what enters ...
• Which of the following is NOT a principle of the cell theory? A. All ...
• What is the function of the Golgi apparatus? A. To produce energy ...
• What is the main difference between plant and animal cells? A. Animal cells have ...
• What is the primary difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? A. Eukaryotic cells are ...
• What is the role of ribosomes in a cell? A. To produce lipids ...
• Which organelle is responsible for detoxifying harmful substances in the cell? A. Lysosome ...
• Which of the following is a product of photosynthesis? A. Carbon dioxide B. ...
• What is osmosis? A. The diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane ...
• Which of the following best describes the process of fermentation? A. The breakdown of ...
• What is the end product of glycolysis? A. Glucose B. Oxygen C. ...
• During which process do plants convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen? ...
• In which part of the cell does glycolysis occur? A. Mitochondria B. Cytoplasm ...
• What is facilitated diffusion? A. Movement of molecules against their concentration gradient with the ...
• What does equilibrium in cellular transport mean? A. The cell has used all its ...
• What is the role of the sodium-potassium pump in cellular transport? A. To facilitate ...
• Which of the following processes requires energy input to move molecules against their concentration gradient? ...
• What is the main purpose of cellular respiration? A. To produce oxygen ...
• What is the process by which molecules spread from areas of high concentration to areas ...
• What is the primary function of the ATP molecule in cellular activities? A. To ...
• Which process does not directly require oxygen? A. Cellular respiration B. Glycolysis ...
• What is the main difference between passive transport and active transport? A. Passive transport ...
• List the following from largest to smallest: Gene, Eukaryotic Cell, Prokaryotic Cell, Virus A. ...
• What is the primary function of stem cells in the human body? A. To ...
• Why might stem cell research lead to a cure for diabetes? A. Stem cells ...
• Describe the function of the vacuole. A. To synthesize proteins B. To store ...
• What is the function of a cell surface identify ...
• Contrast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. A. Eukaryotic cells have flagella; Prokaryotic cells do not ...
• Describe the function of the mitochondria. A. To synthesize proteins B. To store ...
• Which component of a red blood cell is responsible for carrying oxygen? A. hemoglobin ...
• What organelles are found in plant cells but not in animal cells? A. Ribosomes ...
• What type of human cell ejects its nucleus when it reaches maturity? A. nerve ...
• The cell membrane is selectively permeable, which means... ...
• Describe and diagram the relationship between mitochondria and chloroplast. A. They are unrelated organelles ...
• Describe the function of ribosomes. A. To store water and nutrients B. To ...
• What is the purpose of chlorophyll in the chloroplast? A. To store genetic information ...
• What are the functions of the nucleus? A. Protein synthesis B. Photosynthesis ...
• What organelles are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? A. Nucleus and mitochondria ...
• What organelles are found in animal cells but not in plant cells? A. Lysosomes ...
• What is the advantage of the cristae in the mitochondria? A. Storage of genetic ...
• What are the components of the cell membrane? A. Phospholipids and proteins B. ...
• Describe the function of the cell wall. What organic compound is used to construct cell ...
• How is genetic information stored in prokaryotic cells? A. In the nucleus B. ...
• Which enzyme unwinds the DNA double helix by breaking hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs? ...
• What is the function of RNA Polymerase in gene expression? A. Relieves the torsional ...
• Which enzyme fills in the gaps left after primer removal in DNA replication? A. ...
• Which enzyme is responsible for attaching the correct amino acid to its corresponding tRNA molecule? ...
• Which enzyme initiates and catalyzes the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template? A. ...
• What is the function of DNA Polymerase II in DNA replication? A. Removes RNA ...
• What is the function of Topoisomerase in DNA replication? A. Seals the nicks between ...
• Which enzyme relieves the torsional strain generated during the unwinding of the DNA double helix ...
• Which enzyme seals the nicks or gaps between the Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand? ...
• Which enzyme adds nucleotides in a 5' to 3' direction during DNA replication? A. ...
• Which enzyme catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids during translation? A. ...
• What is the function of Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases in protein synthesis? A. Unwinding the DNA ...
• Which enzyme synthesizes short RNA primers complementary to the DNA template? A. Primase ...
• What is the function of Single-Stranded Binding Proteins (SSBs) in DNA replication? A. Seals ...
• What is the function of DNA Polymerase I in DNA replication? A. Stabilizes the ...
• From where do human beings derive their energy? A. Sunlight B. Air ...
• What is the energy balance if energy intake is greater than energy expenditure over time? ...
• What does the term 'phototroph' mean? A. Soil nourishment B. Air nourishment ...
• What is the requirement of all metabolic processes? A. Water B. Energy ...
• What is the driving energy for metabolic processes referred to as? A. Potential energy ...
• What is the energy balance if energy intake is less than energy expenditure over time? ...
• What is the relationship between energy intake and energy expenditure if they are equal? ...
• What is the unit of energy used in the text? A. Liters ...
• What is the outcome if energy expenditure is greater than energy intake over time? ...
• What is the outcome if energy intake is greater than energy expenditure over time? ...
• How many kilocalories does an average adult man require per day? A. 2000 ...
• What is the sum total of all the chemical reactions in the body called? ...
• What is the energy balance if energy intake is equal to energy expenditure over time? ...
• Where does a plant derive its energy from? A. Sunlight B. Water ...
• What is the term for an organism that derives nourishment from something other than the ...
• Which is correct? A. deoxyribonucleic acid ...
• Which of the following is a polymer? A. glucose B. methane C. ...
• Water is an inorganic molecule. A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What am I? I am comprised of C, H, ...
• An example of a protein is A. sugar B. fat C. DNA ...
• Which of the following organic compounds is the main source of energy for living things? ...
• In a chemical reaction, the reactants begin the reaction and are written on the left ...
• Waxes, oils and fats are examples of A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. ...
• What is the job of an enzyme? A. It gets broken down in a ...
• Is found in the cell membrane as a bilayer. ...
• Letter B... A. active site ...
• The shape of the active site on an enzyme determines _______________ to which it will ...
• What is the function of nucleic acids? A. store genetic information B. store ...
• What can cause a protein/enzyme to denature? A. High temperature, extreme pH, or exposure ...
• Plants use this polysaccharide for structural support in their cell walls A. Cellulose ...
• Carbohydrates are split into three main groups: A. sugars, salts, vitamins B. ...
• Which elements provides the backbone for all biomolecules? A. carbon, oxygen B. ...
• Nitrogen is vital to life because it is a key component of: A. proteins ...
• Proteins are made of monomers called ___________ A. Nucleotides B. Monosaccharides ...
• DNA and RNA are examples of  A. Carbohydrates B. Lipids C. ...
• The main element in organic compounds is... A. Carbon B. Nitrogen C. ...
• The function of iodine in our diet is to... A. Regulate body temperature ...
• Which of the pair of terms is NOT related A. sugar-carbohydrate B. polypeptide-nucleic ...
• An example of a nucleic acid is A. sugar B. fat C. ...
• Which of the following are factors that can effect the rate of enzyme activity? ...
• An organic molecule always... A. contains carbon and hydrogen B. is derived ...
• Most of the starch strored in the cells of a potato is composed of molecules ...
• Lipids can be digested into what smaller subunits? A. nucleic acids B. amino ...
• What is the role of platelets in the blood clotting process? A. Transporting oxygen ...
• What is the function of capillaries in the circulatory system? A. Transporting oxygen to ...
• What is the liquid part of blood that carries nutrients and waste products? A. ...
• What is the function of red blood cells in the human body? A. Carrying ...
• What is the main function of the heart in the human circulatory system? A. ...
• Which blood vessels carry blood back to the heart? A. Arteries B. Veins ...
• What is the role of venules in the circulatory system? A. Transporting oxygen to ...
• What are the smallest blood vessels in the body called? A. Capillaries B. ...
• Which component of blood is responsible for carrying oxygen? A. Haemoglobin B. White ...
• Which component of blood is responsible for carrying carbon dioxide? A. Haemoglobin B. ...
• Which type of blood cells are responsible for fighting infections? A. Plasma ...
• Which of these is not a way in which biotechnology can benefit agriculture? A. ...
• This chart shows the worldwide number of pertussis, tuberculosis, ...
• Which of the following careers would a student studying biotechnology most likely pursue? A. ...
• Which of these has to do with genetic modification? A. crossbreeding B. kidney ...
• The table below shows the data about diseases and ...
• Which can be treated with antibiotics? A. bacterium B. mutagen C. parasite ...
• Which requires a host cell in order to reproduce? A. algae B. bacterium ...
• According to the table above, which disease had the ...
• How are viruses different from bacteria? A. Viruses affect plants, while bacteria affect animals ...
• How can the rate of an infectious disease be drastically reduced? A. by taking ...
• Tigers and household cats are members of the same family; however, their sizes are vastly ...
• Which agricultural benefit can biotechnology provide? A. developing plants that are less dependent on ...
• Which field would most likely NOT incorporate biotechnology? A. agriculture B. genetics ...
• Why do doctors suggest people get a flu vaccine every year? A. viruses replicate ...
• Which process uses a body cell to create a new organism? A. crossbreeding ...
• Which of the following reasons would explain why an infectious disease is pandemic? A. ...
• Ten people became sick with the flu after attending a school dance. What is the ...
• Which of the following subjects would someone most likely study if he or she wanted ...
• Both bacteria and fungi can be _________________. A. decomposers B. eukaryotes C. ...
• What is the difference between an epidemic and a pandemic disease? A. epidemic is ...
• Nail plate fungul infection consisting of whitish patches that can be scraped off the nail ...
• A rare and serious type of skin cancer that begins in the nail matrix ...
• Significant nail darkening caused by increased pigment cells A. Melanonychia B. Eggshell nail ...
• Known as trumpet nail a form of dramatically increased nail curative of the free edge ...
• Nail surface pitting roughness Onycholysis and bed discoloration A. Nail B. Nail psoriasis ...
• Fungul infection of the feet also known as athletes foot A. Bruised nail bed ...
• Bacterial inflammation of the tissues around the nail plate causing pus swelling redness A. ...
• Thin white nail plate is more flexible than usual; usually caused by diet, hereditary internal ...
• Separation of the nail plate and bed often due to injury or allergic reactions ...
• Darkish purple spots Usually due to a small nail bed injury can usually be covered ...
• Irregular stretching of the eponychium or hyponychium A. Nail pterygium B. Nail bed ...
• Rapidly growing and contagious bacteria that can cause infection; seen in the early stages as ...
• Separation and falling off a nail plate from the nail bed caused by infection, matrix, ...
• Matrix inflammation and nail shedding caused by infection or injury A. Onychia B. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a benefit of exercise as mentioned in the prevention ...
• What compound does turmeric contain that is highly anti-inflammatory? A. Omega 3 ...
• Which of the following is a source of Omega 3 fatty acids and DHA? ...
• How many Americans suffer from Alzheimer's? A. 4.5+ million B. 3.5+ million ...
• Which fruit color is associated with prevention nutrition in the document? A. Red ...
• How does exercise contribute to the prevention of diabetes according to the prevention exercise? ...
• Describe Alzheimer's disease A. A condition characterized by memory loss and cognitive decline. ...
• What nutrient is found in green leafy vegetables such as spinach and kale? A. ...
• What is the incidence of the condition in women over 55? A. 1 in ...
• What percentage of patients experience early-onset of the condition (before 65)? A. 5-10% ...
• Describe how Alzheimer’s can be prevented. A. By avoiding sunlight. B. Through ...
• What types of exercise have been shown to increase brain health and prevent Alzheimer's Disease? ...
• According to the prevention exercise, what is one of the cardiovascular benefits of exercise? ...
• Who first described Alzheimer's disease? A. Sigmund Freud B. Alois Alzheimer C. ...
• What is creatine typically found in? A. Fish B. Meat C. Vegetables ...
• What is the incidence of the condition in men over 55? A. 1 in ...
• What is another name for Alzheimer's disease? A. Parkinson's disease B. Senile Dementia ...
• What is described as a slowly progressive disease of the brain characterized by impairment of ...
• In which year was Alzheimer's disease first described? A. 1901 B. 1912 ...
• List reasons why Alzheimer’s disease occurs. A. Due to excessive exercise. B. ...
• Which of the following is a source of Vitamin D according to the document? ...
• At what age is the condition generally diagnosed? A. Before 55 years of age ...
• What is the largest area of the brain? A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum ...
• Which part of the Hindbrain controls vital functions like blood pressure and heartrate A. ...
• Can parkinson's disease be cured A. Yes B. No C. Can ...
• What is the thalamus responsible for? A. ...
• The substantia nigra is located in the ...
• Where is the cerebellum located? A. ...
• The degeneration and loss of neurons that produce dopamine ...
• What other part of the brain does the basal ganglia mainly interact with? A. ...
• Latin for little brain, the cerebellum is responsible for ...
• Which part of the limbic system is responsible for storing memories? A. Amygdala ...
• What causes Parkinson's? A. Sensory neuron death B. Motor neurons apathy ...
• Which of the following symptoms would lead to a diagnosis of Parkinson disease? A. ...
• What phenotype will be expressed if an individual has one dominant allele (B) and one ...
• What does DNA stand for? A. Deoxyribonucleic Acid B. Dioxynucleic Acid ...
• What is a chromosome? A. A type of cell B. A single, highly ...
• What is a gene? A. A type of protein B. The basic physical ...
• Based on the Punnett squares shown, what is the genotype of the F1 generation? ...
• What is an allele? A. A type of chromosome B. A version of ...
• What is heredity? A. The process of natural selection B. The transfer ...
• Where is the chromosome located? A. Inside the cell membrane B. Inside the ...
• What is the result when two recessive alleles for red hair are inherited? A. ...
• What are the possible genotypes of the F2 generation according to the diagram? A. ...
• What is the function of the nucleus in eukaryotic cells? A. It is responsible ...
• Based on the diagram, what are the possible genotypes ...
• Where is DNA located in a cell? A. Mitochondria B. Nucleus C. ...
• What is the phenotype of the flowers with the 'aa' genotype? A. Purple ...
• When do recessive alleles show their effect in an organism's traits? A. In the ...
• Which of the following represents a homozygous genotype? A. Bb B. bb ...
• What is the definition of phenotype? A. The genetic makeup of an organism ...
• What is a trait? A. A learned behavior that is passed down from parents ...
• Which genotype represents a dominant phenotype for black hair? A. bb B. ...
• What does the term Genotype refer to? A. The physical appearance of an individual ...
• In the given diagram, what is the genotype of ...
• Which of the following represents a heterozygous genotype? A. BB B. bb ...
• Based on the diagram, which genotype is not possible? ...
• Which is not the correct variable meaning for Ohms Law? A. R is the ...
• What is the formula for cardiac output? A. HR/SV B. HR x SV ...
• What would you expect the peripheral resistance to be in a person who has decreased ...
• What would the blood pressure be in a person with decreased peripheral resistance (R=10) due ...
• CO = HR x SV is the formula for Ohms Law. A. TRUE ...
• What is the cardiac output when the blood pressure difference is 50 and the resistance ...
• What is the average cardiac output per minute? A. 8 liter B. 1 ...
• What is the end diastolic volume (EDV) definition? A. amount left in the ventricle ...
• A patient with a lower than normal resistance due to being an athlete and developing ...
• What maintains relatively constant pressure despite changes in the body posture? A. baroreceptors ...
• What is the end systolic volume (ESV) amount? A. 60% B. 50 ml ...
• What is the end diastolic volume (EDV) amount? A. 70 ml B. 50 ...
• What would the overall pressure be for a person with a blood pressure of 120 ...
• What is the end systolic volume (ESV) definition? A. amount the left ventricle can ...
• Bradykinin, Histamine, Elevated temperatures, Lactic acid, and Carbon dioxide are all examples of? A. ...
• What is the definition of blood ejected by a ventricle in 1 min. A. ...
• What is the cardiac output when the blood pressure difference is 120 and the resistance ...
• If you have an ejection volume of 70 ml and a HR 65 bpm what ...
• What is the ejection fraction amount? A. 120 ml B. 70 ml ...
• If EDV is 140 ml and ESV is 60 ml. What is the SV? ...
• Quantity of blood that passes a given point in the circulation in a given period ...
• What is the blood pressure of a person who has increased heart output due to ...
• What is the normal resistance of blood vessels for a normal patient? A. 90 ...
• What would you expect the peripheral resistance to be in a person who has increased ...
• Baroreceptors are important in short term regulation of arterial pressure. A. TRUE B. ...
• What is the peripheral resistance of a person who has increased cardiac output? Using values ...
• Which of the following would NOT result in edema? A. low BP ...
• What would the blood pressure be in a person with increased peripheral resistance (R=50) due ...
• What is the normal adult blood pressure? A. 90/60 B. 110/70 C. ...
• A patient with higher vessel resistance from atherosclerosis would have a cardiac output that is ...
• What is the probability of producing a tall plant from two heterozygous tall pea plants? ...
• genetics is the study of __________ A. heredity B. genetics C. parents ...
• The study of heredity and the variation of inherited characteristics  A. gene B. ...
• What did Gregor Mendel use to study heredity? A. Bacteria B. Pea plants ...
• Which of the following best describes a heterozygous genotype? A. Two identical alleles for ...
• What is an example of codominance? A. A pea plant being tall or short ...
• Which of the following describes how the organism looks? A. genotype B. phenotype ...
• What generation were the offspring that were all tall in Mendel's experiment? A. G ...
• In a Punnett square, what does a capital letter represent? A. A recessive allele ...
• Which is a phenotype? A. Purple B. Pp
• A mutation is A. any change that is harmful B. any change ...
• Which of the following is a phenotype? A. Aa B. red hair ...
• When was Mendel's work rediscovered? A. 1950 B. 1866 C. 1900 ...
• Which of the following is an example of a homozygous genotype? A. Aa ...
• The likelihood that a particular event will occur is A. Genetics B. Probability ...
• The term that relates to physical characteristics that are studied in genetics. A. traits ...
• What is the term used to describe the genetic makeup of an organism? A. ...
• What happens to a trait controlled by a recessive allele? A. It disappears completely ...
• How many alleles (letters) do each person carry for a trait? A. 1 ...
• What is the passing of traits from parents to offspring called? A. Alleles ...
• Which of the following would show a dominate trait? A. B B. b ...
• What is the probability of flipping a fair coin and getting heads? A. 25% ...
• In this punnett square, which is the dominant trait? ...
• Which scenario is an example of codominance? A. A flower that is either red ...
• Which of the following would show a recessive trait? A. B B. b ...
• What are the different forms of a gene called? A. Traits B. Chromosomes ...
• Which term refers to physical characteristics that are studied in genetics A. traits ...
• Who is considered the Father of Genetics? A. Albert Einstein B. Gregor Mendel ...
• Which is a heterozygous or hybrid genotype? A. Bb B. BB C. ...
• This image is called a ____________ ...
• How did Mendel ensure the parent plants were purebred? A. By using chemical treatments ...
• Which of the following shows homozygous alleles? A. Ww B. ww
• What does a Punnett square help predict? A. The physical strength of an organism ...
• Two identical alleles for a trait is known as ...
• One form of a gene is called_______________ A. a DNA B. a Phenotype ...
• Which describes a genotype with two identical alleles for a trait, such as PP? ...
• Which of the following describes how the genes are described? A. genotype B. ...
• Which term describes the physical appearance of a trait? A. Genotype B. Phenotype ...
• What you see, or the physical appearance. ...
• What is the probability of a heterozygous offspring from two heterozygous parents for a single ...
• Scientists call an organism with two different alleles for a trait A. factor ...
• Which disorder is characterized by the pancreas not producing enough insulin? A. Acromegaly ...
• What is the main symptom of gigantism? A. Abnormal increase in body length ...
• What is the main cause of goiter? A. Deficiency in iodine B. Excess ...
• What is the main symptom of dwarfism? A. Mental retardation B. Obesity ...
• What is the main symptom of diabetes mellitus? A. Mental retardation B. Obesity ...
• What is the main symptom of cretinism? A. Heat intolerance B. Obesity ...
• Which disorder is characterized by the oversecretion of growth hormone in adulthood? A. Diabetes ...
• What causes cretinism in childhood? A. Insufficient insulin production B. Thyroid gland failure ...
• What is the main symptom of gigantism? A. Obesity B. Mental retardation ...
• What is the main symptom of acromegaly? A. Mental retardation B. Heat intolerance ...
• What causes dwarfism in children? A. Excess growth hormone B. Deficiency in ...
• What is the main effect of myxedema on the body? A. Mental retardation ...
• What is the main symptom of myxedema? A. Mental retardation B. Obesity and ...
• What is the main symptom of goiter? A. Swelling of the neck or larynx ...
• What is the main symptom of diabetes mellitus? A. Heat intolerance B. ...
• When blood glucose levels get too high, the pancreas stimulates the release of A. ...
• Things in the human body that need to stay the same A. Glucose ...
• The main elements of the endocrine system are ______. A. The glands, hormones, and ...
• What is the main function of the endocrine system? A. It creates chemicals, or ...
• What is the point of a feedback loop? A. To provide the body with ...
• Glucose + Oxygen = Carbon Dioxide + Water + Energy is the formula of? ...
• Failure to maintain homeostasis could result in: A. lack of internal balance ...
• When you are hot, your body sweats to cool you down. This means your temperature ...
• Homeostasis A. allows for a wildly fluctuating internal environment B. is impossible ...
• A hormone is A. a chemical substance produced by a gland and carried by ...
• This is the name of the simple sugar that is found in your blood? ...
• Osmoregulation happens when organisms regulate A. temperature B. blood glucose C. oxygen ...
• Which of the following is not regulated by homeostasis? A. body temperature B. ...
• According to the feedback loop, what does high blood ...
• Detects change and sends a message to the control center A. receptor B. ...
• How do hormones cause specific effects in the body? A. Flooding the entire body ...
• Insulin is produced by A. the liver B. the pancreas C. the ...
• If mammals get too cold, their blood vessels A. constrict to release heat more ...
• Which one here reduces the amount of glucose in the blood? A. Glucagon ...
• If the environment gets cold, we will often shiver in order to: A. keep ...
• Hormones travel through your A. blood B. bone marrow C. neurons ...
• Diabetes is a disease where some mammals cannot properly regulate A. temperature ...
• Hormones cause specific effects by ______. A. Flooding the entire body B. ...
• If mammals get too warm, their blood vessels A. constrict to release heat more ...
• When glucose levels in the blood rise, your brain sends a signal to your pancreas. ...
• What does your thyroid gland do? A. regulates metabolism/calorie burning for energy B. ...
• What is the main function of osmoregulation in organisms? A. Regulate temperature B. ...
• What is the role of the thyroid gland in the endocrine system? A. Regulates ...
• Thermoregulation happens when organisms regulate A. temperature B. blood glucose C. oxygen ...
• What does the FAMACHA scoring system assess in small ruminants? A. Body condition ...
• Which kind of WBC discharges granules that contain histamine and heparin? A. eosinophil ...
• Which of the following is not a granulocyte? A. Neutrophil B. Monocyte ...
• Which of the following is a sign of anemia in the FAMACHA scoring system? ...
• Which type of white blood cell is responsible for allergic reactions and fighting parasites? ...
• What is the term for an abnormally low number of erythrocytes in the blood? ...
• Which kind of WBC kills microbes by releasing cytoplasmic granules which fuse with the phagosome ...
• Which of the following is NOT a type of white blood cell? A. Neutrophil ...
• Which blood element is primarily responsible for oxygen transport? A. Platelets B. White ...
• What is the primary function of white blood cells in animals? A. Transporting oxygen ...
• What is leukocytosis? A. A decrease in white blood cell count B. ...
• What is the main component of erythrocytes that allows for oxygen binding and transport? ...
• What numerical range is the FAMACHA scale? A. 1 to 7 B. 1 ...
• Which kind of WBC usually exists in low numbers in a healthy animal? A. ...
• What kind of immunity do lymphocytes contribute to? A. Inductive Immunity B. Adaptive ...
• Which kind of WBC secretes cytokines, the molecules that lead to the feelings of illness: ...
• What is the term used for the percentage of blood volume that is occupied by ...
• What is the term for the type of anemia that is caused by a failure ...
• What is the medical term for inflammation of the heart muscle? A. Myocardium ...
• What does the term 'atherosclerosis' refer to? A. Hardening and narrowing of the arteries ...
• Which medication is taken in a small daily dose to reduce the ability of the ...
• Which medical professional specializes in treating disorders of the blood vessels? A. Cardiologist ...
• What is the most common type of white blood cells? A. Erythrocytes B. ...
• What is the procedure called that is used to widen a narrowed or obstructed blood ...
• What is the term for tissue death caused by lack of blood supply? A. ...
• What is the term for a blood clot attached to the wall of a deep ...
• Which term describes a valve disorder where the mitral valve does not close properly, allowing ...
• What is the term for an abnormally small number of platelets in the blood? ...
• What is the term for the thickest layer of the heart? A. Pericardium ...
• What is the name of the condition where the heart is unable to pump out ...
• What is the name of the physician who specializes in diagnosing and treating abnormalities, diseases, ...
• What is the term for the highest pressure against the walls of an artery when ...
• Cells that exhibit a positive stain with acid phosphatase and are not inhibited with tartaric ...
• What test is commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy? A. INR B. APTT ...
• Which of the following test is abnormal in Hemophilia B A. platelet count ...
• Which defect characterizes Gray’s syndrome? A. platelet adhesion defect B. dense granule ...
• Which coagulation test(s) would be abnormal in a vitamin K-deficient patient? A. PT only ...
• Which ratio of anticoagulant to blood is correct for coagulation procedures? A. 1:4 ...
• A protein that plays a role in both coagulation and platelet aggregation is: A. ...
• Which type of anemia is usually present in a patient with acute leukemia? A. ...
• In essential thrombocythemia, the platelets are: A. increased in number and functionally abnormal ...
• Normal serum contains: A. factor I B. factor V C. factor VIII ...
• The leukocyte alkaline phosphatase stain of a patient gives the following results: 10 (0); ...
• PV is characterized by: A. increased plasma volume B. pancytopenia C. ...
• Storage pool deficiencies are defects of: A. platelet adhesion B. platelet aggregation ...
• Which test would be abnormal in a patient with Stuart-Prower factor (factor X) deficiency? ...
• Which results are associated with hemophilia A? A. prolonged APTT, normal PT B. ...
• Which of the following cells is considered pathognomonic for Hodgkin’s disease? A. Niemann-Pick cells ...
• CML is distinguished from leukomoid reaction by which of the following? A. CML low ...
• Which clotting factor is not measured by PT and APTT tests? A. factor VIII ...
• Refer to the following results: PT prolonged APTT prolonged platelet count decreased bleeding time ...
• Which of the following is correct regarding the international normalized ratio (INR)? A. it ...
• Refer to the following results: PT normal APTT prolonged Bleeding time increased Platelet ...
• What is the characteristic finding is seen in the peripheral smear of a patient with ...
• Which set or platelet responses would most likely be associated to Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia? A. ...
• In which of the following conditions does LAP show the least activity? A. leukomoid ...
• A prolonged thrombin time and a normal reptilase time are indicative of: A. afibrinogenemia ...
• Bernard-Soulier syndrome is associated with: A. decreased bleeding time B. decreased factor VIII ...
• The morphological characteristic associated with Chediak-Higashi syndrome is: A. pale blue cytoplasmic inclusiosns ...
• DIC is most often associated with which of the following types of acute leukemia? ...
• Sodium fluoride may be added to the naphthyl ASD acetate (NASDA) esterase reaction. The fluoride ...
• The erythrocytosis seen in relative polycythemia occurs because of: A. decreased arterial oxygen saturation ...
• Normal PT and APTT results in a patient with poor wound healing may be associated ...
• In leukemia, which term describes a peripheral blood finding of leukocytosis with a shift to ...
• In the APTT procedure the time taken for clot formation is measured after the addition ...
• A prolonged APTT and PT are corrected when mixed with normal plasma. Which factor is ...
• Which protein is the primary inhibitor of the fibrinolytic system? A. protein C ...
• The lupus anticoagulant is directed against: A. factor VIII B. factor IX ...
• Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is a disorder of: A. platelets B. clotting proteins ...
• Auer rods may be seen in all of the following except: A. acute myelomonocytic ...
• Which of the following tests is most likely to be abnormal in patients taking aspirin? ...
• Aspirin prevents platelet aggregation by inhibiting the action of which enzyme? A. phospholipase ...
• Which clotting factors (cofactors) are inhibited by protein S? A. V and X ...
• In myelofibrosis, the characteristic abnormal red blood cell morphology is that of: A. target ...
• A peripheral smear shows 75% blasts. These stain positive for both Sudan black B (SBB) ...
• The anticoagulant of choice for most routine coagulation studies is: A. sodium oxalate ...
• What test is used to monitor heparin therapy? A. INR B. APTT ...
• What influence does the Philadelphia chromosome have on the prognosis of patients with chronic myelocytic ...
• What reagents are used in the PT test? A. thromboplastin and sodium chloride ...
• The following results were obtained on a patient: prolonged bleeding time, normal platelet count, normal ...
• Which of the following is contained in the primary granules of the neutrophil? A. ...
• When performing platelet aggregation studies, which set of platelet aggregation result would most likely be ...
• Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of retinoblastoma? A. Palpable mass ...
• What is a clinical manifestation of anemia? A. Increased energy levels B. Shortness ...
• Ewing's Sarcoma more often occurs in which part of the bones? A. The epiphysis ...
• What is the most prevalent nutritional disorder worldwide? A. Vitamin D deficiency ...
• Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestation of neutropenia? A. Fever ...
• Before John can receive a blood transfusion during his surgery, what must be obtained first? ...
• John, a 10-year-old boy, has been experiencing prolonged bleeding from minor cuts and bruises. His ...
• During a routine check-up, a 4-year-old child presents with symptoms of fatigue and weakness. The ...
• Hemophilia B is caused by a deficiency of which factor? A. Factor VII ...
• Where does osteosarcoma usually occur? A. In the epiphysis of the bones ...
• What is a common clinical manifestation of osteosarcoma? A. Numbness in the affected area ...
• During a hospital stay for a sickle cell crisis, what is the primary goal of ...
• What is the primary treatment for Hemophilia? A. Antibiotics B. Factor Replacement ...
• What is included in the therapeutic management of Hodgkin's Lymphoma? A. High-intensity exercise ...
• During a routine check-up, a 7-year-old child presents with unusual bruising and frequent infections. The ...
• For Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma, what is one of the therapeutic management strategies mentioned? A. Cognitive ...
• What type of blood transplant uses a patient's own cells? A. Allogeneic B. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a precipitating factor for a Sickle Cell Crisis? ...
• Where does a Neuroblastoma most commonly develop? A. In the chest B. ...
• John, a 15-year-old with Sickle Cell Anemia, starts experiencing sudden health issues during a family ...
• What is a characteristic clinical manifestation of Hodgkin's Lymphoma? A. Hyperactivity B. Swollen, ...
• What type of crisis in Sickle Cell Anemia is characterized by painless, lethargy, headache, fever, ...
• Which of the following is a symptom of Hemophilia? A. Increased clotting time ...
• Which diagnostic test is NOT mentioned for Wilms' tumor? A. Renal or abdominal ultrasound ...
• What should be applied for at least 15 minutes in case of a superficial bleeding ...
• What is the most common form of internal bleeding in Hemophilia? A. Bleeding into ...
• The study of body movement is A. VO2 B. Ergonomics C. Kinesiology ...
• Awareness of posture, movement, and change in the equilibrium of the body is A. ...
• Which of the following would help a person who joins a fitness club to lose ...
• The narrowing of blood vessels, blood flow is slowed A. vasodilation B. ...
• Analysis that gauges cardiovascular fitness by assessing athlete's efficiency of oxygen consumption and cardiac output ...
• Jordan weighs 110 kg and 1.7 meters. Which answer is correct regarding her BMI? ...
• Which is not an example of aerobic exercise? A. Walking B. Lifting weights ...
• PRICE means A. Prevent (protect), rest, ice, elevate B. Protect, respond, ice, ...
• Which is NOT an example of anaerobic exercise? A. Sprinting B. Weight lifting ...
• Which is NOT a sports medicine career? A. Chiropractor B. exercise physiologist ...
• Assess, Evaluate and provide treatment for injuries on playing field A. Team physician ...
• When blood vessels in your body widen, allowing more blood to flow through them and ...
• Have the leadership role in the organization, management, and provision of care of athletes. ...
• Study an athlete's performance, looking for weak points, they suggest changes to training program ...
• Susie sprained her ankle during soccer. Which should be used in first 24 hours? ...
• Which of the following is NOT part of a sports physical? A. Height and ...
• Which is often used prior to exercise to help promote good circulation A. Heat ...
• If someone has a heart attack, he or she will always experience chest pain that ...
• What does CTE stand for? A. Cranium Tightness Example B. Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy ...
• Heat syncope is also called A. fainting B. heat exhaustion C. heat ...
• Soft tissue injuries are those that occur in muscles, tendons, ligaments, cartilage, skin, blood vessels, ...
• In more and more places, you will be seeing emergency devices designed to shock a ...
• What is the most appropriate treatment for a skin abrasion? A. Immediate bandaging of ...
• CPR stands for Cardiopulmonary__________ A. respiration B. resuscitation C. reactivation D. ...
• A condition that occurs when the body cannot maintain homeostasis and the body temperature begins ...
• The Korey Stringer story was about A. hypothermia B. hyperthermia C. dehydration ...
• A condition in which the heart stops beating suddenly and unexpectedly. A. pulse ...
• a sprain occurs in a A. ligament B. tendon C. muscle ...
• If a person gets a concussion they: A. Are more likely to get another ...
• What type of injury is this? ...
• This describes the rate of heat loss on the human body resulting from combined effects ...
• If someone is in cardiac arrest, something that may be used to help them is ...
• Which of the following is NOT a soft tissue injury? A. Tears B. ...
• What part of the brain controls body temperature? A. mandible B. hypothalamus ...
• Symptoms of sudden cardiac arrest in athletes include: A. chest pain with exercise ...
• Which is NOT a sign of a concussion? A. slurred speech B. headache ...
• A condition of near-total body collapse where the athlete experiences difficulty dissipating the heat. ...
• The first thing you should do if you suspect an athlete is going into cardiac ...
• Encephalitis is a very serious condition, meaning inflammation of the ______. A. skin ...
• A person would see a cardiologist if they had problems with their _____. A. ...
• A ______ treats problems with the skin such as acne, skin cancer, and rashes. ...
• Myalgia is pain in the _____. A. muscles B. head C. mouth ...
• Cardio exercise is called that because _____. A. you sweat B. your muscles ...
• If someone has hypothermia, it means their body temperature is ______ normal. A. Above ...
• What does the prefix sub mean? A. above B. under C. around ...
• ology means ____. A. the study of B. the belief in ...
• A doctor who specializes in treating cancer is called an _____. A. paleontologist ...
• Someone with neuralgia has pain in their __________. A. Mind B. Nerves ...
• Anesthesia is used in surgery so that the patient has ______. A. an absence ...
• A psychologist is someone who studies the ________. A. blood B. earth ...
• Lingua means ____. A. teeth B. lips C. tongue D. finger ...
• The perimeter of a person's yard is _____. A. the distance around the outside ...
• hemo: If someone suffers a hemorrhage it means they have excessive _____. A. pain ...
• Therapy means ____. A. weakness B. healing C. strength D. medicine ...
• A ________ allows a doctor to look inside the body during a procedure. A. ...
• What does the prefix 'ortho' mean? A. Straight, correct B. Under C. ...
• What does the suffix 'itis' mean in words like tonsillitis, dermatitis, appendicitis? A. Healing ...
• If the doctor says you need a tonsillectomy, what is she going to do to ...
• Which base is found in RNA but not in DNA? A. Adenine B. ...
• What is the function of DNA? A. DNA creates cellular energy. B. DNA ...
• Which base is not found in DNA? A. Adenine B. Thymine C. ...
• Which sugar is found in RNA nucleotides? A. Deoxyribose B. Glucose C. ...
• What shape is the RNA molecule? A. Single helix B. Double helix ...
• Which of the following is NOT a type of point mutation? A. Insertion ...
• What happens when genes are turned on? A. The DNA is replicated B. ...
• Which of the following is NOT part of a DNA nucleotide? A. Deoxyribose ...
• What are the regions of DNA that code for proteins called? A. Exons ...
• What are genes? A. Sections of DNA that do not code for anything ...
• What shape is the DNA molecule? A. Single helix B. Double helix ...
• How many strands does RNA have? A. One B. Two C. ...
• What is a codon? A. A sequence of three nitrogen bases in DNA that ...
• How many strands does DNA have? A. One B. Two C. Three ...
• What is the function of RNA? A. RNA stores genetic information. B. ...
• What is the role of anticoagulants in preserving blood specimens for hematology tests? A. ...
• What is the significance of the 'order of draw' in phlebotomy? A. To ensure ...
• What is the correct order of draw when collecting multiple blood samples? A. Serum ...
• What are some common hematology tests that require a fasting specimen? A. Thyroid function ...
• What is the significance of using a tourniquet during blood collection? A. To increase ...
• What precaution should be taken when collecting a blood sample for a lipid profile test? ...
• What is the purpose of a complete blood count (CBC) test in hematology? A. ...
• What is the primary reason for performing a differential blood count in hematology? A. ...
• Why is it important to mix anticoagulated blood tubes immediately after collection? A. To ...
• Which tube color is typically used for collecting blood samples for erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) ...
• What precautions should be taken when handling a blood specimen for a blood smear? ...
• Why is it important to properly label blood tubes with patient information? A. To ...
• What is the main purpose of performing a blood culture test? A. To measure ...
• What is the primary reason for asking patients to hydrate well before a blood draw? ...
• How should a blood specimen be collected for coagulation studies? A. Collect blood using ...
• For how long can a blood specimen for a hematology test be stored at room ...
• Why is it crucial to follow proper disposal procedures for used phlebotomy equipment? A. ...
• How should a blood specimen be transported to the laboratory for testing? A. In ...
• Which anticoagulant is commonly used in tubes for collecting blood samples for a complete blood ...
• What is the recommended temperature for storing blood specimens for hematology tests? A. 15-20 ...
• Which tube is typically used for collecting blood samples for glucose testing? A. Yellow-top ...
• Why is it necessary to invert the blood collection tubes after drawing blood? A. ...
• Discuss the benefits of laser surgery compared to traditional surgery. A. Laser surgery has ...
• Compare and contrast laser surgery with traditional surgery in terms of recovery time. A. ...
• The process in which the electrons in the ground state are vibrated to the excited ...
• Naturally occuring process in a LASER is A. Stimulated Emission B. Absorption ...
• Clinical thermometer is used to check the body temperature? A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• --------- is an injection laser. A. He-Ne laser B. Semiconductor laser C. ...
• How does laser surgery minimize blood loss compared to traditional surgery? A. Laser surgery ...
• Explain the importance of laser safety protocols during surgical procedures. A. Laser safety protocols ...
• Which of the following statements are true? LASER is used as optical source ...
• Provide examples of applications where laser surgery is commonly used. A. Podiatry B. ...
• What are the different types of laser surgery? A. LASIK, PRK, LASEK, SMILE, Photorefractive ...
• Light amplification in LASER is achieved by A. Population inversion B. Stimulated ...
• What measures can be taken to ensure the effectiveness of laser surgery in different medical ...
• What are the risks associated with laser surgery? A. Hair loss, skin discoloration, nerve ...
• For different spectral colors, the intensity depends on its ____. A. amplitude B. ...
• The coherent nature of light from LASER is due to A. Spontaneous emission ...
• Discuss the precision and accuracy achieved with laser surgery in delicate procedures. A. Laser ...
• Acronym for LASER is A. Light Absorption by Stimulated Emission of Radiation B. ...
• What are some future advancements expected in the field of laser surgery? A. Improved ...
• central nuclei vestibular nerve A. vestibular nuclei B. nuclei ambiguus C. cochlear ...
• reticular formation is located at the core of the brainstem and coordinates A. motor ...
• What type of matter is the lateral lemniscus A. white matter B. gray ...
• Accessory (spinal root) motor innervation A. larynx and esophagus B. masticatory m. ...
• Accessory nerve (cranial root) nucleus A. motor nucleus of XI B. nucleus ambiguus ...
• The body's ability to adjust the head in response to a change in body position ...
• This nerve has afferent fibers from the cochlea and receives auditory input A. facial ...
• Vagus sensory nucleus A. nucleus of the solitary tract B. motor nuclei of ...
• accessory nerve (spinal root) nucleus A. motor nucleus of XI B. nucleus ...
• Vagus n motor innervation A. pharynx, larynx, esophagus B. pharynx and larynx ...
• Motor nucleus of vagus A. nucleus ambiguus B. nucleus of the solitary ...
• Glossopharyngeal sensory nucleus A. sensory nucleus of IX B. nucleus of the solitary ...
• Why do you lose hearing if the endolymph inside the cochlear breaches the vestibular membrane? ...
• Sound waves enter the ear canal and cause the __________ to vibrate A. Vestibule ...
• How many cristae are present in each vestibular system? A. 2 B. 3 ...
• Sensorineural hearing loss is typically associated with damage to: A. Tympanic membrane B. ...
• If you turn your head to the left, what happens to the hair cells in ...
• The utricle and saccule are components of which structure in the inner ear? A. ...
• The crista (singular) is the sensory component of which part of the vestibular system? ...
• The cochlea is responsible for A. Detecting head movements B. Converting sound ...
• The organ of Corti is located within which part of the cochlear? A. Scala ...
• The vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR) is responsible for: A. Maintaining balance while standing B. ...
• Cristae are located within the A. Ampulla B. Macula C. Organ of ...
• Which part of the vestibular system are responsible for detecting linear acceleration and head position ...
• The primary auditory cortex is located in which lobe of the brain? A. Frontal ...
• Which cranial nerve is primarily associated with transmitting vestibular information to the brain? A. ...
• Which part of the inner ear is primarily responsible for detecting head motion and acceleration? ...
• Which part of the vestibular system is particularly important for detecting rotational movements in the ...
• The cuneocerebellar pathway terminates in which part of the cerebellum? A. Cerebrocerebellum B. ...
• Which spinal tract is associated with the cerebrocerebellum? A. Reticulospinal tract B. Vestibulospinal ...
• Where is the primary location of the blood-CSF barrier in the central nervous system? ...
• The floculus sends information down which spinal tract to activate the extensor tone of our ...
• The organ of Corti is located within which part of the cochlear? A. Scala ...
• The cerebral aqueduct connects which ventricles together? A. Lateral ventricles B. Lateral ventricles ...
• Why do you lose hearing if the endolymph inside the cochlear breaches the vestibular membrane? ...
• D1 and D2 receptors are located where in the basal ganglia? A. Putamen ...
• Which of the following functions is primarily associated with the anterior lobe of the cerebellum? ...
• Which cranial nerve innervate the contralateral side of the body? A. Trigeminal nerve ...
• Which cranial nerve is found in the medial aspect of the brainstem? A. Hypoglossal ...
• Which primary neurotransmitter binds onto the GPi? A. Noradrenaline B. Dopamine C. ...
• What is the primary function of the blood-CSF barrier in the central nervous system? ...
• The foramen luschka is A. lateral to the 1st ventricle B. lateral to ...
• Where is the cerebellar homunculus located? A. Posterior aspect of the cerebellum ...
• The paravermis of the cerebellum contains the cerebellum hommunculus, which part of the body does ...
• Cristae are located within the A. Ampulla B. Macula C. Organ of ...
• When the vestibulocerebellum sends information up the brainstem to activate the occular muscles, what is ...
• Corticopontocerebellar pathways terminates at the... A. Anterior lobe of the cerebellum B. ...
• Which of the following conditions can result from an imbalance in cerebrospinal fluid production and ...
• Which of the following statements about the meninges is correct? A. Meninges are bony ...
• Which blood vessel supplies the basal ganglia? A. Vertebral artery B. Middle cerebral ...
• What is the role of vitamin D in managing Multiple Sclerosis? A. Vitamin D ...
• During the absolute refractory period, a neuron can fire with enough stimuli A. TRUE ...
• Multiple Sclerosis is Disease A. Inflammatory Condition B. Autoimmune Condition C. Demyelination ...
• What is the impact of exercise on the progression of Multiple Sclerosis? A. Exercise ...
• Nerves are made up of cells called ___________ . A. axons B. ...
• The space between two neurons over which chemical messages are passed is called the ________ ...
• __ is the fact that neurons either fire or not, like flipping a light switch? ...
• In a basic view, the nervous system is a 2-way communication between the brain & ...
• Spinal cord injuries make it difficult for ____________ to travel between the brain and rest ...
• Each neuron contains one long trunk called a(n) ________. A. dendrite B. synapse ...
• True or False? Dendrites receive signals and axons send signals. A. TRUE B. ...
• The peripheral nervous system is made up of all the nerves ________ the brain and ...
• What is the common age of onset for Multiple Sclerosis? A. 20-30 years ...
• A ___________ carries instructions to the muscles from the spinal cord. A. motor nerve ...
• What is the role of MRI in diagnosing Multiple Sclerosis? A. To detect lesions ...
• The central nervous system is made of the brain and _____ . A. brain ...
• The body receives information from the environment through the _________ . A. sensory nerves ...
• What is the impact of stress on the symptoms of Multiple Sclerosis? A. Stress ...
• What is the name of the chemical message that travels across the synapse? A. ...
• __is when a rapid change in membrane polarity causes a signal to propagate down the ...
• What is the current status of finding a cure for Multiple Sclerosis? A. No ...
• Which type of Multiple Sclerosis is characterized by occasional relapses and remissions? A. Relapsing-Remitting ...
• What does Neurology involve? A. Anatomy of the Nervous System B. Physiology of ...
• Which of the following is NOT part of the brain? A. cerebrum B. ...
• Which of the following is the study of disease processes? A. Anatomy ...
• What is the primary cause of Multiple Sclerosis? A. Genetic predisposition B. Environmental ...
• What is the most common initial symptom of Multiple Sclerosis? A. Blurred Vision ...
• Which cells are primarily affected in Multiple Sclerosis? A. Neurons B. Glial ...
• A patient with myasthenia gravis will be eating lunch at 1200. It is now 1000 ...
• What is the most common initial symptom of Guillain-Barré Syndrome? A. Headache ...
• What does paraplegia mean in the medical field? A. Loss of function of the ...
• You’re examining a patient’s health history and find that the patient experienced a cholinergic crisis ...
• A 25 year-old presents to the ER with unexplained paralysis from the hips downward. The ...
• Harper is experiencing muscle weakness and respiratory failure due to minimal to no stimulation of ...
• One of the first symptoms of Alzheimer's disease is A. Memory Loss B. ...
• In a research study, Arjun is investigating the impact of changes in tau protein on ...
• Which patient below is MOST at risk for developing a cholinergic crisis? A. A ...
• Which meal option would be the most appropriate for a patient with myasthenia gravis? ...
• quadriplegia is A. the loss of function of the lower body and legs ...
• During nursing report you learn that the patient you will be caring for has Guillain-Barré ...
• The neurologist is conducting a Tensilon test (Edrophonium) at the bedside of a patient who ...
• What is the most common form of dementia? A. Parkinson's Disease B. Huntington's ...
• When communicating with a resident with Alzheimer's, how should the NA approach the conversation? ...
• Myasthenia gravis occurs when antibodies attack the __________ receptors at the neuromuscular junction leading to ...
• What is dementia? A. A normal change of aging in the brain ...
• You’re patient is recovering from a myasthenic crisis and you are providing education to the ...
• What is the bottom line of Alzheimer's disease in recovery mode? A. Synthetic treatment ...
• Olivia experiences _________________ due to excessive stimulation of the receptors at the neuromuscular junction by ...
• The patient’s lumbar puncture results are back. Which finding below correlates with Guillain-Barré Syndrome? ...
• You’re a home health nurse providing care to a patient with myasthenia gravis. Today you ...
• Which finding below represents a positive Romberg Sign in a patient with multiple sclerosis? ...
• A person named Jackson was diagnosed with MS. What symptoms may he exhibit? A. ...
• What is the primary function of the appendicular skeleton? A. Facilitating movement B. ...
• What type of bone is the humerus? A. Flat bone B. Long bone ...
• Which of the following best describes the function of the periosteum? A. It is ...
• Which of the following bones is found in the axial skeleton? A. Rib ...
• How many bones are in the human adult axial skeleton? A. 80 B. ...
• Which of the following is a function of bones? A. Absorbing nutrients B. ...
• What is the term for the area where two bones are joined together? A. ...
• Which bone is considered part of the appendicular skeleton? A. Skull B. Tibia ...
• The center of a long bone is called the: A. Diaphysis B. Periosteum ...
• What is the name of the process by which blood cells are produced in bones? ...
• Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton? A. Femur B. ...
• How does the skeletal system work with the muscular system to facilitate movement? A. ...
• What is the main mineral stored in bones? A. Calcium B. Potassium ...
• The appendicular skeleton includes bones of the: A. Arms and legs B. Chest ...
• The spongy bone tissue found at the ends of long bones is known as: ...
• The vertebrae are part of which section of the human skeleton? A. Appendicular skeleton ...
• During muscle contractions, A. The sarcomeres shorten B. The actin filaments slide over ...
• The collarbone is also known as the: A. Scapula B. Clavicle C. ...
• Which bone is the longest in the human body? A. Tibia B. Radius ...
• This is a toe bone. A. Clavicle B. Lumbar vertebra C. Tibia ...
• All of the following have exoskeletons EXCEPT A. Lobsters B. Spiders C. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a function of the human skeleton? A. Protection ...
• This muscle is located on the upper back and shoulder. A. Pectoralis major ...
• Which of the following bones is NOT found in the arm? A. Humerus ...
• This muscle opposes the biceps. A. Pectoralis major B. Trapezius C. Quadriceps ...
• Which of the following is an example of a fibrous joint? A. Skull plates ...
• What type of joint allows the widest range of movement? A. Hinge joint ...
• This is a principal muscle of the anterior upper leg. A. Pectoralis major ...
• Breaking actin-myosin bonds requires A. ATP B. ADP C. Calcium D. ...
• The bone that forms the upper jaw is called the: A. Zygomatic bone ...
• When a sarcomere is at rest, the myosin binding sites on actin are blocked by ...
• Osteoclasts function in bone remodeling to A. Free mineral ions B. Stimulate blood ...
• The bone found often referred to as the knee cap is called? A. Pavlova ...
• A crustacean has which of the following structural systems? A. Cartilaginous B. Bone ...
• The axial skeleton includes all EXCEPT which of the following? A. Skull B. ...
• How many bones are there in the adult human body? A. 150 B. ...
• Which of the following bones is NOT part of the human skull? A. Clavicle ...
• How does proper hydration impact musculoskeletal fitness? A. Proper hydration has no effect on ...
• Explain the concept of progressive overload in muscle strengthening. A. Progressive overload is the ...
• Name one muscle strengthening exercise. A. Jumping jacks B. Squats C. Sit-ups ...
• Explain the importance of proper form and technique in muscle strengthening exercises. A. Proper ...
• Which of the following choices are not included in the benefits of stretching? A. ...
• Which of the following is highly necessary for gymnast? A. Endurance B. Strength ...
• How can poor musculoskeletal fitness impact posture? A. Muscle flexibility does not affect posture ...
• List two benefits of incorporating muscle strengthening exercises into your workout routine. A. Decreased ...
• What are the key components of a well-rounded musculoskeletal fitness program? A. Running, meditation, ...
• What are the benefits of musculoskeletal fitness? A. Improved cardiovascular health B. Decreased ...
• The individual uses a swinging or bouncing movement to extend their range of motion and ...
• What role does flexibility play in preventing injuries during physical activities? A. Flexibility increases ...
• What muscle is a sit up predominantly working? A. Abdominals B. Biceps ...
• How does flexibility training contribute to overall fitness? A. Flexibility training contributes to overall ...
• Any bodily movement that causes expenditure of energy. A. Physical Activity B. Physical ...
• Discuss the importance of rest and recovery in a musculoskeletal fitness regimen. A. Rest ...
• What are the potential risks of neglecting flexibility training in a fitness routine? A. ...
• It refers to stretches that are performed without movement. A. Assisted Stretching B. ...
• It is the ability of the muscles to generate the greatest force. A. Muscular ...
• Why is musculoskeletal fitness important for daily activities? A. Musculoskeletal fitness improves strength, endurance, ...
• Which of the following pathological conditions is due to an opaque or cloudy lens? ...
• Which of the following pathological conditions is an ear infection commonly seen in children? ...
• This part of the cerebral cortex is the last to be fully myelinated and is ...
• Which of the following is NOT a layer of the eyeball? A. sclera ...
• Which term means surgical repair of the eyelid? A. blepharoplasty B. conjunctivoplasty ...
• Which of the following is not one of the ossicles? A. malleus B. ...
• Which cranial nerve carries hearing and equilibrium sensory information to the brain? A. vestibulocochlear ...
• Which term means instrument to view inside the eye? A. ophthalmoscope B. intraocular ...
• Which term means record of hearing? A. otogram B. auriculogram C. audiogram ...
• Which of these statements are NOT true? A. Conductive hearing loss is the ...
• Which of the following structures are the sensory receptor cells active in bright light and ...
• Which term means double vision? A. hemianopia B. nyctalopia C. diplopia ...
• Which of these statements are NOT true? A. The fluid-filled cavity of the inner ...
• This part of the brain is is responsible for processing vision A. temporal ...
• Which of the following terms refers to dizziness? A. binaural B. presbycusis ...
• Which of the following terms refers to both ears? A. binaural B. presbycusis ...
• Which medical term does NOT mean pertaining to the eye? A. otic B. ...
• Which of the following surgical procedures is the treatment for profound sensorineural hearing loss? ...
• Tears are produced by the: A. lacrimal apparatus B. conjunctiva C. eyeball ...
• Which of the following diagnostic procedures examines the auditory canal? A. falling test ...
• Which of the following terms refers to ringing in the ears? A. binaural ...
• This part of the brain is is responsible for processing sound A. temporal lobe ...
• Which term means cutting into the eardrum (tympanic membrane)? A. tympanectomy B. myringoplasty ...
• Which of the following terms refers to the normal loss of hearing associated with aging? ...
• Which of the following diagnostic procedures is a test of hearing ability? A. falling ...
• Epilepsy affects? A. Only people with close relative who has epilepsy B. Only children and ...
• Which hormone is activated by the kidney A. Vitamin D B. Renin C. Angiotensin
• True or False? You can die from epilepsy A. TRUE B. FALSE
• A 40 y.o. male patient is undergoing hemodialysis with an internal AV fistula in place. ...
• GFR is more in A. Men B. women
• The nurse recognizes that which of the following is an indication to begin dialysis? ...
• True or False? Epilepsy can happen at any age A. TRUE B. FALSE
• The functional unit of kidney is neuron A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Penicillin dose alteration is recommended in renal failure A. TRUE B. FALSE
• renal osteodystrophy is manifested in the jaws as A. bone resorption B. bone deposition
• True or False? You should always restrain someone seizing A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Which is the most common treatment for epilepsy? A. Surgery B. Special Diet C. Medication ...
• creatinine clearance is greater in A. Males B. Females
• serum creatinine levels is A. 0.7-1.3 mg /dl B. 2-3 mg /dl
• Vitamin D increases Calcium absorption in the bone A. TRUE B. FALSE
• True or False? You should force something into the person’s mouth during the seizure ...
• More than 2 recurrent seizures that separated by more than 24 hours A. Seizure ...
• What is the role of the glomerulus in the kidney? A. Reabsorption of water ...
• True or False? You should always turn the person seizing on their side ...
• What are the three stages of shock? A. 1. Compensated shock or nonprogressive shock, 2. ...
• What is a common complication seen following long-bone fractures? A. Hypoxic respiratory failure B. Renal ...
• What factors comprise the lethal triad of hemorrhage in the trauma patient? A. Hypothermia, acidosis, ...
• What are the three stages of shock? A. Compensated shock or nonprogressive shock; Progressive shock; ...
• What should take precedence in the initial management of a patient with potential spinal trauma? ...
• What is the most common cause of hypotension in the trauma patient? A. Hypovolemia ...
• In addition to clinical evaluation, what diagnostic tool is recommended to rule out C-spine injury ...
• Which aspect of care should take precedence in the initial management of a patient with ...
• What factors comprise the lethal triad of hemorrhage in the trauma patient? A. Hypothermia, acidosis, ...
• What is a common complication seen following long-bone fractures? A. Hypoxic respiratory failure B. Hyperglycemia ...
• Which aspect of care should take precedence in the initial management of a patient with ...
• What diagnostic tool is recommended to rule out C-spine injury in major trauma patients? ...
• What factors comprise what is known as the lethal triad of hemorrhage in the trauma ...
• What is the recommended intraoperative target glucose range for adults undergoing neurosurgical procedures? A. 90 ...
• What is the recommended cerebral perfusion pressure for traumatic brain injury patients? A. Above 60 ...
• What is the most common cause of hypotension in the trauma patient? A. Hypovolemia ...
• Which part of the eye adjusts the focus of the vision by changing its shape? ...
• What is the role of the optic chiasm in vision? A. It is where the ...
• What is the primary function of the cornea in the human eye? A. To control ...
• What is the main function of the aqueous humor in the eye? A. To provide ...
• What is the iris responsible for in the eye? A. Focusing light on the retina ...
• What is the fovea? A. A part of the eye that contains only rods ...
• What role does the lens play in the human eye? A. It detects color and ...
• According to the trichromatic theory of color vision, which types of cones are present in ...
• What is the primary cause of age-related macular degeneration? A. Overactivity of the rods ...
• What is color blindness primarily caused by? A. Damage to the optic nerve B. Deficiencies ...
• How does the brain contribute to color perception? A. By physically altering the colors we ...
• What are rods in the human eye primarily responsible for? A. Detecting colors B. Night ...
• Which pair is considered an opposing pair according to the opponent-process theory? A. Red and ...
• Which type of color blindness is most common? A. Red-Green color blindness B. Blue-Yellow color ...
• What are cones in the human eye primarily responsible for? A. Night vision B. Detecting ...
• What is the function of the vitreous humor in the eye? A. To provide nutrients ...
• What is the blind spot in the human eye? A. The point where the optic ...
• Which cells in the retina are responsible for high acuity and color vision? A. Rods ...
• Which theory of color vision explains the phenomenon of afterimages? A. Trichromatic theory B. Opponent-process ...
• Which part of the eye is responsible for detecting light and converting it into neural ...
• How do the signals from the rods and cones reach the brain? A. Through the ...
• What does the opponent-process theory suggest about color vision? A. Colors are perceived through the ...
• Which condition is characterized by the inability to see well at night or in poor ...
• Which part of the eye is responsible for peripheral vision? A. The macula B. The ...
• Which bacteria are commonly found in the intestines of warm-blooded animals and synthesize Vitamin K? ...
• Which group of bacteria is associated with crown corrosion of sewers? A. Sulfur-oxidising bacteria ...
• Which process involves the conversion of light energy to ATP using reaction centers and antenna ...
• Which type of bacteria is usually found in water and contains Chlorophyll a? A. Fermentative ...
• What is the main source of energy for organisms that practice chemolithotrophy? A. Organic compounds ...
• What type of environment do iron-oxidising bacteria prefer for growth and metabolism? A. Anaerobic ...
• What is the main principle of Anammox process? A. Short cut in N-removal B. Fast ...
• Which bacteria are very sensitive to oxygen and prefer anaerobic environments? A. Nitrifiers B. Sulfur-oxidising ...
• Fermentative bacteria is gram-positive A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What is the unique characteristic of Acetogens among bacteria? A. Produce acetate B. Spore formers ...
• Mixotrophs are chemolithotrophs require organic carbon as carbon source A. TRUE B. FALSE
• What is the main role of chlorophyll in photosynthesis? A. Synthesize ATP B. Produce oxygen ...
• What is the main product of Iron (II) oxidation by bacteria? A. Hydrogen sulfide ...
• What is the main function of Methanogens in anaerobic treatment? A. Produce acetate B. Produce ...
• Which group of bacteria is commonly found in flooded soil and produces gaseous nitrogen products? ...
• What is the main goal of Anaerobic Respiration? A. Oxidize organic compounds B. Synthesize ATP ...
• What is the main difference between Oxygenic and Anoxygenic Photosynthesis? A. Formation of ATP ...
• What needs to reflect off an object and get to the eye for an animal ...
• What corresponds to an animal's light receptor sensitivity? A. Vision B. Hearing C. Smell ...
• What happens when an animal's receptors don't respond enough or respond too much for the ...
• What do animals that look for food at night need to be able to see ...
• What do different animals have different kinds of? A. Receptors B. Eyes C. Legs ...
• What do animals need to be able to see well? A. Receptors need to respond ...
• What do humans get from their environment when their sense receptors get the right amount ...
• What do some animals have a more sensitive sense of than other animals? A. Hearing ...
• What do animals use to determine what they are looking at? A. Information from the ...
• What do animals that look for food during the day need to be able to ...
• What do people and other animals use to get information about their environment? A. Smell ...
• What allows an animal to get information from its environment using its eyes? A. Sound ...
• What do animals use to react in different ways to the same amount of information ...
• What do light receptors in the eye respond to? A. Sound B. Scent C. Light ...
• What do animals use to gather information about their environment? A. Smell, taste, and touch ...
• How does aging affect the mechanism of hearing? A. It leads to a thickening of ...
• What is the primary cause of color blindness? A. Frequent headaches. B. Genetic predisposition. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a cause of color blindness? A. Long-term exposure to ...
• How does the mechanism of myopia lead to blurry distant vision? A. The cornea flattens, ...
• What is a common effect of aging on hearing? A. Improved clarity in hearing high-pitched ...
• What is an effective prevention strategy for minimizing vision defects? A. Regular exposure to loud ...
• What is a common method to correct myopia? A. Cochlear implants. B. Prescription eyeglasses or ...
• What are refractive errors in vision primarily due to? A. Changes in the auditory canal. ...
• What is myopia and how does it affect vision? A. A condition where distant objects ...
• Which factor contributes to conductive hearing loss? A. Damage to the auditory nerve. B. Fluid ...
• What is the mechanism by which myopia develops? A. The lens becomes more convex, focusing ...
• Which is a factor that does NOT contribute to conductive hearing loss? A. Aging of ...
• Which statement about refractive errors is correct? A. They are primarily caused by auditory issues. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a prevention method for vision defects? A. Regular eye ...
• Which of the following does NOT describe myopia? A. Nearsightedness. B. Farsightedness. C. Light focusing ...
• Which of the following is a common cause of color blindness? A. Prolonged exposure to ...
• Which of the following is a preventive measure for avoiding vision defects? A. Regular use ...
• What is NOT a symptom of aging affecting hearing? A. Difficulty understanding spoken words, especially ...
• How can refractive errors in vision be corrected? A. Through auditory training. B. By using ...
• What typically causes color blindness? A. Frequent swimming without goggles. B. Long-term exposure to loud ...
• Which of the following is a symptom of conductive hearing loss? A. Ringing in the ...
• What is an effective way to prevent vision defects related to UV exposure? A. Wearing ...
• How does aging typically affect hearing? A. It enhances the ability to hear high frequencies. ...
• Which of the following is NOT a factor in conductive hearing loss? A. Obstruction in ...
• Staphylococcus epidermidis causes pimples A. TRUE B. FALSE
• Among the nonsporulating, low GC Gram positive bacteria, which one actually have high GC content ...
• What is/are the key identifying characteristics of pseudomonads? A. No gas formation from glucose metabolism ...
• Because penicillin prevents peptidoglycan synthesis, it is more effective on cells. A. Gram negative ...
• Which of the following is not true regarding sulfate- and sulfur-reducing bacteria? A. Strict anaerobes ...
• Propionic acid fermentation is carried out by several bacteria that belong to the genus Propionibacterium ...
• The following is genera for Bacteroidacea except for : A. Fusobacterium B. Butyvibrio ...
• What is the importance of prosthecate in stalked bacteria? A. Attachment B. Increase the surface ...
• Gluconobacter and Acetobacter are responsible for vinegar production. What is the disadvantage from that bacteria? ...
• Pseudomonas bacteria uses which of the following as an electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration? ...
• For the endospore cell to change back into its vegetative state, it must go through ...
• Which one does not apply to Bdellovibrio? A. Obligate aerobe B. Attack gram-positive bacteria ...
• Acetobacter which has polar flagella cause pink disease of pineapple and rotting of apples and ...
• What are the characteristics of noninvansion staphylococcus diseases ? A. Diarrhea B. Tooth decay ...
• An inoculated thioglycolate medium culture tube is clear throughout the tube except for dense growth ...
• Endotoxin is an important constituent for: A. Gram-negative bacteria B. Gram-positive bacteria C. Fungi ...
• Which of the following is the causative agent of dental caries? A. S. pneumoniae ...
• What is the form of transmission of B. anthracis disease of gram positive bacteria? ...
• Below are the virulence factors of Mycobacterium tuberculosis except A. Lecithinase B. Mycolic acid ...
• Which statement is incorrect about Desulfovibrio: A. Gram-positive bacteria B. Commonly found in aquatic environments ...
• Which of the following genera does not belong to nitrogen fixing bacteria? A. Azotobacter ...
• Below are the general characteristics nitrogen-fixing bacteria except A. Free living or symbiotic B. Non-spore ...
• What is the color of the pigment xanthomonadin? A. Blue B. Yellow C. Purple ...
• Which of the following bacteria cause food-borne diseases? A. C. tetani B. C. botulinum ...
• If an antibody response were to be initiated against an endotoxin, against what structure would ...
• An intermediary ring of the gram-negative bacterium: A. L-ring B. Basal ring C. P-ring ...
• Environmental characteristics of bacteria are: A. Presence of oxygen B. pH levels C. Presence of ...
• Which of these is not a partially acid fast bacteria? A. Tsukamurella spp. B. Gordonia ...
• Where do the site for electron transfer for energy is located within a bacteria? ...
• Which of these fungi is a partially positive in acid fastness? A. M. gypseum ...
• Which of these is not incuded in the group: A. Sporangium B. Core C. Cortex ...
• Darting motility: A. Capnocytophaga spp. B. Campylobacter spp. C. Corynebacterium spp. D. Clostridium spp.
• Which of these is not a function of the cytoplasmic membrane? A. Oxidative proliferation ...
• The ONLY TRUE STAT test in bacteriology section is: A. Acid-Fast staining B. Gram staining ...
• What is the color of E. coli O157:H7 in MAC-SOR agar? A. Red/Pink B. Purple ...
• Which of these is not a normal content of a gram negative bacterial cell wall? ...
• CIN agar do not contain which inhibitor? A. Cefsulodin B. Irganasan C. Nystatin D. Bile ...
• Borris method will react to a structure that bears which antigen? A. Vi antigen ...
• Bacteria that temporarily lost their cell membrane? A. L-forms B. Pleomorphic C. Lysed cell ...
• Amies transport media is for? A. Stool B. Respiratory C. Viral D. None of the ...
• Uses carbon dioxide, inorganic molecules and oxidative processes. A. Photolithotrophic autotrophy B. Photoorganotrophic heterotrophy ...
• The culture media mostly used for the research purposes? A. Complex B. Tissue culture media ...
• The only specie of Shigella capable of fermentation of carbohydrate other than glucose is? ...
• Uses both Hemin and NAD as growth factor: A. H. aphrophilus B. H. aegypti ...
• Contains genes that simply encode for information require for movement among plasmids and chromosomes ...
• A young culture needs to be incubated for how many hours? A. 12 B. 16 ...
• Choline is needed by which organism? A. S. aureus B. B. anthracis C. N. meningitidis ...
• The selective media for Neisseria that utilizes Anisomycin is _________? A. Thayer-Martin B. Modified Thayer-Martin ...
• The function of silica gels within an anaerobic chamber system is to? A. Filler ...
• The amorphous version of a glycocalyx: A. Capsule B. Vi antigen C. Slimy layer ...
• How many rings do purine bases have? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four ...
• What are the building blocks of nucleic acids called? A. Amino acids B. Ribonucleotides ...
• Which nitrogenous bases are classified as pyrimidines in DNA nucleotides? A. Adenine and Guanine ...
• How are pyrimidines structurally different from purines in DNA nucleotides? A. Pyrimidines have a double-ring ...
• What are the three components that make up a DNA nucleotide? A. Sugar, phosphate group, ...
• What is the structure of purines in DNA nucleotides? A. A single-ring structure with a ...
• What is the sugar called that is found in a DNA nucleotide? A. Ribose ...
• Base pairing in DNA involves which of the following pairs of nucleobases? A. Adenine (A) ...
• According to Chargaff's rules, which of the following is a correct pair of complementary base ...
• What is the 3' end of the DNA strand? A. The end where carbon #5 ...
• What is a characteristic of microbes and viruses that makes them suitable for genetic research? ...
• Which of the following is a pyrimidine found in DNA? A. Adenine B. Guanine ...
• What are nucleic acids composed of? A. Amino acids B. Fatty acids C. Nucleotides ...
• Which of the following bases is not a purine? A. Adenine B. Guanine C. Cytosine ...
• What identifies the direction of each strand in the DNA molecule? A. The presence of ...
• In the structure of a DNA nucleotide, the phosphate group is attached to which carbon ...
• What is the role of the nitrogenous base in a deoxyribonucleotide? A. It is responsible ...
• Where is the phosphate group of one nucleotide attached in a DNA molecule? A. To ...
• What type of chemical bond stabilizes the base pairs in DNA? A. Ionic bonds ...
• What are the purines found in DNA nucleotides? A. Cytosine and Thymine B. Adenine and ...
• What is formed as a result of phosphodiester bonding between nucleotides? A. Amino acid chain ...
• What is the function of the base sequence of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)? A. It is ...
• What type of bond is formed between complementary nitrogenous bases in DNA? A. Ionic bond ...
• What is one advantage of using microbes and viruses in genetic studies over using peas, ...
• Why are microbes and viruses considered excellent model systems for the study of genetics? ...
• Which end of the DNA strand is referred to as the 5' end? A. The ...
• Which of the following is not a nitrogenous base in DNA? A. Adenine B. Thymine ...
• What type of bonds combine individual nucleoside triphosphates in DNA nucleotides? A. Hydrogen bonds ...
• Which of the following is NOT a component of a deoxyribonucleotide? A. Five-carbon sugar (deoxyribose) ...
• How are the two DNA strands oriented relative to each other? A. Parallel to each ...
• What type of bond forms between the phosphate group of one nucleotide and the hydroxyl ...
• According to Watson and Crick's model, what forms the rungs of the DNA helix ladder? ...
• Which base does adenine pair with in DNA? A. Thymine B. Guanine C. Cytosine ...
• What can cause non-pathogenic strains of Escherichia coli to become pathogenic? A. Mutation in human ...
• What is the term used to describe the sequence of nucleotides in a DNA strand? ...
• Thymine is unique to which of the following molecules? A. RNA B. DNA C. Proteins ...
• Who invented the microscope? A. Hippocrates B. Florence Nightingale C. Anton van Leeuwenhoek ...
• What is an apothecary? A. Early Pharmacy B. Roman Church C. Doctor's office ...
• Who were the earliest to keep accurate health records? A. Greeks B. Romans ...
• Who was the first female American physician? A. Florence Nightingale B. Elizabeth Blackwell ...
• Who were the first to study causes of diseases? A. Greeks B. Romans ...
• Which of the following people developed the antibiotic Penicillin? A. Wilhelm Rontgen B. ...
• Who created the rabies vaccine? A. John Edwards B. Rhazes C. Hippocrates ...
• Who is known as The Father of Medicine? A. Hippocrates B. Einstein ...
• What time period is often called the “rebirth of the science of medicine.” A. ...
• Who developed sanitation systems? A. Greeks B. Romans C. Egyptians D. Jewish
• What is Edward Jenner known for? A. Developed smallpox vaccination B. Invented microscope ...
• Who discovered a cure to the polio virus? A. Alfred Sabin B. Jonas ...
• Who were the first to embalm the deceased? A. Romans B. Egyptians ...
• Who was considered the founder of modern nursing? A. Elizabeth Blackwell B. Clara ...
• He invented the stethoscope. A. John Edwards B. Rene Laennec C. Anton van ...
• Who founded the American Red Cross? A. Rene Laennec B. Elizabeth Blackwell ...
• Who discovered x-rays? A. Florence Nightingale B. Rene Laennec C. Joseph Priestly ...
• The Chinese documented over 1000 medical herbs and established the science of... A. pharmacology ...
• Who was the first to begin to make very precise anatomical drawings (during the Renaissance ...
• During the primitive times, what was used for treatments? A. embalming B. leeches ...
• Social engineering is a significant threat to healthcare cybersecurity. A. TRUE B. FALSE ...
• Healthcare providers are not responsible for third-party breaches of patient data. A. TRUE ...
• Hospitals are exempt from ransomware attacks due to their critical role in public health. ...